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• ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

  - by Kev

  If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

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• Invalid character in a Base-64 string when Concatenating and Url encoding a string

  - by Rob

  I’m trying to write some encryption code that is passed through a Url. For the sake of the issue I’ve excluded the actual encryption of the data and just shown the code causing the problem. I take a salt value, convert it to a byte array and then convert that to a base64 string. This string I concatenate to another base64 string (which was previously a byte array). These two base64 strings are then Url encoded. Here’s my code... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; using System.Web; class RHEncryption { private static readonly Encoding ASCII_ENCODING = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); private static readonly string SECRET_KEY = "akey"; private static string md5(string text) { return BitConverter.ToString(new MD5CryptoServiceProvider().ComputeHash(ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(text))).Replace("-", "").ToLower(); } public string UrlEncodedData; public RHEncryption() { // encryption object RijndaelManaged aes192 = new RijndaelManaged(); aes192.KeySize = 192; aes192.BlockSize = 192; aes192.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; aes192.Key = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(md5(SECRET_KEY)); aes192.GenerateIV(); // convert Ivector to base64 for sending string base64IV = Convert.ToBase64String(aes192.IV); // salt value string s = "maryhadalittlelamb"; string salt = s.Substring(0, 8); // convert to byte array // and base64 for sending byte[] saltBytes = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(salt.TrimEnd('\0')); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(saltBytes); //url encode concatenated base64 strings UrlEncodedData = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(base64Salt + base64IV, ASCII_ENCODING); } public string UrlDecodedData() { // decode the url encode string string s = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(UrlEncodedData, ASCII_ENCODING); // convert back from base64 byte[] base64DecodedBytes = null; try { base64DecodedBytes = Convert.FromBase64String(s); } catch (FormatException e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } return s; } } If I then call the UrlDecodedData method I get a “Invalid character in a Base-64 string” exception. This is generated because the base64Salt variable contains an invalid character (I’m guessing a line termination) but I can’t seem to strip it off.

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• WCF service under https environment

  - by Budda

  I've created and tested WCF service, everything works fine. When I deployed to TEST environment and tried to open https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc I've got the error message: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding MetadataExchangeHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. Internet showed me that I need to add some more configuration options: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/WCF/7stepsWCF.aspx I've added some settings to service web.config file. Now it looks like in the following way: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentService" behaviorConfiguration="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <endpoint address="https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TransportSecurity" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="TransportSecurity"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> Actually, I've added "bindings" section and specified it for my endpoint. But this changed nothing... Please advise, what I need to do. Thanks a lot! P.S. Are there any differences in WCF service consuming from https and http resources?

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• c++ class member functions selected by traits

  - by Jive Dadson

  I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instatiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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• people picker control inside gridview template field with ajax update panel applied SharePoint 2010

  - by user1434450

  In my page I have drop down control, grid view. Inside the grid view in template field I have people picker control. When ever I change the drop down value from 'Select' to another I am displaying my grid view with people picker. Everything is working fine. But after applying 'update panel', whenever I change the drop down value, people picker control is not working inside the grid view. <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:GridView ID="gvDirectory" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" ShowHeader="false" onrowcommand="gvDirectory_RowCommand" onrowdeleting="gvDirectory_RowDeleting" onrowdatabound="gvDirectory_RowDataBound" BorderWidth="0"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkselect" runat="server" Width="20px" AutoPostBack="true" oncheckedchanged="chkselect_CheckedChanged"/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="lnkcategory" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Title") %>' Target="_blank" NavigateUrl='<%# Eval("URL") %>' Width="200px" onclick="ShowAwesomeHelloPageInDialog(this);return false;"></asp:HyperLink> <asp:Label ID="lblvalue" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("value") %>' Visible="false"></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <SharePoint:PeopleEditor ID="Assignedusers" runat="server" AllowEmpty="false" MultiSelect="true" Width="250px" BorderColor="#559CD7" Height="20px" SelectionSet="User,SPGroup" Rows="2" PlaceButtonsUnderEntityEditor="false" EnableViewState="true" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Delete"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnDelete" runat="server" CommandArgument='<%# Container.DataItemIndex%>' ImageUrl="~/_layouts/images/EditTaskPage/Delete.png" CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" Height="26px" Width="26px"/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </ContentTemplate> <%--<Triggers> <asp:PostBackTrigger ControlID="ddlCategory" /> </Triggers>--%> </asp:UpdatePanel> <script type="text/javascript"> _spOriginalFormAction = document.forms[0].action; _spSuppressFormOnSubmitWrapper = true; </script> how can I solve this problem.. thanks in advance....

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• Dynamic mass hosting using mod_wsgi

  - by Virgil Balibanu

  Hi, I am trying to configure an apache server using mod_wsgi for dynamic mass hosting. Each user will have it's own instance of a python application located in /mnt/data/www/domains/[user_name] and there will be a vhost.map telling me which domain maps to each user's directory (the directory will have the same name as the user). What i do not know is how to write the WSGIScriptAliasMatch line so that it also takes the path from the vhost.map file. What i want to do is something like this: I can have on my server different domains like www.virgilbalibanu.com or virgil.balibanu.com and flaviu.balibanu.com where each domain would belog to another user, the user name having no neccesary connection to the domain name. I want to do this beacuse a user, wehn he makes an acoount receives something like virgil.mydomain.com but if he has his own domain he can change it later to that, for example www.virgilbalibanu.ro, and this way I would only need to chenage the line in the vhost.map file So far I have something like this: Alias /media/ /mnt/data/www/iitcms/media/ #all media is taken from here RewriteEngine on RewriteMap lowercase int:tolower # define the map file RewriteMap vhost txt:/mnt/data/www/domains/vhost.map #this does not work either, can;t say why atm RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/uploads/ RewriteCond ${lowercase:%{SERVER_NAME}} ^(.+)$ RewriteCond ${vhost:%1} ^(/.*)$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ %1/media/uploads/$1 #---> this I have no ideea how i could do WSGIScriptAliasMatch ^([^/]+) /mnt/data/www/domains/$1/apache/django.wsgi <Directory "/mnt/data/www/domains"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <DirectoryMatch ^/mnt/data/www/domains/([^/]+)/apache> AllowOverride None Options FollowSymLinks ExecCGI Order deny,allow Allow from all </DirectoryMatch> <Directory /mnt/data/www/iitcms/media> AllowOverride None Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <DirectoryMatch ^/mnt/data/www/domains/([^/]+)/media/uploads> AllowOverride None Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </DirectoryMatch> I know the part i did with mod_rewrite doesn't work, couldn't really say why not but that's not as important so far, I am curious how could i write the WSGIScriptAliasMatch line so that to accomplish my objective. I would be very grateful for any help, or any other ideas related to how i can deal with this. Also it would be great if I'd manage to get each site to run in wsgi daemon mode, thou that is not as important. Thanks, Virgil

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• How can I load a file into a DataBag from within a Yahoo PigLatin UDF?

  - by Cervo

  I have a Pig program where I am trying to compute the minimum center between two bags. In order for it to work, I found I need to COGROUP the bags into a single dataset. The entire operation takes a long time. I want to either open one of the bags from disk within the UDF, or to be able to pass another relation into the UDF without needing to COGROUP...... Code: # **** Load files for iteration **** register myudfs.jar; wordcounts = LOAD 'input/wordcounts.txt' USING PigStorage('\t') AS (PatentNumber:chararray, word:chararray, frequency:double); centerassignments = load 'input/centerassignments/part-*' USING PigStorage('\t') AS (PatentNumber: chararray, oldCenter: chararray, newCenter: chararray); kcenters = LOAD 'input/kcenters/part-*' USING PigStorage('\t') AS (CenterID:chararray, word:chararray, frequency:double); kcentersa1 = CROSS centerassignments, kcenters; kcentersa = FOREACH kcentersa1 GENERATE centerassignments::PatentNumber as PatentNumber, kcenters::CenterID as CenterID, kcenters::word as word, kcenters::frequency as frequency; #***** Assign to nearest k-mean ******* assignpre1 = COGROUP wordcounts by PatentNumber, kcentersa by PatentNumber; assignwork2 = FOREACH assignpre1 GENERATE group as PatentNumber, myudfs.kmeans(wordcounts, kcentersa) as CenterID; basically my issue is that for each patent I need to pass the sub relations (wordcounts, kcenters). In order to do this, I do a cross and then a COGROUP by PatentNumber in order to get the set PatentNumber, {wordcounts}, {kcenters}. If I could figure a way to pass a relation or open up the centers from within the UDF, then I could just GROUP wordcounts by PatentNumber and run myudfs.kmeans(wordcount) which is hopefully much faster without the CROSS/COGROUP. This is an expensive operation. Currently this takes about 20 minutes and appears to tack the CPU/RAM. I was thinking it might be more efficient without the CROSS. I'm not sure it will be faster, so I'd like to experiment. Anyway it looks like calling the Loading functions from within Pig needs a PigContext object which I don't get from an evalfunc. And to use the hadoop file system, I need some initial objects as well, which I don't see how to get. So my question is how can I open a file from the hadoop file system from within a PIG UDF? I also run the UDF via main for debugging. So I need to load from the normal filesystem when in debug mode. Another better idea would be if there was a way to pass a relation into a UDF without needing to CROSS/COGROUP. This would be ideal, particularly if the relation resides in memory.. ie being able to do myudfs.kmeans(wordcounts, kcenters) without needing the CROSS/COGROUP with kcenters... But the basic idea is to trade IO for RAM/CPU cycles. Anyway any help will be much appreciated, the PIG UDFs aren't super well documented beyond the most simple ones, even in the UDF manual.

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• Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

  - by fennec

  So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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• jQuery selectors - parental problems

  - by aressidi

  Hi there, I have an emote selector that opens up when a user clicks an entry in a diary. The way I've worked it is that the emote selector panel lives hidden at the top of the page. When a user clicks on the 'emote control' associated with an entry, I use JavaScript to grab the HTML of the emote selector panel from the top of the page and insert it next to the entry. Using Firebug, here's what the finished product would look like in the page (snippet from element inspect). I'm trying to get the ID for the class 'emote-control-container' which contains the entry id: <td> <div id="1467002" class="emote-select emote-default">&nbsp;</div> <div class="emote-control-container" id="emote-controls-1467002"> <div id="emote-control-selector"> <div id="emote-control-selector-body"> <ul> <li id="emote-1"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-2"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-3"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-4"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> </ul> </div> <div id="emote-control-selector-footer"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </div> </td> I need the entry ID along with the emote ID to make a post via AJAX when a user selects an emote from the selector panel by clicking on it. I'm able to get the emote ID just fine with this, which I'm using to alert-out the selected emote ID: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var emoteId = this.id; alert(emoteId); }); I'm having trouble traversing up DOM to get the element ID from '.emote-control-container. I've tried everything, but I'd expect this to work, but it doesn't: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var entryId = jQuery(this.id).parent(".emote-control-container").attr("id"); alert(entryId); }); What am I doing wrong.? I can't target the ID of the .emote-control-container.

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• Selecting an element based on text and attribute of its sibling, using Xpath

  - by Adam Asham

  Looking at the document, the goal is to select the second cell from the second row, in the first table. I've created the following expression: //row/td[2]/text()[td[@class="identifier"]/span[text()="identifier"]] but it does not return any rows. Unfortunately I do not see what's wrong. To me, it looks alright. The expression should: select the text in the second cell in any row where the text of a span equals to "identifier" and the span is located in cell with a "identifier" class I'd appreciate it if you could point out what I'm doing wrong. Sample XML document: <?xml version="1.0"?> <html> <table class="first"> <tr> <td>row 1, cell 1</td> <td>row 1, cell 2</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="identifier"> <span>identifier</span> </td> <td> foo <span>ignore</span> bar </td> </tr> <tr> <td>row 3, cell 1</td> <td>row 3, cell 2</td> </tr> </table> <table class="second"> <tr> <td>row 1, cell 1</td> <td>row 1, cell 2</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="identifier"> <span>not an identifier</span> </td> <td> not a target </td> </tr> <tr> <td>row 3, cell 1</td> <td>row 3, cell 2</td> </tr> </table> </html>

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• MS Access MSChart.Graph.8 not printing

  - by Tanj

  Software: Microsoft Access 2007 SP2 Database File Version: Access 2000 I have an access program that I inherited from a previous employee. It uses forms for reports and since I don't have much experience in access I have continued to do this. I have created a copy of the program for another project and modified it to suit. I am having trouble getting more then one chart to print. All the charts display in form view, they all have the same properties (excepting data, position, etc.) For some reason they are not printing. They don't even show up in the print preview. I am thinking it must be something with the graphs themselves as they sometimes lose all information. I have to open the graphs in edit mode and change the data source from column to row and back again so that it gets redrawn. (Refresh doesn't fix it) So right now I don't even have a clue as to where to look so ideas are welcome. Edit #1 It seems to be a problem with linking to an unbound form. Subform Field Linker: Can't build a link between unbound forms. The query for the main form is SELECT tTest.ixTest, tMotorTypes.ixMotorType, tMotorTypes.asMotorType, tMotorTypes.fDeprecated, tTestType.asTest, tTest.asSerialNum, tTest.asOrderNum, tTest.asFrameNum, tTest.asRotorNum, tTest.asOperator, tTest.iStation, tTest.dtTestDate, tTest.ixTestType FROM tMotorTypes INNER JOIN (tTestType INNER JOIN tTest ON tTestType.ixTestType=tTest.ixTestType) ON tMotorTypes.ixMotorType=tTest.ixMotorType; The query for the chart is: SELECT qGraphRSTTemperatures.Frequency, qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Non Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Air In], qGraphRSTTemperatures.Core FROM qGraphRSTTemperatures ORDER BY qGraphRSTTemperatures.ixTemperature; Query qGraphRSTTemperatures: SELECT tElectricalData.dblFrequency AS Frequency, tTemperatures.dblDrvEnd AS [Drive End], tTemperatures.dblNonDrvEnd AS [Non Drive End], tTemperatures.dblAirIn AS [Air In], tTemperatures.dblCore AS Core, tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature FROM (tSubTest INNER JOIN tElectricalData ON tSubTest.ixSubTest = tElectricalData.ixSubTest) LEFT JOIN tTemperatures ON tElectricalData.ixElectrical = tTemperatures.ixElectrical WHERE (((tSubTest.ixSubTestType)=5)) ORDER BY tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature; So how come, in the form view it shows the graph with the correct data when linked thus: Child field: ixTest Master field: ixTest but won't print the graph. The graph will print if I remove the links, but then I have all the data from chart query as it is not limited by ixTest. edit #2 It seems to be a data retrieval/rendering issue in printing. Is there anything in printing that changes the context of records with respect to parent/child relationships?

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• Countdown timer using NSTimer in "0:00" format

  - by Joey Pennacchio

  I have been researching for days on how to do this and nobody has an answer. I am creating an app with 5 timers on the same view. I need to create a timer that counts down from "15:00" (minutes and seconds), and, another that counts down from "2:58" (minutes and seconds). The 15 minute timer should not repeat, but it should stop all other timers when it reaches "00:00." The "2:58" timer should repeat until the "15:00" or "Game Clock" reaches 0. Right now, I have scrapped almost all of my code and I'm working on the "2:58" repeating timer, or "rocketTimer." Does anyone know how to do this? Here is my code: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface FirstViewController : UIViewController { //Rocket Timer int totalSeconds; bool timerActive; NSTimer *rocketTimer; IBOutlet UILabel *rocketCount; int newTotalSeconds; int totalRocketSeconds; int minutes; int seconds; } - (IBAction)Start; @end and my .m #import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation FirstViewController - (NSString *)timeFormatted:(int)newTotalSeconds { int seconds = totalSeconds % 60; int minutes = (totalSeconds / 60) % 60; return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i:%02d"], minutes, seconds; } -(IBAction)Start { newTotalSeconds = 178; //for 2:58 newTotalSeconds = newTotalSeconds-1; rocketCount.text = [self timeFormatted:newTotalSeconds]; if(timerActive == NO){ timerActive = YES; newTotalSeconds = 178; [rocketTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(timerLoop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } else{ timerActive = NO; [rocketTimer invalidate]; rocketTimer = nil; } } -(void)timerLoop:(id)sender { totalSeconds = totalSeconds-1; rocketCount.text = [self timeFormatted:totalSeconds]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [rocketTimer release]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view from its nib. timerActive = NO; } - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } @end

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• Programming graphics and sound on PC - Total newbie questions, and lots of them!

  - by Russel

  Hello, This isn't exactly specifically a programming question (or is it?) but I was wondering: How are graphics and sound processed from code and output by the PC? My guess for graphics: There is some reserved memory space somewhere that holds exactly enough room for a frame of graphics output for your monitor. IE: 800 x 600, 24 bit color mode == 800x600x3 = ~1.4MB memory space Between each refresh, the program writes video data to this space. This action is completed before the monitor refresh. Assume a simple 2D game: the graphics data is stored in machine code as many bytes representing color values. Depending on what the program(s) being run instruct the PC, the processor reads the appropriate data and writes it to the memory space. When it is time for the monitor to refresh, it reads from each memory space byte-for-byte and activates hardware depending on those values for each color element of each pixel. All of this of course happens crazy-fast, and repeats x times a second, x being the monitor's refresh rate. I've simplified my own likely-incorrect explanation by avoiding talk of double buffering, etc Here are my questions: a) How close is the above guess (the three steps)? b) How could one incorporate graphics in pure C++ code? I assume the practical thing that everyone does is use a graphics library (SDL, OpenGL, etc), but, for example, how do these libraries accomplish what they do? Would manual inclusion of graphics in pure C++ code (say, a 2D spite) involve creating a two-dimensional array of bit values (or three dimensional to include multiple RGB values per pixel)? Is this how it would be done waaay back in the day? c) Also, continuing from above, do libraries such as SDL etc that use bitmaps actual just build the bitmap/etc files into machine code of the executable and use them as though they were build in the same matter mentioned in question b above? d) In my hypothetical step 3 above, is there any registers involved? Like, could you write some byte value to some register to output a single color of one byte on the screen? Or is it purely dedicated memory space (=RAM) + hardware interaction? e) Finally, how is all of this done for sound? (I have no idea :) )

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• Loading a SWF dynamically causes previously loaded SWFs to misbehave

  - by Aaron

  I have run into a very strange problem with Flash and Flex. It appears that under certain circumstances, movie clips from a SWF loaded at runtime (using Loader) cannot be instantiated if another SWF has been loaded in the mean time. Here is the complete code for a program that reproduces the error. It is compiled using mxmlc, via Ensemble Tofino: package { import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.system.*; public class DynamicLoading extends Sprite { private var testAppDomain:ApplicationDomain; public function DynamicLoading() { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/test.swf"); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTestLoadComplete); loader.load(request); } private function onTestLoadComplete(e:Event):void { var loaderInfo:LoaderInfo = LoaderInfo(e.target); testAppDomain = loaderInfo.applicationDomain; // To get the error, uncomment these lines... //var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/tiny.swf"); //var loader:Loader = new Loader(); //loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTinyLoadComplete); //loader.load(request); // ...and comment this one: onTinyLoadComplete(); } private function onTinyLoadComplete(e:Event = null):void { var spriteClass:Class = Class(testAppDomain.getDefinition("TopSymbol")); var sprite:Sprite = Sprite(new spriteClass()); sprite.x = sprite.y = 200; addChild(sprite); } } } With the second loading operation commented out as shown above, the code works. However, if the second loading operation is uncommented and onTinyLoadComplete runs after the second SWF is loaded, the line containing new spriteClass() fails with the following exception: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@2dc8ba1 to SubSymbol. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at TopSymbol() at DynamicLoading/onTinyLoadComplete()[C:\Users\...\TestFlash\DynamicLoading.as:38] test.swf and tiny.swf were created in Flash CS4. test.swf contains two symbols, both exported for ActionScript, one called TopSymbol and one called SubSymbol. SubSymbol contains a simple graphic (a scribble) and TopSymbol contains a single instance of SubSymbol. tiny.swf contains nothing; it is the result of publishing a new, empty ActionScript 3 project. If I modify test.swf so that SubSymbol is not exported for ActionScript, the error goes away, but in our real project we need the ability to dynamically load sprite classes that contain other, exported sprite classes as children. Any ideas as to what is causing this, or how to fix it?

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• Google App Engine 1.3.1 <admin-console> Issue

  - by Taylor L

  I attempted to add an <admin-console> section to my appengine-web.xml and I got the exception below. The <admin-console> element is a valid element according to the appengine-web.xsd. It's also documented in the app engine docs. Any ideas as to what is wrong? <admin-console> <page name="My Admin" url="/app/admin" /> </admin-console> Feb 14, 2010 12:40:09 AM com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineWebXmlReader readAppEngineWebXml SEVERE: Received exception processing C:/development/taylor/myapp/target/myapp-web-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT\WEB-INF/appengine-web.xml com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineConfigException: Unrecognized element <admin-console> at com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineWebXmlProcessor.processSecondLevelNode(AppEngineWebXmlProcessor.java:99) at com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineWebXmlProcessor.processXml(AppEngineWebXmlProcessor.java:46) at com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineWebXmlReader.processXml(AppEngineWebXmlReader.java:94) at com.google.apphosting.utils.config.AppEngineWebXmlReader.readAppEngineWebXml(AppEngineWebXmlReader.java:61) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.Application.<init>(Application.java:88) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.Application.readApplication(Application.java:120) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppCfg.<init>(AppCfg.java:107) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppCfg.<init>(AppCfg.java:58) at com.google.appengine.tools.admin.AppCfg.main(AppCfg.java:54) at net.kindleit.gae.EngineGoalBase.runAppCfg(EngineGoalBase.java:140) at net.kindleit.gae.DeployGoal.execute(DeployGoal.java:38) at org.apache.maven.plugin.DefaultPluginManager.executeMojo(DefaultPluginManager.java:579) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoalAndHandleFailures(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:498) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeTaskSegmentForProject(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:265) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeTaskSegments(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:191) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.execute(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:149) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute_aroundBody0(DefaultMaven.java:223) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute_aroundBody1$advice(DefaultMaven.java:304) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute(DefaultMaven.java:1) at org.apache.maven.embedder.MavenEmbedder.execute_aroundBody2(MavenEmbedder.java:904) at org.apache.maven.embedder.MavenEmbedder.execute_aroundBody3$advice(MavenEmbedder.java:304) at org.apache.maven.embedder.MavenEmbedder.execute(MavenEmbedder.java:1) at org.apache.maven.cli.MavenCli.doMain(MavenCli.java:176) at org.apache.maven.cli.MavenCli.main(MavenCli.java:63) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.codehaus.plexus.classworlds.launcher.Launcher.launchEnhanced(Launcher.java:289) at org.codehaus.plexus.classworlds.launcher.Launcher.launch(Launcher.java:229) at org.codehaus.plexus.classworlds.launcher.Launcher.mainWithExitCode(Launcher.java:408) at org.codehaus.plexus.classworlds.launcher.Launcher.main(Launcher.java:351) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.main(Launcher.java:31)

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• Core Animation performance on iphone

  - by nico

  I'm trying to do some animations using Core Animation on the iphone. I'm using CABasicAnimation on CALayer. It's a straight forward animation from a random place at the top of the screen to the bottom of the screen at random speed, I have 30 elements that doing the same animation continuously until another action happens. But the performance on the iPhone 3G is very sluggish when the animations start. The image is only 8k. Is this the right approach? How should I change so it performs better. // image cached somewhere else. CGImageRef imageRef = [[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:name ofType:@"png"]] CGImage]; - (void)animate:(NSTimer *)timer { int startX = round(radom() % 320); float speed = 1 / round(random() % 100 + 2); CALayer *layer = [CALayer layer]; layer.name = @"layer"; layer.contents = imageRef; // cached image layer.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, CGImageGetWidth(imageRef), CGImageGetHeight(imageRef)); int width = layer.frame.size.width; int height = layer.frame.size.height; layer.frame = CGRectMake(startX, self.view.frame.origin.y, width, height); [effectLayer addSublayer:layer]; CGPoint start = CGPointMake(startX, 0); CGPoint end = CGPointMake(startX, self.view.frame.size.height); float repeatCount = 1e100; CABasicAnimation *animation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; animation.delegate = self; animation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:start]; animation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:end]; animation.duration = speed; animation.repeatCount = repeatCount; animation.autoreverses = NO; animation.removedOnCompletion = YES; animation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [layer addAnimation:animation forKey:@"position"]; } The animations are fired off using a NSTimer. animationTimer = [NSTimer timerWithTimeInterval:0.2 target:self selector:@selector(animate:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:animationTimer forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode];

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• How to embed html table into the body of email

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: I am sending info to target email via PHP native mail() method right now. Everything else works fine but the table part troubles me the most. See sample output : Dear Michael Mao : Thank you for purchasing flight tickets with us, here is your receipt : Your tickets will be delivered by mail to the following address : Street Address 1 : sdfsdafsadf sdf Street Address 2 : N/A City : Sydney State : nsw Postcode : 2 Country : Australia Credit Card Number : *************1234 Your purchase details are recorded as : <table><tr><th class="delete">del?</th><th class="from_city">from</th><th class="to_city">to</th><th class="quantity">qty</th><th class="price">unit price</th><th class="price">total price</th></tr><tr class="evenrow" id="Sydney-Lima"><td><input name="isDeleting" type="checkbox"></td><td>Sydney</td><td>Lima</td><td>1</td><td>1030.00</td><td>1030</td></tr><tr class="oddrow" id="Sydney-Perth"><td><input name="isDeleting" type="checkbox"></td><td>Sydney</td><td>Perth</td><td>3</td><td>340.00</td><td>1020</td></tr><tr class="totalprice"><td colspan="5">Grand Total Price</td><td id="grandtotal">2050</td></tr></table> The source of table is directly taken from a webpage, exactly as the same. However, Gmail, Hotmail and most of other emails will ignore to render this as a table. So I am wondering, without using Outlook or other email sending agent software, how could I craft a embedded table for the PHP mail() method to send? Current code snippet corresponds to table generation : $purchaseinfo = $_POST["purchaseinfo"]; //if html tags are not to be filtered in the body of email $stringBuilder .= "<table>" .stripslashes($purchaseinfo) ."</table>"; //must send json response back to caller ajax request if(mail($email, 'Your purchase information on www.hardlyworldtravel.com', $emailbody, $headers)) echo json_encode(array("feedback"=>"successful")); else echo json_encode(array("feedback"=>"error")); Any hints and suggestions are welcomed, thanks a lot in advance.

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• How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

  - by Funka

  I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

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• Error in playing a swf file on internet explorer

  - by Rajeev

  In the below code i get an error saying Error #2007: Parameter url must be non-null on Ineternet explorer only.What am i doing wrong here html <OBJECT classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" WIDTH="50" HEIGHT="50" id="myMovieName"> <PARAM NAME="movie" VALUE="/media/players/testsound.swf" /> <PARAM NAME="quality" VALUE="high" /> <PARAM NAME="bgcolor" VALUE="#FFFFFF" /> <EMBED href="/media/players/testsound.swf" src="/media/players/testsound.swf" flashvars="soundUrl=sound.mp3" quality=high bgcolor=#FFFFFF NAME="myMovieName" ALIGN="" TYPE="application/x-shockwave-flash"> </EMBED> </OBJECT> mxml ; import flash.net.; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.controls.Button; import flash.events.Event; import flash.media.Sound; import flash.net.URLRequest; private function clickhandler(event:Event):void { var musicfile:String; var s:Sound = new Sound(); s.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onSoundLoaded); var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest("/opt/cloodon/site/media/players/sound.mp3"); //musicfile = stage.loaderInfo.parameters["soundUrl"]; //var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(musicfile); s.load(req); } private function onSoundLoaded(event:Event):void { //Alert.show("1"); //var localSound:Sound = event.currentTarget as Sound; var localSound:Sound = event.target as Sound; localSound.play(); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <!--<mx:Button id="play" label="PLAY" click="clickhandler(event)" />--> <mx:Image id="loader1" source="@Embed(source='/opt/cloodon/site/media/img/speaker.gif')" click="clickhandler(event)" /> </s:Application>

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• Design time error - multiple controls with the same Id

  - by ilivewithian

  I'm using VS 2008, I have a very simple page that has a bunch of uniquely named controls. When I try to view it in design mode I get the following error: Error Rendering Control - Label12 An unhanded exception has occurred. Multiple controls with the same ID 'Label1' were found. FindControl requires that controls have unique IDs I've checked the HTML and the designer file and I can only see one control called Label1. What might be causing this? Also, here is the aspx markup I'm having trouble with? <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="CoachingAppearanceReport.aspx.vb" Inherits="AcademyPro.CoachingAppearanceReport" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <div id="appearanceDetail" class="Left CriteriaContainer"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Appearance Type" AssociatedControlID="ddlAppearanceType" /> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlAppearanceType" runat="server" CssClass="AppType" OnDataBound="ddlAppearanceType_DataBound" DataSourceID="odsAppearanceType" DataTextField="AppearanceType" DataValueField="AppearanceTypeCode"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvAppearanceType" runat="server" ControlToValidate="ddlAppearanceType" InitialValue="" Text="*" ErrorMessage="The appearance type must be selected" /> <asp:Label ID="lblAppearanceType" runat="server" /> <br /> <div class="SubSettings"> <asp:Label ID="Label12" runat="server" Text="Subbed for" AssociatedControlID="ddlSubbedFor" /> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlSubbedFor" runat="server" OnDataBound="ddlSubbedFor_DataBound" DataSourceID="odsPlayersInAgeGroup" DataTextField="PlayerName" DataValueField="PlayerID"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="lblSubbedFor" runat="server" /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="Label13" runat="server" Text="Mins" AssociatedControlID="txtSubMins" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtSubMins" runat="server" MaxLength="3" CssClass="TinyWidth" /> <asp:Label ID="lblSubMins" runat="server" /> </div> </div> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> </body> </html>

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• Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

  - by Mike Thompson

  Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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• Inserting contact with android and querying the result uri returns no entries

  - by th0m4d

  Im developing an application which is dealing with the android contacts API. I implemented methods to insert, update and query contacts. So far everything worked (writing and reading contacts). At one point in my project Im experiencing a strange behaviour. I insert a contact using batch mode. I receive the URI to the RawContact. I do this in a background thread. // use batchmode for contact insertion ArrayList ops = new ArrayList(); int rawContactInsertIndex = ops.size(); // create rawContact ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(RawContacts.CONTENT_URI) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_TYPE, ConstantsContract.ACCOUNT_TYPE) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_NAME, accountName).build()); ops.add(createInsertOperation().withValueBackReference(Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, rawContactInsertIndex) .withValue(Data.MIMETYPE, StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(StructuredName.DISPLAY_NAME, displayName).withValue(StructuredName.GIVEN_NAME, firstName) .withValue(StructuredName.FAMILY_NAME, lastName).build()); //other data values... ContentProviderResult[] results = context.getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); if (results.length 0) { result = results[0]; } Then i request and store the lookup uri RawContacts.getContactLookupUri(this.getContentResolver(), myContantRawContactUri); I am able to query the contact using the rawContactUri directly after inserting it (in the same thread). The lookup uri returns null. Uri rawContactUri = appUser.getRawContactUri(ctx); if (rawContactUri == null) { return null; } String lastPathSegment = rawContactUri.getLastPathSegment(); long rawContactId = Long.decode(lastPathSegment); if (rawContactUri != null) { contact = readContactWithID(rawContactId, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID); In a different place in the project I want to query the contact i inserted by the stored lookup uri or raw contact uri. Both return no rows from the content provider. I tried it in the main thread and in another background thread. ctx.getContentResolver().query(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI, null, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID + " = ? AND " + ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE + " = ?", new String[] { contactID + "", ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE }, null); My first thought was that it could be related to the context.getContentResolver(). But the android documentation states, that the ContentResolver objects scope is the application's package, so you have on ContentResolver for the whole app. Am I right? What am I doing wrong? Why does the same rawContactUri return the contact at one place and does not on another place? And why do I get a lookup uri from a raw contact, which is not working at all?

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• When does IE7 recompute styles? Doesn't work reliably when a class is added to the body.

  - by Kid A

  I have an interesting problem here. I'm using a class on the element as a switch to drive a fair amount of layout behavior on my site. If the class is applied, certain things happen, and if the class isn't applied, they don't happen. The relevant CSS is roughly like this: .rightSide { display:none; } .showCommentsRight .rightSide { display:block; width:50%; } .showCommentsRight .leftSide { display:block; width:50%; } And the HTML: <body class="showCommentsRight"> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> </body> I've simplified things but this is essentially the method. The whole page changes layout (hiding the right side in three different areas) when the flag is set on the body. This works in Firefox and IE8. It does not work in IE8 in compatibility mode. What is fascinating is that if you sit there and refresh the page, the results can vary. It will pick a different section's right side to show. Sometimes it will show only the top section's right side, sometimes it will show the middle. I have tried a validator (to look for malformed html), double css formatting, and making sure my IE7 hack sheet wasn't having an effect. So my question is: * Is there a way that this behavior can be made reliable? * When does IE7 decide to re-do styling? Thanks everyone.

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• How do I apply a servlet filter when serving an HTML page directly?

  - by Philippe Beaudoin

  First off, I'm using Google AppEngine and Guice, but I suspect my problem is not related to these. When the user connect to my (GWT) webapp, the URL is a direct html page. For example, in development mode, it is: http://127.0.0.1:8888/Puzzlebazar.html?gwt.codesvr=127.0.0.1:9997. Now, I setup my web.xml in the following way: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <display-name>PuzzleBazar</display-name> <!-- Default page to serve --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>Puzzlebazar.html</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> <filter> <filter-name>guiceFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>com.google.inject.servlet.GuiceFilter</filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>guiceFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <!-- This Guice listener hijacks all further filters and servlets. Extra filters and servlets have to be configured in your ServletModule#configureServlets() by calling serve(String).with(Class<? extends HttpServlet>) and filter(String).through(Class<? extends Filter) --> <listener> <listener-class>com.puzzlebazar.server.guice.MyGuiceServletContextListener </listener-class> </listener> </web-app> Since I'm using Guice, I have to configure extra filters in my ServletModule, where I do this: filter("*.html").through( SecurityCookieFilter.class ); But my SecurityCookieFilter.doFilter is never called. I tried things like "*.html*" or <url-pattern>*</url-pattern> but to no avail. Any idea how I should do this?

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• WCF Service Library - make calls from Console App

  - by inutan

  Hello there, I have a WCF Service Library with netTcpBinding. Its app.config as follows: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="netTcp" maxBufferPoolSize="50000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="50000000"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="500" maxStringContentLength="50000000" maxArrayLength="50000000" maxBytesPerRead="50000000" maxNameTableCharCount="50000000" /> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateServiceBehavior" name="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateReportService"> <endpoint address="TemplateService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="netTcp" contract="ReportingComponentLibrary.ITemplateService"></endpoint> <endpoint address="ReportService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="netTcp" contract="ReportingComponentLibrary.IReportService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" ></endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8001/TemplateReportService" /> <add baseAddress ="http://localhost:8080/TemplateReportService" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> I want to call it from a console application for testing purpose. I understand that I can call by adding Service Reference or by adding proxy using svcutil. But in both these cases, my service needs to be up and running (I used WCF Test Client) Is there any other way I can call and test service method from console application?

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