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  • Resizing QT's QTextEdit to Match Text Height: maximumViewportSize()

    - by Aaron
    I am trying to use a QTextEdit widget inside of a form containing several QT widgets. The form itself sits inside a QScrollArea that is the central widget for a window. My intent is that any necessary scrolling will take place in the main QScrollArea (rather than inside any widgets), and any widgets inside will automatically resize their height to hold their contents. I have tried to implement the automatic resizing of height with a QTextEdit, but have run into an odd issue. I created a sub-class of QTextEdit and reimplemented sizeHint() like this: QSize OperationEditor::sizeHint() const { QSize sizehint = QTextBrowser::sizeHint(); sizehint.setHeight(this->fitted_height); return sizehint; } this-fitted_height is kept up-to-date via this slot that is wired to the QTextEdit's "contentsChanged()" signal: void OperationEditor::fitHeightToDocument() { this->document()->setTextWidth(this->viewport()->width()); QSize document_size(this->document()->size().toSize()); this->fitted_height = document_size.height(); this->updateGeometry(); } The size policy of the QTextEdit sub-class is: this->setSizePolicy(QSizePolicy::MinimumExpanding, QSizePolicy::Preferred); I took this approach after reading this post. Here is my problem: As the QTextEdit gradually resizes to fill the window, it stops getting larger and starts scrolling within the QTextEdit, no matter what height is returned from sizeHint(). If I initially have sizeHint() return some large constant number, then the QTextEdit is very big and is contained nicely within the outer QScrollArea, as one would expect. However, if sizeHint gradually adjusts the size of the QTextEdit rather than just making it really big to start, then it tops out when it fills the current window and starts scrolling instead of growing. I have traced this problem to be that, no matter what my sizeHint() returns, it will never resize the QTextEdit larger than the value returned from maximumViewportSize(), which is inherited from QAbstractScrollArea. Note that this is not the same number as viewport()-maximumSize(). I am unable to figure out how to set that value. Looking at QT's source code, maximumViewportSize() is returning "the size of the viewport as if the scroll bars had no valid scrolling range." This value is basically computed as the current size of the widget minus (2 * frameWidth + margins) plus any scrollbar widths/heights. This does not make a lot of sense to me, and it's not clear to me why that number would be used anywhere in a way that supercede's the sub-class's sizeHint() implementation. Also, it does seem odd that the single "frameWidth" integer is used in computing both the width and the height. Can anyone please shed some light on this? I suspect that my poor understanding of QT's layout engine is to blame here.

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  • How can I do something ~after~ an event has fired in C#?

    - by Siracuse
    I'm using the following project to handle global keyboard and mouse hooking in my C# application. This project is basically a wrapper around the Win API call SetWindowsHookEx using either the WH_MOUSE_LL or WH_KEYBOARD_LL constants. It also manages certain state and generally makes this kind of hooking pretty pain free. I'm using this for a mouse gesture recognition software I'm working on. Basically, I have it setup so it detects when a global hotkey is pressed down (say CTRL), then the user moves the mouse in the shape of a pre-defined gesture and then releases global hotkey. The event for the KeyDown is processed and tells my program to start recording the mouse locations until it receives the KeyUp event. This is working fine and it allows an easy way for users to enter a mouse-gesture mode. Once the KeyUp event fires and it detects the appropriate gesture, it is suppose to send certain keystrokes to the active window that the user has defined for that particular gesture they just drew. I'm using the SendKeys.Send/SendWait methods to send output to the current window. My problem is this: When the user releases their global hotkey (say CTRL), it fires the KeyUp event. My program takes its recorded mouse points and detects the relevant gesture and attempts to send the correct input via SendKeys. However, because all of this is in the KeyUp event, that global hotkey hasn't finished being processed. So, for example if I defined a gesture to send the key "A" when it is detected, and my global hotkey is CTRL, when it is detected SendKeys will send "A" but while CTRL is still "down". So, instead of just sending A, I'm getting CTRL-A. So, in this example, instead of physically sending the single character "A" it is selecting-all via the CTRL-A shortcut. Even though the user has released the CTRL (global hotkey), it is still being considered down by the system. Once my KeyUp event fires, how can I have my program wait some period of time or for some event so I can be sure that the global hotkey is truly no longer being registered by the system, and only then sending the correct input via SendKeys?

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  • How to setup named instances using StructureMap profiles?

    - by khaledh
    I've done quite a bit of googling and searching here on SO, but couldn't find a similar question or answer. In typical SM configuration you can add multiple named instances for a single PluginType: ForRequestedType<IFoo>() .AddInstances( x => { x.OfConcreteType<FooA>().WithName( "FooA" ); x.OfConcreteType<FooB>().WithName( "FooB" ); } ); No problem there. The problem is that I can't do the same when creating a profile. Most examples explaining how to use profiles use the For<>() method of the passed ProfileExpression: CreateProfile( "Default", p => { p.For<IFoo>().UseConcreteType<FooC>(); } ); I can't seem to find a way to add multiple named instances for the same PluginType as you can do above with regular configuration. The only other method available through ProfileExpression is Type<>(), but I'm not sure if it can be used for this purpose. Edit: I tried to use Type<>() instead of For<>() and it seems to be taking me in the right direction, but I bumped into another problem. To better explain it here's a better example of what I'm trying to do (this is what I posted to the structuremap-users group, no answer yet): ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.CreateProfile( "Nissan", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewNissanCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldNissanCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); x.CreateProfile( "Honda", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewHondaCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldHondaCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); } ); ObjectFactory.Profile = "Nissan"; ICar newCar = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ICar>( "New" ); // -> returns NewHondaCar ICar car = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ICar>(); // -> returns OldNissanCar So even though I set the profile to "Nissan", GetNamedInstance<>("New") returned an instance from the incorrect profile - it should've returned NewNissanCar instead of NewHondaCar. Interestingly, GetInstance<>() uses the correct profile, but because I can't pass an instance name, it returns an arbitrary concrete type from that profile that implements ICar (I guess it just returns the last concrete type added for that interface).

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  • .NET Interface with AutoCAD -- SetXData errors.

    - by Jerry
    I am trying to use the SetXData method on the AutoCAD 2007 COM object, but it is throwing errors. Example Test: public AcadEntity getAcadEntity() { /// ... Basic code to return a single AutoCAD entity... } private void btnTagItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { AcadEntity ent = getAcadEntity(); short[] xDataType; string[] xDataStrings; DrawingXData xData = new DrawingXData(); xData.field1 = "Some Text Goes here"; xData.field2 = 1; xData.field3 = 100; xData.field4 = 1509.2; xData.field5 = "More Text"; BuildXData("AutoCad_App_Name", xData, out xDataType, out xDataStrings); ent.SetXData(xDataType, xDataStrings); // This line crashes. } private void BuildXData(string applicationName, DrawingXData xData, out short[] xDataType, out string[] xDataStrings) { List<short> dataTypes = new List<short>(); List<string> dataStrings = new List<string>(); /// Code types... /// 1000 == String up to 255 bytes /// 1001 == Application Name // Set Applicaiton Name dataTypes.Add(1001); dataStrings.Add(applicationName); // Set Application Data dataTypes.Add(1000); dataStrings.Add(xData.field1.ToString()); dataTypes.Add(1000); dataStrings.Add(xData.field2.ToString()); dataTypes.Add(1000); dataStrings.Add(xData.field3.ToString()); dataTypes.Add(1000); dataStrings.Add(xData.field4.ToString()); dataTypes.Add(1000); dataStrings.Add(xData.field5.ToString()); // ... etc. xDataType = dataTypes.ToArray(); xDataStrings = dataStrings.ToArray(); } The error I get is "Invalid argument data in SetXData method". The error code (if this helps anyone) is -2145320939. The main reason I'm posting is because the same code in a very old VB6 application works just fine. I'm stumped.

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  • Can Spring.Net function as PostSharp?

    - by Alex K
    A few months back I've discovered PostSharp, and for a time, it was good. But then legal came back with an answer saying that they don't like the licence of the old versions. Then the department told me that 2.0's price was unacceptably high (for the number of seats we need)... I was extremely disapponted, but not disheartened. Can't be the only such framework, I thought. I kept looking for a replacement, but most of it was either dead, ill maintained (especially in documentation department), for academic use, or all of the above (I'm looking at you Aspect.Net) Then I've discovered Spring.Net, and for a time, it was good. I've been reading the documentation and it went on to paint what seemed to be a supperior picture of an AOP nirvana. No longer was I locked to attributes to mark where I wanted code interception to take place, but it could be configured in XML and changes to it didn't require re-compile. Great. Then I looked at the samples and saw the following, in every single usage scenario: // Create AOP proxy using Spring.NET IoC container. IApplicationContext ctx = ContextRegistry.GetContext(); ICommand command = (ICommand)ctx["myServiceCommand"]; command.Execute(); if (command.IsUndoCapable) { command.UnExecute(); } Why must the first two lines of code exist? It ruins everything. This means I cannot simply provide a user with a set of aspects and attributes or XML configs that they can use by sticking appropriate attributes on the appropriate methods/classes/etc or editing the match pattern in XML. They have to modify their program logic to make this work! Is there a way to make Spring.Net behave as PostSharp in this case? (i.e. user only needs to add attributes/XML config, not edit content of any methods. Alternatively, is there a worthy and functioning alternative to PostSharp? I've seen a few question titled like this on SO, but none of them were actually looking to replace PostSharp, they only wanted to supplement its functionality. I need full replacement.

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  • Focusable EditText inside ListView

    - by Joe
    I've spent about 6 hours on this so far, and been hitting nothing but roadblocks. The general premise is that there is some row in a ListView (whether it's generated by the adapter, or added as a header view) that contains an EditText widget and a Button. All I want to do is be able to use the jogball/arrows, to navigate the selector to individual items like normal, but when I get to a particular row -- even if I have to explicitly identify the row -- that has a focusable child, I want that child to take focus instead of indicating the position with the selector. I've tried many possibilities, and have so far had no luck. layout: <ListView android:id="@android:id/list" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" /> Header view: EditText view = new EditText(this); listView.addHeaderView(view, null, true); Assuming there are other items in the adapter, using the arrow keys will move the selection up/down in the list, as expected; but when getting to the header row, it is also displayed with the selector, and no way to focus into the EditText using the jogball. Note: tapping on the EditText will focus it at that point, however that relies on a touchscreen, which should not be a requirement. ListView apparently has two modes in this regard: 1. setItemsCanFocus(true): selector is never displayed, but the EditText can get focus when using the arrows. Focus search algorithm is hard to predict, and no visual feedback (on any rows: having focusable children or not) on which item is selected, both of which can give the user an unexpected experience. 2. setItemsCanFocus(false): selector is always drawn in non-touch-mode, and EditText can never get focus -- even if you tap on it. To make matters worse, calling editTextView.requestFocus() returns true, but in fact does not give the EditText focus. What I'm envisioning is basically a hybrid of 1 & 2, where rather than the list setting if all items are focusable or not, I want to set focusability for a single item in the list, so that the selector seamlessly transitions from selecting the entire row for non-focusable items, and traversing the focus tree for items that contain focusable children. Any takers?

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  • Sharing a UIView between UIViewControllers in a UITabBarController

    - by Wireless Designs
    Hi all - I have a UIScrollView that houses a gallery of images the user can scroll through. This view needs to be visible on each of three separate UIViewControllers that are housed within a UITabBarController. Right now, I have three separate UIScrollView instances in the UITabBarController subclass, and the controller manages keeping the three synchronized (when a user scrolls the one they can see, programmatically scrolling the other two to match, etc.), which is not ideal. I would like to know if there is a way to work with only ONE instance of the UIScrollView, but have it show up only in the UIViewController that the user is currently interacting with. This would completely eliminate all the synchronization code. Here is basically what I have now in the UITabBarController (which is where all this is currently managed): @interface ScrollerTabBarController : UITabBarController { FirstViewController *firstView; SecondViewController *secondView; ThirdViewController *thirdView; UIScrollView *scrollerOne; UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; UIScrollView *scrollerThree; } @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet FirstViewController *firstView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet SecondViewController *secondView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet ThirdViewController *thirdView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerOne; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerThree; @end @implementation ScrollerTabBarController - (void)layoutScroller:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)scrollToMatch:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)viewDidLoad { [self layoutScroller:scrollerOne]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerTwo]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerThree]; [scrollerOne setDelegate:self]; [scrollerTwo setDelegate:self]; [scrollerThree setDelegate:self]; [firstView setGallery:scrollerOne]; [secondView setGallery:scrollerTwo]; [thirdView setGallery:scrollerThree]; } - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self scrollToMatch:scrollView]; } @end The UITabBarController gets notified (as the scroll view's delegate) when the user scrolls one of the instances, and then calls methods like scrollToMatch: to sync up the other two with the user's choice. Is there something that can be done, using a many-to-one relationship on IBOutlet or something like that, to narrow this down to one instance so I'm not having to manage three scroll views? I tried keeping a single instance and moving the pointer from one view to the next using the UITabBarControllerDelegate methods (calling setGallery:nil on the current and setGallery:scrollerOne on the next each time it changed), but the scroller never moved to the other tabs. Thanks in advance!

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  • MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

    - by Kurt
    Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

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  • What are the reasons why the CPU usage doesn’t go 100% with C# and APM?

    - by Martin
    I have an application which is CPU intensive. When the data is processed on a single thread, the CPU usage goes to 100% for many minutes. So the performance of the application appears to be bound by the CPU. I have multithreaded the logic of the application, which result in an increase of the overall performance. However, the CPU usage hardly goes above 30%-50%. I would expect the CPU (and the many cores) to go to 100% since I process many set of data at the same time. Below is a simplified example of the logic I use to start the threads. When I run this example, the CPU goes to 100% (on an 8/16 cores machine). However, my application which uses the same pattern doesn’t. public class DataExecutionContext { public int Counter { get; set; } // Arrays of data } static void Main(string[] args) { // Load data from the database into the context var contexts = new List<DataExecutionContext>(100); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { contexts.Add(new DataExecutionContext()); } // Data loaded. Start to process. var latch = new CountdownEvent(contexts.Count); var processData = new Action<DataExecutionContext>(c => { // The thread doesn't access data from a DB, file, // network, etc. It reads and write data in RAM only // (in its context). for (int i = 0; i < 100000000; i++) c.Counter++; }); foreach (var context in contexts) { processData.BeginInvoke(context, new AsyncCallback(ar => { latch.Signal(); }), null); } latch.Wait(); } I have reduced the number of locks to the strict minimum (only the latch is locking). The best way I found was to create a context in which a thread can read/write in memory. Contexts are not shared among other threads. The threads can’t access the database, files or network. In other words, I profiled my application and I didn’t find any bottleneck. Why the CPU usage of my application doesn’t go about 50%? Is it the pattern I use? Should I create my own thread instead of using the .Net thread pool? Is there any gotchas? Is there any tool that you could recommend me to find my issue? Thanks!

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  • JS onclick triggers wrong object

    - by Clemens Prerovsky
    Hi guys, what I'm trying to do here is to associate a DOM object with an instance of a JS object, which will provide some meaningfol methods later on ;) At this point I just want to handle my JS object the click event, whilst keeping it's references intact. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" /> <title>Insert title here</title> <script type="text/javascript"> // my object, which will hold a reference to a single DOM object obj = function(domobj) { this.o = domobj; my = this; var ref = my.click; this.o.onclick = ref; } // my objects click function obj.prototype.click = function() { alert(my.o.innerHTML); } // create objects with references $(document).ready(function() { o1 = new obj(document.getElementById('b1')); o2 = new obj(document.getElementById('b2')); }); </script> </head> <body> <button id="b1">button 1</button> <button id="b2">button 2</button> </body> </html> Expected result: when clicking on button 1, the text "button 1" should be alerted. Current result: when clicking button 1, the text "button 2" is alerted. What I found out so far is that the wrong instance of obj is triggered from the click event, even though o1 and o2 maintain correct references to their corresponding DOM object. Any ideas how to solve this? Thanks for your help! Best regards, Clemens

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  • GWTAI applet integration in GWT problem

    - by andy
    Hi everybody. I'm working with gwtai to integrate a java applet into my gwt - project. Basic communication from my main application to the applet (such as invoking simple methods that return int or boolean values) works. But the main reason why I need to integrate this applet is, that I need it to connect to another server and receive a answer and pass it to my gwt-application. So there's one basic method in the applet: public String SendAndReceive(String host, int sendPort, int receivePort, String query) that connects to the server, receives an answer and returns this answer as a string. When I now try to invoke this method like this: applet.SendAndReceive("0.0.0.0", 9099, 2000, "show streams;"); I constantly run into following error (full error message at the end): com.google.gwt.core.client.JavaScriptException: (String): Error calling method on NPObject! [plugin exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission * read,write)] I couldn't find a solution (for gwtai is a quite uncommon topic), what I found out (and what the Exception let's one assume) is, that there's a security problem - maybe because I'm connecting to another server. I also read something about browser's Single Origin Policy, what would point in the same direction...up to now I have never worked with java applets. So if someone has a solution or a hint I would be very thankful. If more code is helpful I can give. Thanks, Andy the full error message: 21:03:49.864 [ERROR] [follovizergwt] Unable to load module entry point class follovizer.gwt.client.FolloVizerGWT (see associated exception for details) com.google.gwt.core.client.JavaScriptException: (String): Error calling method on NPObject! [plugin exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission * read,write)]. at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.invokeJavascript(BrowserChannelServer.java:195) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpaceOOPHM.doInvoke(ModuleSpaceOOPHM.java:120) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNative(ModuleSpace.java:507) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNativeObject(ModuleSpace.java:264) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.JavaScriptHost.invokeNativeObject(JavaScriptHost.java:91) at follovizer.gwt.client.AnduINAppletImpl.SendAndReceive(AnduINAppletImpl.java) at follovizer.gwt.client.FolloVizerGWT.createLayout(FolloVizerGWT.java:92) at follovizer.gwt.client.FolloVizerGWT.onModuleLoad(FolloVizerGWT.java:40) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.onLoad(ModuleSpace.java:369) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.OophmSessionHandler.loadModule(OophmSessionHandler.java:185) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.processConnection(BrowserChannelServer.java:380) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.run(BrowserChannelServer.java:222) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619)

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  • ReportBuilder.application fails on my PC - but works on localhost

    - by JayTee
    We're running SQL 2005 on Win2K3 server and are using SSRS. Here's the situation: I can run Report Builder from localhost My coworker can run Report Builder on his Vista computer Another coworker can run Report Builder on his XP SP3 computer (IE7) I can NOT run Report Builder on my XP SP3 computer (IE7) I'm told that it could be anything from an errant registry entry to a group policy problem. Here is what I've tried: Put the site into "Trusted Sites" with "low" security re-install .NET create a new local user account and attempt to run it The results? Every single time, I get a dialog box: "Application cannot be started. Contact the application vendor" I click the details button and get this: PLATFORM VERSION INFO Windows : 5.1.2600.196608 (Win32NT) Common Language Runtime : 2.0.50727.3607 System.Deployment.dll : 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) mscorwks.dll : 2.0.50727.3607 (GDR.050727-3600) dfdll.dll : 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) dfshim.dll : 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) SOURCES Deployment url : http://www.example.com/ReportServer/ReportBuilder/ReportBuilder.application Server : Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By : ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 IDENTITIES Deployment Identity : ReportBuilder.application, Version=9.0.3042.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c3bce3770c238a49, processorArchitecture=msil APPLICATION SUMMARY * Online only application. * Trust url parameter is set. ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://www.example.com/ReportServer/ReportBuilder/ReportBuilder.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Value does not fall within the expected range. COMPONENT STORE TRANSACTION FAILURE SUMMARY No transaction error was detected. WARNINGS There were no warnings during this operation. OPERATION PROGRESS STATUS * [4/7/2010 2:53:57 PM] : Activation of http://www.example.com/ReportServer/ReportBuilder/ReportBuilder.application has started. * [4/7/2010 2:53:58 PM] : Processing of deployment manifest has successfully completed. ERROR DETAILS Following errors were detected during this operation. * [4/7/2010 2:53:58 PM] System.ArgumentException - Value does not fall within the expected range. - Source: System.Deployment - Stack trace: at System.Deployment.Application.NativeMethods.CorLaunchApplication(UInt32 hostType, String applicationFullName, Int32 manifestPathsCount, String[] manifestPaths, Int32 activationDataCount, String[] activationData, PROCESS_INFORMATION processInformation) at System.Deployment.Application.ComponentStore.ActivateApplication(DefinitionAppId appId, String activationParameter, Boolean useActivationParameter) at System.Deployment.Application.SubscriptionStore.ActivateApplication(DefinitionAppId appId, String activationParameter, Boolean useActivationParameter) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.Activate(DefinitionAppId appId, AssemblyManifest appManifest, String activationParameter, Boolean useActivationParameter) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.PerformDeploymentActivation(Uri activationUri, Boolean isShortcut, String textualSubId, String deploymentProviderUrlFromExtension, BrowserSettings browserSettings, String& errorPageUrl) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.ActivateDeploymentWorker(Object state) COMPONENT STORE TRANSACTION DETAILS * Transaction at [4/7/2010 2:53:58 PM] + System.Deployment.Internal.Isolation.StoreOperationSetDeploymentMetadata - Status: Set - HRESULT: 0x0 + System.Deployment.Internal.Isolation.StoreTransactionOperationType (27) - HRESULT: 0x0 I'm really at a loss. I'm certain there is something on my PC preventing the application from running - but I just don't know what. Google hasn't been much of a help because most problems are related to the server configuration (which I know is correct since it works on other PCs) Help me, Overflow Kenobi, you're my only hope..

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  • C# Monte Carlo Incremental Risk Calculation optimisation, random numbers, parallel execution

    - by m3ntat
    My current task is to optimise a Monte Carlo Simulation that calculates Capital Adequacy figures by region for a set of Obligors. It is running about 10 x too slow for where it will need to be in production and number or daily runs required. Additionally the granularity of the result figures will need to be improved down to desk possibly book level at some stage, the code I've been given is basically a prototype which is used by business units in a semi production capacity. The application is currently single threaded so I'll need to make it multi-threaded, may look at System.Threading.ThreadPool or the Microsoft Parallel Extensions library but I'm constrained to .NET 2 on the server at this bank so I may have to consider this guy's port, http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/aforge_parallel.aspx. I am trying my best to get them to upgrade to .NET 3.5 SP1 but it's a major exercise in an organisation of this size and might not be possible in my contract time frames. I've profiled the application using the trial of dotTrace (http://www.jetbrains.com/profiler). What other good profilers exist? Free ones? A lot of the execution time is spent generating uniform random numbers and then translating this to a normally distributed random number. They are using a C# Mersenne twister implementation. I am not sure where they got it or if it's the best way to go about this (or best implementation) to generate the uniform random numbers. Then this is translated to a normally distributed version for use in the calculation (I haven't delved into the translation code yet). Also what is the experience using the following? http://quantlib.org http://www.qlnet.org (C# port of quantlib) or http://www.boost.org Any alternatives you know of? I'm a C# developer so would prefer C#, but a wrapper to C++ shouldn't be a problem, should it? Maybe even faster leveraging the C++ implementations. I am thinking some of these libraries will have the fastest method to directly generate normally distributed random numbers, without the translation step. Also they may have some other functions that will be helpful in the subsequent calculations. Also the computer this is on is a quad core Opteron 275, 8 GB memory but Windows Server 2003 Enterprise 32 bit. Should I advise them to upgrade to a 64 bit OS? Any links to articles supporting this decision would really be appreciated. Anyway, any advice and help you may have is really appreciated.

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  • Linq to List and IEnumerable issues

    - by Otaku
    I am querying an HTML file with Linq. It looks something like this: <html> <body> <div class="Players"> <div class="role">Goalies</div> <div class="name">John Smith</div> <div class="name">Shawn Xie</div> <div class="role">Right Wings</div> <div class="name">Jack Davis</div> <div class="name">Carl Yuns</div> <div class="name">Wayne Gortonia</div> <div class="role">Centers</div> <div class="name">Lutz Gaspy</div> <div class="name">John Jacobs</div> </div </html> </body> What I'm trying to do is create a list of these folks like in a list of a structure called Players: Structure Players Public Name As String Public Position As String End Structure But I've quickly found out I don't really know what I'm doing when it comes to Linq. I've got this far my my queries: Dim goalieList = From d In player.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Goalies" _ Select From g In d.ElementsAfterSelf _ Take While (g.@class <> "role") _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Goalie", _ .Name = g.Value} Dim centersList = From d In player.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Centers" _ Select From g In d.ElementsAfterSelf _ Take While (g.@class <> "role") _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Centers", _ .Name = g.Value} Which gets me down to the the players by position, but then I can't do much with this afterwards the result type is System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of Player)) What I want to do is add these two results to a new list, like: Dim playersList As List(Of Players) = Nothing playersList.AddRange(centersList) playersList.AddRange(goalieList) So that I can then query the list and use it. But it kicks the error: Unable to cast object of type 'WhereSelectEnumerableIterator2[System.Xml.Linq.XElement,System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[Players]]' to type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[Players]' As you can see, I may really have no idea how to work with all these objects/classes. Does anyone have any insight on what I may be doing wrong and how I can resolve it? RESOLVED: The Linq query needs to return a single iEnumerable, like this: Dim goalieList = From l In _ (From d In players.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Goalies" _ Select d.ElementsAfterSelf.TakeWhile(Function(f) f.@class <> "role")) _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Goalie", .Name = l.Value} and then use goalieList.ToList

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  • Something wrong with my XML?

    - by Prateek Raj
    hi everyone, i'm parsing an xml with my extjs but it returns only one of the five components. only the first one of the five components. Ext.regModel('Card', { fields: ['investor'] }); var store = new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'Card', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'xmlformat.xml', reader: { type: 'xml', record: 'investors' } }, listeners: { single: true, datachanged: function(){ Ext.getBody().unmask(); var items = []; store.each(function(rec){ alert(rec.get('investor')); }); and my xml file is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <root> <investors> <investor>Active</investor> <investor>Aggressive</investor> <investor>Conservative</investor> <investor>Day Trader</investor> <investor>Very Active</investor> </investors> <events> <event>3 Month Expiry</event> <event>LEAPS</event> <event>Monthlies</event> <event>Monthly Expiries</event> <event>Weeklies</event> </events> <prices> <price>$0.5</price> <price>$0.05</price> <price>$1</price> <price>$22</price> <price>$100.34</price> </prices> </root> wen i run the code only "Active" comes out. . . . i know that i'm doing something wrong but i'm not sure what.... please help . . . . .

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  • Entity Attribute Value Database vs. strict Relational Model Ecommerce question

    - by Dr. Zim
    It is safe to say that the EAV/CR database model is bad. That said, Question: What database model, technique, or pattern should be used to deal with "classes" of attributes describing e-commerce products which can be changed at run time? In a good E-commerce database, you will store classes of options (like TV resolution then have a resolution for each TV, but the next product may not be a TV and not have "TV resolution"). How do you store them, search efficiently, and allow your users to setup product types with variable fields describing their products? If the search engine finds that customers typically search for TVs based on console depth, you could add console depth to your fields, then add a single depth for each tv product type at run time. There is a nice common feature among good e-commerce apps where they show a set of products, then have "drill down" side menus where you can see "TV Resolution" as a header, and the top five most common TV Resolutions for the found set. You click one and it only shows TVs of that resolution, allowing you to further drill down by selecting other categories on the side menu. These options would be the dynamic product attributes added at run time. Further discussion: So long story short, are there any links out on the Internet or model descriptions that could "academically" fix the following setup? I thank Noel Kennedy for suggesting a category table, but the need may be greater than that. I describe it a different way below, trying to highlight the significance. I may need a viewpoint correction to solve the problem, or I may need to go deeper in to the EAV/CR. Love the positive response to the EAV/CR model. My fellow developers all say what Jeffrey Kemp touched on below: "new entities must be modeled and designed by a professional" (taken out of context, read his response below). The problem is: entities add and remove attributes weekly (search keywords dictate future attributes) new entities arrive weekly (products are assembled from parts) old entities go away weekly (archived, less popular, seasonal) The customer wants to add attributes to the products for two reasons: department / keyword search / comparison chart between like products consumer product configuration before checkout The attributes must have significance, not just a keyword search. If they want to compare all cakes that have a "whipped cream frosting", they can click cakes, click birthday theme, click whipped cream frosting, then check all cakes that are interesting knowing they all have whipped cream frosting. This is not specific to cakes, just an example.

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  • How can I reliably check client identity whilst making DCOM calls to a C# .Net 3.5 Server?

    - by pionium
    Hi, I have an old Win32 C++ DCOM Server that I am rewriting to use C# .Net 3.5. The client applications sit on remote XP machines and are also written in C++. These clients must remain unchanged, hence I must implement the interfaces on new .Net objects. This has been done, and is working successfully regarding the implementation of the interfaces, and all of the calls are correctly being made from the old clients to the new .Net objects. However, I'm having problems obtaining the identity of the calling user from the DCOM Client. In order to try to identify the user who instigated the DCOM call, I have the following code on the server... [DllImport("ole32.dll")] static extern int CoImpersonateClient(); [DllImport("ole32.dll")] static extern int CoRevertToSelf(); private string CallingUser { get { string sCallingUser = null; if (CoImpersonateClient() == 0) { WindowsPrincipal wp = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal as WindowsPrincipal; if (wp != null) { WindowsIdentity wi = wp.Identity as WindowsIdentity; if (wi != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(wi.Name)) sCallingUser = wi.Name; } if (CoRevertToSelf() != 0) ReportWin32Error("CoRevertToSelf"); } else ReportWin32Error("CoImpersonateClient"); return sCallingUser; } } private static void ReportWin32Error(string sFailingCall) { Win32Exception ex = new Win32Exception(); Logger.Write("Call to " + sFailingCall + " FAILED: " + ex.Message); } When I get the CallingUser property, the value returned the first few times is correct and the correct user name is identified, however, after 3 or 4 different users have successfully made calls (and it varies, so I can't be more specific), further users seem to be identified as users who had made earlier calls. What I have noticed is that the first few users have their DCOM calls handled on their own thread (ie all calls from a particular client are handled by a single unique thread), and then subsequent users are being handled by the same threads as the earlier users, and after the call to CoImpersonateClient(), the CurrentPrincipal matches that of the initial user of that thread. To Illustrate: User Tom makes DCOM calls which are handled by thread 1 (CurrentPrincipal correctly identifies Tom) User Dick makes DCOM calls which are handled by thread 2 (CurrentPrincipal correctly identifies Dick) User Harry makes DCOM calls which are handled by thread 3 (CurrentPrincipal correctly identifies Harry) User Bob makes DCOM calls which are handled by thread 3 (CurrentPrincipal incorrectly identifies him as Harry) As you can see in this illustration, calls from clients Harry and Bob are being handled on thread 3, and the server is identifying the calling client as Harry. Is there something that I am doing wrong? Are there any caveats or restrictions on using Impersonations in this way? Is there a better or different way that I can RELIABLY achieve what I am trying to do? All help would be greatly appreciated. Regards Andrew

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  • Keeping the DI-container usage in the composition root in Silverlight and MVVM

    - by adrian hara
    It's not quite clear to me how I can design so I keep the reference to the DI-container in the composition root for a Silverlight + MVVM application. I have the following simple usage scenario: there's a main view (perhaps a list of items) and an action to open an edit view for one single item. So the main view has to create and show the edit view when the user takes the action (e.g. clicks some button). For this I have the following code: public interface IView { IViewModel ViewModel {get; set;} } Then, for each view that I need to be able to create I have an abstract factory, like so public interface ISomeViewFactory { IView CreateView(); } This factory is then declared a dependency of the "parent" view model, like so: public class SomeParentViewModel { public SomeParentViewModel(ISomeViewFactory viewFactory) { // store it } private void OnSomeUserAction() { IView view = viewFactory.CreateView(); dialogService.ShowDialog(view); } } So all is well until here, no DI-container in sight :). Now comes the implementation of ISomeViewFactory: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = ???? } } The "????" part is my problem, because the view model for the view needs to be resolved from the DI-container so it gets its dependencies injected. What I don't know is how I can do this without having a dependency to the DI-container anywhere except the composition root. One possible solution would be to have either a dependency on the view model that gets injected into the factory, like so: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public SomeViewFactory(ISomeViewModel viewModel) { // store it } public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = viewModel; } } While this works, it has the problem that since the whole object graph is wired up "statically" (i.e. the "parent" view model will get an instance of SomeViewFactory, which will get an instance of SomeViewModel, and these will live as long as the "parent" view model lives), the injected view model implementation is stateful and if the user opens the child view twice, the second time the view model will be the same instance and have the state from before. I guess I could work around this with an "Initialize" method or something similar, but it doesn't smell quite right. Another solution might be to wrap the DI-container and have the factories depend on the wrapper, but it'd still be a DI-container "in disguise" there :) Any thoughts on this are greatly appreciated. Also, please forgive any mistakes or rule-breaking, since this is my first post on stackoverflow :) Thanks! ps: my current solution is that the factories know about the DI-container, and it's only them and the composition root that have this dependency.

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  • jQuery Cycle plugin IE6/7 issues

    - by Aaron Moodie
    I've implemented a slideshow using the Cycle plugin, which is working in all browsers except IE6&7, where the images just show up in a list, and the #page_copy div is not hiding. I've been going through the code all day without any luck, and not exactly sure how or what I should be looking for. What would be the best way to go about debugging this issue? I know that the #page_copy div is hiding when I remove the rest of the code, and I've tried the reverse (which had no result) <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery.fn.fadeToggle = function(speed, easing, callback) { return this.animate({opacity: 'toggle'}, speed, easing, callback); }; $(document).ready(function() { $('#page_copy').hide(); $('a#info_close_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeOut(200); return false; }); $('a#info_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeToggle(200); return false; }); }); $(window).load(function() { // vertically center single image var $image_cnt = $("#images > img").size(); if($image_cnt < 2) { var $single_img = $("#images").children(':first-child'); var h = $single_img.height(); $single_img.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, }); $(".next").css("display","none"); $(".prev").css("display","none"); } }); // wait until images have loaded before starting cycle $(window).load(function() { // front image rotator $('#images').cycle({ fx: 'fade', speed: 300, next: '.next', prev: '.prev', containerResize: 0, timeout: 0, delay: -2000, before: onBefore }); }); // hide all but the first image when page loads $(document).ready(function() { $('#images img:gt(0)').hide(); }); // callback fired when each slide transition begins function onBefore(curr,next,opts) { var $slide = $(next); var w = $slide.width(); var h = $slide.height(); $slide.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, marginLeft: (650 - w) / 2 }); }; </script>

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  • Asynchronous callback for network in Objective-C Iphone

    - by vodkhang
    I am working with network request - response in Objective-C. There is something with asynchronous model that I don't understand. In summary, I have a view that will show my statuses from 2 social networks: Twitter and Facebook. When I clicked refresh, it will call a model manager. That model manager will call 2 service helpers to request for latest items. When 2 service helpers receive data, it will pass back to model manager and this model will add all data into a sorted array. What I don't understand here is that : when response from social networks come back, how many threads will handle the response. From my understanding about multithreading and networking (in Java), there must have 2 threads handle 2 responses and those 2 threads will execute the code to add the responses to the array. So, it can have race condition and the program can go wrong right? Is it the correct working model of iphone objective-C? Or they do it in a different way that it will never have race condition and we don't have to care about locking, synchronize? Here is my example code: ModelManager.m - (void)updateMyItems:(NSArray *)items { self.helpers = [self authenticatedHelpersForAction:NCHelperActionGetMyItems]; for (id<NCHelper> helper in self.helpers) { [helper updateMyItems:items]; // NETWORK request here } } - (void)helper:(id <NCHelper>)helper didReturnItems:(NSArray *)items { [self helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:items callback:@selector(model:didGetMyItems:)]; break; } } // some private attributes int *_currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; // to count the number of items of a social network - (void)helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:(NSArray *)items { for (Item *item in items) { _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount ++; } NSLog(@"count: %d", _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount); _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; } I want to ask if there is a case that the method helperDidFinishGettingMyItems is called concurrently. That means, for example, faceboook returns 10 items, twitter returns 10 items, will the output of count will ever be larger than 10? And if there is only one single thread, how can the thread finishes parsing 1 response and jump to the other response because, IMO, thread is only executed sequently, block of code by block of code

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  • Memory allocation problem with SVMs in OpenCV

    - by worksintheory
    Hi, I've been using OpenCV happily for a while, but now I have a problem which has bugged me for quite some time. The following code is reasonably minimal example of my problem: #include <cv.h> #include <ml.h> using namespace cv; int main(int argc, char **argv) { int sampleCountForTesting = 2731; //BROKEN: Breaks svm.train_auto(...) for values of 2731 or greater! Mat trainingData( sampleCountForTesting, 1, CV_32FC1, Scalar::all(0.0) ); Mat trainingResponses( sampleCountForTesting, 1, CV_32FC1, Scalar::all(0.0) ); for(int j = 0; j < 6; j++) { trainingData.at<float>( j, 0 ) = (float) (j%2); trainingResponses.at<float>( j, 0 ) = (float) (j%2); //Setting a few values so I don't get a "single class" error } CvSVMParams svmParams( 100, //100 is CvSVM::C_SVC, 2, //2 is CvSVM::RBF, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, NULL, TermCriteria( TermCriteria::MAX_ITER | TermCriteria::EPS, 2, 1.0 ) ); CvSVM svm = CvSVM(); svm.train_auto( trainingData, trainingResponses, Mat(), Mat(), svmParams ); return 0; } I just create matrices to hold the training data and responses, then set a few entries to some value other than zero, then run the SVM. But it breaks whenever there are 2731 rows or more: OpenCV Error: One of arguments' values is out of range (requested size is negative or too big) in cvMemStorageAlloc, file [omitted]/opencv/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/core/src/datastructs.cpp, line 332 With fewer rows, it seems to be fine and a classifier trained in a similar manner to the above seems to be giving reasonable output. Am I doing something wrong? I'm pretty sure it's not actually anything to do with lack of memory, as I've got 6GB and also the code works fine when the data has 2730 rows and 10000 columns, which is a much bigger allocation. I'm running OpenCV 2.2 on OSX 10.6 and initially I thought the problem might be related to this bug if for some reason the fix wasn't included in the MacPorts version. Now I've also tried downloading the most recent stable version from the OpenCV site and building with cmake and using that, but I still get the same error, and the fix is definitely included in that version. Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks,

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  • Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) to predict Stock Prices

    - by akaphenom
    Given a set of datavery similar to the Motley Fool CAPS system, where individual users enter BUY and SELL recommendations on various equities. What I would like to do is show each recommendation and I guess some how rate (1-5) as to whether it was good predictor<5 (ie corellation coeffient = 1) of the future stock price (or eps or whatever) or a horrible predictor (ie corellation coeffient = -1) or somewhere inbetween. Each recommendation is tagged to a particular user, so that can be tracked over time. I can also track market direction (bullish / bearish) based off of something like sp500 price. The components I think that would make sense in the model would be: user direction (long/short) market direction sector of stock The thought is that some users are better in bull markets than bear (and vice versa), and some are better at shorts than longs- and then a cobination the above. I can automatically tag the market direction and sector (based off the market at the time and the equity being recommended). The thought is that I could present a series of screens and allow me to rank each individual recommendation by displaying available data absolute, market and sector out performance for a specfic time period out. I would follow a detailed list for ranking the stocks so that the ranking is as objective as possible. My assumtion is that a single user is right no more than 57% of the time - but who knows. I could load the system and say "Lets rank the recommendation as a predictor of stock value 90 days forward"; and that would represent a very explicit set of rankings. NOW here is the crux - I want to create some sort of machine learning algorithm that can identify patterns over a series of time so that as recommendations stream into the application we maintain a ranking of that stock (ie. similar to correlation coeeficient) as to the likelihood of that recommendation (in addition to the past series of recommendations ) will affect the price. Now here is the super crux. I have never taken an AI class / read an AI book / never mind specific to machine learning. So I cam looking for guidance - sample or description of a similar system I could adapt. Place to look for info or any general help. Or even push me in the right direction to get started... My hope is to implment this with F# and be able to impress my friends with a new skillset in F# with an implementation of machine learnign and potentially something (application / source) I can include in a tech portfolio or blog space; Thank you for any advice in advance.

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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  • multiple stateful iframes per page will overwrite JSESSIONID?

    - by Nikita
    Hello, Looking for someone to either confirm or refute my theory that deploying two iframes pointing to two different stateful pages on the same domain can lead to JSESSIONIDs being overwritten. Here's what I mean: Setup suppose you have two pages that require HttpSession state (session affinity) to function correctly - deployed at http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 assume www.foo.com is a single host running a Tomcat (6.0.20, fwiw) that uses JSESSIONID for session id's. suppose these pages are turned into two iframe widgets to be embedded on 3rd party sites: http://www.site.com/page1" / (and /page2 respectively) suppose there a 3rd party site that wishes to place both widgets on the same page at http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html Can the following race condition occur? a new visitor goes to http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html browser starts loading URLs in foowidgets.html including the two iframe 'src' URLs because browsers open multiple concurrent connections against the same host (afaik up to 6 in chrome/ff case) the browser happens to simultaneously issue requests for http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 The tomcat @ foo.com receives both requests at about the same time, calls getSession() for the first time (on two different threads) and lazily creates two HttpSessions and, thus, two JSESSIONIDs, with values $Page1 and $Page2. The requests also stuff data into respective sessions (that data will be required to process subsequent requests) assume that the browser first receives response to the page1 request. Browser sets cookie JSESSIONID=$Page1 for HOST www.foo.com next response to the page2 request is received and the browser overwrites cookie JSESSIONID for HOST www.foo.com with $Page2 user clicks on something in 'page1' iframe on foowidgets.html; browser issues 2nd request to http://www.foo.com/page1?action=doSomethingStateful. That request carries JSESSIONID=$Page2 (and not $Page1 - because cookie value was overwritten) when foo.com receives this request it looks up the wrong HttpSession instance (because JSESSIONID key is $Page2 and NOT $Page1). Foobar! Can the above happen? I think so, but would appreciate a confirmation. If the above is clearly possible, what are some solutions given that we'd like to support multiple iframes per page? We don't have a firm need for the iframes to share the same HttpSession, though that would be nice. In the event that the solution will still stipulate a separate HttpSession per iframe, it is - of course - mandatory that iframe 1 does not end up referencing httpSession state for iframe 2 instead of own. off top of my head I can think of: map page1 and page2 to different domains (ops overhead) use URL rewriting and never cookies (messes up analytics) anything else? thanks a lot, -nikita

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  • How does mysql define DISTINCT() in reference documentation

    - by goran
    EDIT: This question is about finding definitive reference to MySQL syntax on SELECT modifying keywords and functions. /EDIT AFAIK SQL defines two uses of DISTINCT keywords - SELECT DISTINCT field... and SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT field) ... However in one of web applications that I administer I've noticed performance issues on queries like SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2, field3 ... DISTINCT() on a single column makes no sense and I am almost sure it is interpreted as SELECT DISTINCT field1, field2, field3 ... but how can I prove this? I've searched mysql site for a reference on this particular syntax, but could not find any. Does anyone have a link to definition of DISTINCT() in mysql or knows about other authoritative source on this? Best EDIT After asking the same question on mysql forums I learned that while parsing the SQL mysql does not care about whitespace between functions and column names (but I am still missing a reference). As it seems you can have whitespace between functions and the parenthesis SELECT LEFT (field1,1), field2... and get mysql to understand it as SELECT LEFT(field,1) Similarly SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2... seems to get decomposed to SELECT DISTINCT (field1), field2... and then DISTINCT is taken not as some undefined (or undocumented) function, but as SELECT modifying keyword and the parenthesis around field1 are evaluated as if they were part of field expression. It would be great if someone would have a pointer to documentation where it is stated that the whitespace between functions and parenthesis is not significant or to provide links to apropriate MySQL forums, mailing lists where I could raise a question to put this into reference. EDIT I have found a reference to server option IGNORE SPACE. It states that "The IGNORE SPACE SQL mode can be used to modify how the parser treats function names that are whitespace-sensitive", later on it states that recent versions of mysql have reduced this number from 200 to 30. One of the remaining 30 is COUNT for example. With IGNORE SPACE enabled both SELECT COUNT(*) FROM mytable; SELECT COUNT (*) FROM mytable; are legal. So if this is an exception, I am left to conclude that normally functions ignore space by default. If functions ignore space by default then if the context is ambiguous, such as for the first function on a first item of the select expression, then they are not distinguishable from keywords and the error can not be thrown and MySQL must accept them as keywords. Still, my conclusions feel like they have lot of assumptions, I would still be grateful and accept any pointers to see where to follow up on this.

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