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  • Can I retain a Google apps session token permanently for a specific user who logs into my google app

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, is it possible to retain upon authorization a single session token for a user who signs into my gogle application. CUrrently my application seems to every now and then require the user to authenticate into google apps. I think it has to do with session dying out or so. I have the following code: function getCurrentUrl() { global $_SERVER; $php_request_uri = htmlentities(substr($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], 0, strcspn($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "\n\r")), ENT_QUOTES); if (isset($_SERVER['HTTPS']) && strtolower($_SERVER['HTTPS']) == 'on') { $protocol = 'https://'; } else { $protocol = 'http://'; } $host = $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']; if ($_SERVER['SERVER_PORT'] != '' && (($protocol == 'http://' && $_SERVER['SERVER_PORT'] != '80') || ($protocol == 'https://' && $_SERVER['SERVER_PORT'] != '443'))) { $port = ':' . $_SERVER['SERVER_PORT']; } else { $port = ''; } return $protocol . $host . $port . $php_request_uri; } function getAuthSubUrl($n=false) { $next = $n?$n:getCurrentUrl(); $scope = 'http://docs.google.com/feeds/documents https://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/ https://spreadsheets.google.com/feeds/ https://www.google.com/m8/feeds/ https://mail.google.com/mail/feed/atom/'; $secure = false; $session = true; //echo Zend_Gdata_AuthSub::getAuthSubTokenUri($next, $scope, $secure, $session);; return Zend_Gdata_AuthSub::getAuthSubTokenUri($next, $scope, $secure, $session).(isset($_SESSION['domain'])?'&hd='.$_SESSION['domain']:''); } function _regenerate_token() { global $BASE_URL; if(!$_SESSION['token']) { if(isset($_GET['token'])): $_SESSION['token'] = Zend_Gdata_AuthSub::getAuthSubSessionToken($_GET['token']); return; else: _regenerate_sessions(); _redirect(getAuthSubUrl($BASE_URL . '/index.php?'.$_SERVER['QUERY_STRING'])); endif; } } _regenerate_token(); I know I'm doing it all wrong here and I don't know why :( I have a CONSUMER SECRET code but only use it whereever I need to access a google service. However something is wrong with my authentication as the user has to periodically 'grant access to my application' and reauthorise himself... help please

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  • nhibernate subclass in code

    - by Antonio Nakic Alfirevic
    I would like to set up table-per-classhierarchy inheritance in nhibernate thru code. Everything else is set in XML mapping files except the subclasses. If i up the subclasses in xml all is well, but not from code. This is the code i use - my concrete subclass never gets created:( //the call NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration config = new NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration(); SetSubclass(config, typeof(TAction), typeof(tActionSub1), "Procedure"); //the method public static void SetSubclass(Configuration configuration, Type baseClass, Type subClass, string discriminatorValue) { PersistentClass persBaseClass = configuration.ClassMappings.Where(cm => cm.MappedClass == baseClass).Single(); SingleTableSubclass persSubClass = new SingleTableSubclass(persBaseClass); persSubClass.ClassName = subClass.AssemblyQualifiedName; persSubClass.DiscriminatorValue = discriminatorValue; persSubClass.EntityPersisterClass = typeof(SingleTableEntityPersister); persSubClass.ProxyInterfaceName = (subClass).AssemblyQualifiedName; persSubClass.NodeName = subClass.Name; persSubClass.EntityName = subClass.FullName; persBaseClass.AddSubclass(persSubClass); } the Xml mapping looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Riz.Pcm.Domain.BusinessObjects" assembly="Riz.Pcm.Domain"> <class name="Riz.Pcm.Domain.BusinessObjects.TAction, Riz.Pcm.Domain" table="dbo.tAction" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" column="ID"> <generator class="guid" /> </id> <discriminator type="String" formula="(select jt.Name from TJobType jt where jt.Id=JobTypeId)" insert="true" force="false"/> <many-to-one name="Session" column="SessionID" class="TSession" /> <property name="Order" column="Order1" /> <property name="ProcessStart" column="ProcessStart" /> <property name="ProcessEnd" column="ProcessEnd" /> <property name="Status" column="Status" /> <many-to-one name="JobType" column="JobTypeID" class="TJobType" /> <many-to-one name="Unit" column="UnitID" class="TUnit" /> <bag name="TActionProperties" lazy="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" inverse="true" > <key column="ActionID"></key> <one-to-many class="TActionProperty"></one-to-many> </bag> <!--<subclass name="Riz.Pcm.Domain.tActionSub" discriminator-value="ZPower"></subclass>--> </class> </hibernate-mapping> What am I doing wrong? I can't find any examples on google:(

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  • How to create a compiler in vb.net

    - by Cyclone
    Before answering this question, understand that I am not asking how to create my own programming language, I am asking how, using vb.net code, I can create a compiler for a language like vb.net itself. Essentially, the user inputs code, they get a .exe. By NO MEANS do I want to write my own language, as it seems other compiler related questions on here have asked. I also do not want to use the vb.net compiler itself, nor do I wish to duplicate the IDE. The exact purpose of what I wish to do is rather hard to explain, but all I need is a nudge in the right direction for writing a compiler (from scratch if possible) which can simply take input and create a .exe. I have opened .exe files as plain text before (my own programs) to see if I could derive some meaning from what I assumed would be human readable text, yet I was obviously sorely disappointed to see the random ascii, though it is understandable why this is all I found. I know that a .exe file is simply lines of code, being parsed by the computer it is on, but my question here really boils down to this: What code makes up a .exe? How could I go about making one in a plain text editor if I wanted to? (No, I do not want to do that, but if I understand the process my goals will be much easier to achieve.) What makes an executable file an executable file? Where does the logic of the code fit in? This is intended to be a programming question as opposed to a computer question, which is why I did not post it on SuperUser. I know plenty of information about the System.IO namespace, so I know how to create a file and write to it, I simply do not know what exactly I would be placing inside this file to get it to work as an executable file. I am sorry if this question is "confusing", "dumb", or "obvious", but I have not been able to find any information regarding the actual contents of an executable file anywhere. One of my google searches Something that looked promising EDIT: The second link here, while it looked good, was an utter fail. I am not going to waste hours of my time hitting keys and recording the results. "Use the "Alt" and the 3-digit combinations to create symbols that do not appear on the keyboard but that you need in the program." (step 4) How the heck do I know what symbols I need??? Thank you very much for your help, and my apologies if this question is a nooby or "bad" one. To sum this up simply: I want to create a program in vb.net that can compile code in a particular language to a single executable file. What methods exist that can allow me to do this, and if there are none, how can I go about writing my own from scratch?

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  • Python regex help

    - by Dormish
    I am trying to make a regex that finds all names, url and phone numbers in an html page. But I'm having trouble with the phone number part. I think the problem with the numbers part is that is searches until it finds the </strong> but in that process it skips people, instead of making a empty string if the person has no phone number ( simply put instead of a list like this: url1+name1+num1 | url2+name2+"" | url3+name3+num3 it returns a list like this: url1+name1+num1 | url2+name2+num3 , with url3+name3 deleted in the process) for url, name, pnumber in re.findall('Name"><div>(?:<a href="/si([^">]*)"> )?([^<]*)(?:.*?</strong>([^<]*))?',page): I am searchin for people in s single very long line. A person could have an url or phone number. An example of a person with an url and a phone number <tr> <td class="lablinksName"><div><a href="/si/ivan-bratko/default.html"> dr. Ivan Bratko akad. prof.</a></div></td> <td class="lablinksMail"><a href="javascript:void(cmPopup('sendMessage', '/si/ivan-bratko/mailer.html', true, 350, 350));"><img src="/Static/images/gui/mail.gif" height="8" width="11"></a></td> <td class="lablinksPhone"><div><strong>T:</strong> +386 1 4768 393 </div></td> </tr> And an example of a person with no url or phone number <tr> <td class="lablinksName"><div> dr. Branko Matjaž Juric prof.</div></td> <td class="lablinksMail"><a href="javascript:void(cmPopup('sendMessage', '/si/branko-matjaz-juric/mailer.html', true, 350, 350));"><img src="/Static/images/gui/mail.gif" height="8" width="11"></a></td> <td class="lablinksPhone"><div> </div></td> </tr> I hope i was clear enough and if any one can help me.

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  • How can a test script inform R CMD check that it should emit a custom message?

    - by mariotomo
    I'm writing a R package (delftfews) here at office. we are using svUnit for unit testing. our process for describing new functionality: we define new unit tests, initially marked as DEACTIVATED; one block of tests at a time we activate them and implement the function described by the tests. almost all the time we have a small amount of DEACTIVATED tests, relative to functions that might be dropped or will be implemented. my problem/question is: can I alter the doSvUnit.R so that R CMD check pkg emits a NOTE (i.e. a custom message "NOTE" instead of "OK") in case there are DEACTIVATED tests? as of now, we see only that the active tests don't give error: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ OK * checking PDF version of manual ... OK which is all right if all tests succeed, but less all right if there are skipped tests and definitely wrong if there are failing tests. In this case, I'd actually like to see a NOTE or a WARNING like the following: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ NOTE 6 test(s) were skipped. WARNING 1 test(s) are failing. * checking PDF version of manual ... OK As of now, we have to open the doSvUnit.Rout to check the real test results. I contacted two of the maintainers at r-forge and CRAN and they pointed me to the sources of R, in particular the testing.R script. if I understand it correctly, to answer this question we need patching the tools package: scripts in the tests directory are called using a system call, output (stdout and stderr) go to one single file, there are two possible outcomes: ok or not ok, so I opened a change request on R, proposing something like bit-coding the return status, bit-0 for ERROR (as it is now), bit-1 for WARNING, bit-2 for NOTE. with my modification, it would be easy producing this output: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ NOTE - please check doSvUnit.Rout. WARNING - please check doSvUnit.Rout. * checking PDF version of manual ... OK Brian Ripley replied "There are however several packages with properly written unit tests that do signal as required. Please do take this discussion elsewhere: R-bugs is not the place to ask questions." and closed the change request. anybody has hints?

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  • NSDocument Subclass not closed by NSWindowController?

    - by Nathan Douglas
    Okay, I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and to OOP in general. As background, I'm working on an extensible editor that stores the user's documents in a package. This of course required some "fun" to get around some issues with NSFileWrapper (i.e. a somewhat sneaky writing and loading process to avoid making NSFileWrappers for every single document within the bundle). The solution I arrived at was to essentially treat my NSDocument subclass as just a shell -- use it to make the folder for the bundle, and then pass off writing the actual content of the document to other methods. Unfortunately, at some point I seem to have completely screwed the pooch. I don't know how this happened, but closing the document window no longer releases the document. The document object doesn't seem to receive a "close" message -- or any related messages -- even though the window closes successfully. The end result is that if I start my app, create a new document, save it, then close it, and try to reopen it, the document window never appears. With some creative subclassing and NSLogging, I managed to figure out that the document object was still in memory, and still attached to the NSDocumentController instance, and so trying to open the document never got past the NSDocumentController's "hmm, currently have that one open" check. I did have an NSWindowController and NSDocumentController instance, but I've purged them from my project completely. I've overridden nearly every method for NSDocument trying to find out where the issue is. So far as I know, my Interface Builder bindings are all correct -- "Close" in the main menu is attached to "performClose:" of the First Responder, etc, and I've tried with fresh unsullied MainMenu and Document xibs as well. I thought that it might be something strange with my bundle writing code, so I basically deleted it all and started from scratch, but that didn't seem to work. I took out my init method overrides, and that didn't help either. I don't have the source of any simple document apps here, so I didn't try the next logical step (to substitute known-working code for mine in the readfromurl and writetourl methods). I've had this problem for about sixteen hours of uninterrupted troubleshooting now, and needless to say, I'm at the end of my rope. If I can't figure it out, I guess I'm going to try the project from scratch with a lot more code and intensity based around the bundle-document mess. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Serializing Class Derived from Generic Collection yet Deserializing the Generic Collection

    - by Stacey
    I have a Repository Class with the following method... public T Single<T>(Predicate<T> expression) { using (var list = (Models.Collectable<T>)System.Xml.Serializer.Deserialize(typeof(Models.Collectable<T>), FileName)) { return list.Find(expression); } } Where Collectable is defined.. [Serializable] public class Collectable<T> : List<T>, IDisposable { public Collectable() { } public void Dispose() { } } And an Item that uses it is defined.. [Serializable] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot("Titles")] public partial class Titles : Collectable<Title> { } The problem is when I call the method, it expects "Collectable" to be the XmlRoot, but the XmlRoot is "Titles" (all of object Title). I have several classes that are collected in .xml files like this, but it seems pointless to rewrite the basic methods for loading each up when the generic accessors do it - but how can I enforce the proper root name for each file without hard coding methods for each one? The [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot] seems to be ignored. When called like this... var titles = Repository.List<Models.Title>(); I get the exception <Titlesxmlns=''> was not expected. The XML is formatted such as. .. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <Titles xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Title> <Id>442daf7d-193c-4da8-be0b-417cec9dc1c5</Id> </Title> </Titles> Here is the deserialization code. public static T Deserialize<T>(String xmlString) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer XmlFormatSerializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); StreamReader XmlStringReader = new StreamReader(xmlString); //XmlTextReader XmlFormatReader = new XmlTextReader(XmlStringReader); try { return (T)XmlFormatSerializer.Deserialize(XmlStringReader); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } finally { XmlStringReader.Close(); } }

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  • Eval ID on radiobutton in Datalist

    - by ravi
    my code gota datalist with radio button and iv made it single selectable onitemdatabound....now im trying to evaluate a hiddenfield on basis of selected radio button my code goes like this aspx code <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" RepeatColumns = "4" CssClass="datalist1" RepeatLayout = "Table" OnItemDataBound="SOMENAMEItemBound" CellSpacing="20" onselectedindexchanged="DataList1_SelectedIndexChanged"> <ItemTemplate> <br /> <table cellpadding = "5px" cellspacing = "0" class="dlTable"> <tr> <td align="center"> <a href="<%#Eval("FilePath")%>" target="_blank"><asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" CssClass="imu" ImageUrl = '<%# Eval("FilePath")%>' Width = "100px" Height = "100px" style ="cursor:pointer" /> </td> </tr> <tr > <td align="center"> <asp:RadioButton ID="rdb" runat="server" OnCheckedChanged="rdb_click" AutoPostBack="True" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="HiddenField1" runat="server" Value = '<%#Eval("ID")%>' /> </td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> code behind protected void SOMENAMEItemBound(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { RadioButton rdb; rdb = (RadioButton)e.Item.FindControl("rdb"); if (rdb != null) rdb.Attributes.Add("onclick", "CheckOnes(this);"); } protected void rdb_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < DataList1.Items.Count; i++) { RadioButton rdb; rdb = (RadioButton)DataList1.Items[i].FindControl("rdb"); if (rdb != null) { if (rdb.Checked) { HiddenField hf = (HiddenField)DataList1.Items[i].FindControl("HiddenField1"); Response.Write(hf.Value); } } } } the javascript im using... function CheckOnes(spanChk){ var oItem = spanChk.children; var theBox= (spanChk.type=="radio") ? spanChk : spanChk.children.item[0]; xState=theBox.unchecked; elm=theBox.form.elements; for(i=0;i<elm.length;i++) if(elm[i].type=="radio" && elm[i].id!=theBox.id) { elm[i].checked=xState; } } iam getting an error like this Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerParserErrorException: The message received from the server could not be parsed. Common causes for this error are when the response is modified by calls to Response.Write(), response filters, HttpModules, or server trace is enabled. Details: Error parsing near 'pload Demonstration|'. is there any other way to do this or can nyone plz help to get rid of this problem

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  • Is it normal for a programmer with 2 years experience to take a long time to code simple programs?

    - by ajax81
    Hi all, I'm a relatively new programmer (18 months on the scene), and I'm finally getting to the point where I'm comfortable accepting projects and developing solutions under minimal supervision. Unfortunately, this also means that I've become acutely aware of my performance shortfalls, the most prevalent of which is the amount of time it takes me to develop, test, and submit algorithms for review. A great example of what I'm talking about occurred this week when I was tasked with developing a simple XML web service (asp.net 3.5) callable via client-side JavaScript, that accepts a single parameter and returns a dataset output to a modal window (please note this is the first time I've had to develop a web service and have had ZERO experience creating/consuming them...let alone calling them from JS client side). Keeping a long story short -- I worked on it for 4 days straight, all day each day, for a grand total of 36 hours, not including the time I spent dwelling on the problem in the shower, the morning commute, and laying awake in bed at night. I learned a great deal about web services and xml/json/javascript...but was called in for a management review to discuss the length of time it took me to develop the solution. In the meeting, I was praised for the quality of my work and was in fact told that my effort was commendable. However, they (senior leads and pm's) weren't impressed with the amount of time it took me to develop the solution and expressed that they would have liked to see the solution in roughly 1/3 of the time it took me. I guess what concerns me the most is that I've identified this pattern as common for myself. Between online videos, book research, and trial/error coding...if its something I haven't seen before, I can spend up to two weeks on a problem that seems to only take the pros in the videos moments to code up. And of course, knowing that management isn't happy with this pattern has shaken me up a bit. To sum up, I have some very specific questions I'd like to ask, and would greatly appreciate your objective professional feedback. Is my experience as a junior programmer common among new developers? Or is it possible that I'm just not cut out for the work? If you suspect that my experience is not common and that there may be an aptitude issue, do you have any suggestions/solutions that I could propose to management to help bring me up to speed? Do seasoned, professional programmers ever encounter knowledge barriers that considerably delay deliverables? When you started out in the industry, did you know how to "do it all"? If not, how long did it take you to be perceived as "proficient"? Was it a natural progression of trial and error, or was there a particular zen moment when you knew you had achieved super saiyen power level? Anyways, thanks for taking the time to read my question(s). I don't know if this is the right place to ask for professional career guidance, but I greatly appreciate your willingness to help me out. Cheers, Daniel

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  • Evaluation of CTEs in SQL Server 2005

    - by Jammer
    I have a question about how MS SQL evaluates functions inside CTEs. A couple of searches didn't turn up any results related to this issue, but I apologize if this is common knowledge and I'm just behind the curve. It wouldn't be the first time :-) This query is a simplified (and obviously less dynamic) version of what I'm actually doing, but it does exhibit the problem I'm experiencing. It looks like this: CREATE TABLE #EmployeePool(EmployeeID int, EmployeeRank int); INSERT INTO #EmployeePool(EmployeeID, EmployeeRank) SELECT 42, 1 UNION ALL SELECT 43, 2; DECLARE @NumEmployees int; SELECT @NumEmployees = COUNT(*) FROM #EmployeePool; WITH RandomizedCustomers AS ( SELECT CAST(c.Criteria AS int) AS CustomerID, dbo.fnUtil_Random(@NumEmployees) AS RandomRank FROM dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') c) SELECT rc.CustomerID, ep.EmployeeID FROM RandomizedCustomers rc JOIN #EmployeePool ep ON ep.EmployeeRank = rc.RandomRank; DROP TABLE #EmployeePool; The following can be assumed about all executions of the above: The result of dbo.fnUtil_Random() is always an int value greater than zero and less than or equal to the argument passed in. Since it's being called above with @NumEmployees which has the value 2, this function always evaluates to 1 or 2. The result of dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') produces a one-column, one-row table that contains a sql_variant with a base type of 'int' that has the value 219935. Given the above assumptions, it makes sense (to me, anyway) that the result of the expression above should always produce a two-column table containing one record - CustomerID and an EmployeeID. The CustomerID should always be the int value 219935, and the EmployeeID should be either 42 or 43. However, this is not always the case. Sometimes I get the expected single record. Other times I get two records (one for each EmployeeID), and still others I get no records. However, if I replace the RandomizedCustomers CTE with a true temp table, the problem vanishes completely. Every time I think I have an explanation for this behavior, it turns out to not make sense or be impossible, so I literally cannot explain why this would happen. Since the problem does not happen when I replace the CTE with a temp table, I can only assume it has something to do with the functions inside CTEs are evaluated during joins to that CTE. Do any of you have any theories?

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  • Which mobile operating system should I code for?

    - by samgoody
    It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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  • Is Zend Framework a total waste of my time?

    - by Citizen
    Ok, I'm about 50% done with the "30 minute" quickstart guide from Zend. I must be missing something, because this seems like a total waste of time. The point of this quickguide is to create a guestbook, something I could do in 5 minutes with regular naked non-framework php. Here's my path to zend framework: c:/program files/wamp/www/_zend/ Here's my path to my quickstart project: c:/program files/wamp/www/_zend/bin/quickstart/ I have a number of questions at this point: http://framework.zend.com/docs/quickstart/create-a-model-and-database-table 1: I'm running the command line to run my database loading script. I get an error stating the it can't find the Zend/AutoLoader.php becuase my path to the zend library is wrong. I followed all of the steps. I defined the path to my zend library in the main config file, but for some reason, its defined again in my db loader. In all of these scripts that they have me load, it points the relative path to the zend library as being /../library Problem is, there's nothing in that folder. To get to my actual zend folder, you'd need to be (relatively) /../../../../library Which brings me to my 2nd question: 2: Where the #$#$ is the main Zend files supposed to be? The install directions were basically "put it wherever you want", when the real answer (after a bunch of errors and wasted time was) was "put it somewhere so that its really easy to type the full path a thousand times in command line" and "it also better be in a runnable place on your webserver since its going to create your quickstart application in a subdirectory within zend". Which brings us to the third question 3: Am I supposed to have this libary in both the parent core Zend (wamp/_zend/library) AND my application (quickstart/library)? 4: If that is the case, it seems like a ton of wasted files to be uploading. I'd like to use Zend to create products that my customers will download. 5 megs of overhead seems like a bit much. Zend claims you can use these library components separately, but it looks to me like I'm going to have to upload them every time. Which leads to the next question: 5: It appears that perhaps Zend is more for a single application that is not supposed to be distributed. Is this not the case? 6: According to their default file structure everything but my /public folder would be above public_html on my server if I wanted this to rest on my TLD. I would need to rename every reference of /public/ to /public_html/, or am I missing something else?

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  • C# - How to override GetHashCode with Lists in object

    - by Christian
    Hi, I am trying to create a "KeySet" to modify UIElement behaviour. The idea is to create a special function if, eg. the user clicks on an element while holding a. Or ctrl+a. My approach so far, first lets create a container for all possible modifiers. If I would simply allow a single key, it would be no problem. I could use a simple Dictionary, with Dictionary<Keys, Action> _specialActionList If the dictionary is empty, use the default action. If there are entries, check what action to use depending on current pressed keys And if I wasn't greedy, that would be it... Now of course, I want more. I want to allow multiple keys or modifiers. So I created a wrapper class, wich can be used as Key to my dictionary. There is an obvious problem when using a more complex class. Currently two different instances would create two different key, and thereby he would never find my function (see code to understand, really obvious) Now I checked this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/638761/c-gethashcode-override-of-object-containing-generic-array which helped a little. But my question is, is my basic design for the class ok. Should I use a hashset to store the modifier and normal keyboardkeys (instead of Lists). And If so, how would the GetHashCode function look like? I know, its a lot of code to write (boring hash functions), some tips would be sufficient to get me started. Will post tryouts here... And here comes the code so far, the Test obviously fails... public class KeyModifierSet { private readonly List<Key> _keys = new List<Key>(); private readonly List<ModifierKeys> _modifierKeys = new List<ModifierKeys>(); private static readonly Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action> _testDict = new Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action>(); public static void Test() { _testDict.Add(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A), () => Debug.WriteLine("nothing")); if (!_testDict.ContainsKey(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A))) throw new Exception("Not done yet, help :-)"); } public KeyModifierSet(IEnumerable<Key> keys, IEnumerable<ModifierKeys> modifierKeys) { foreach (var key in keys) _keys.Add(key); foreach (var key in modifierKeys) _modifierKeys.Add(key); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key, ModifierKeys modifierKey) { _keys.Add(key); _modifierKeys.Add(modifierKey); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key) { _keys.Add(key); } }

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  • Odd ActiveRecord model dynamic initialization bug in production

    - by qfinder
    I've got an ActiveRecord (2.3.5) model that occasionally exhibits incorrect behavior that appears to be related to a problem in its dynamic initialization. Here's the code: class Widget < ActiveRecord::Base extend ActiveSupport::Memoizable serialize :settings VALID_SETTINGS = %w(show_on_sale show_upcoming show_current show_past) VALID_SETTINGS.each do |setting| class_eval %{ def #{setting}=(val); self.settings[:#{setting}] = (val == "1"); end def #{setting}; self.settings[:#{setting}]; end } end def initialize_settings self.settings ||= { :show_on_sale => true, :show_upcoming => true } end after_initialize :initialize_settings # All the other stuff the model does end The idea was to use a single record field (settings) to persist a bunch of configuration data for this object, but allow all the settings to seamlessly work with form helpers and the like. (Why this approach makes sense here is a little out of scope, but let's assume that it does.) Net-net, Widget should end up with instance methods (eg #show_on_sale= #show_on_sale) for all the entires in the VALID_SETTINGS array. Any default values should be specified in initialize_settings. And indeed this works, mostly. In dev and staging, no problems at all. But in production, the app sometimes ends up in a state where a) any writes to the dynamically generated setters fail and b) none of the default values appear to be set - although my leading theory is that the dynamically generated reader methods are just broken. The code, db, and environment is otherwise identical between the three. A typical error message / backtrace on the fail looks like: IndexError: index 141145 out of string (eval):2:in []=' (eval):2:inshow_on_sale=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:in send' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:in each' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2634:in `update_attributes!' ...(then controller and all the way down) Ideas or theories as to what might be going on? My leading theory is that something is going wrong in instance initialization wherein the class instance variable settings is ending up as a string rather than a hash. This explains both the above setter failure (:show_on_sale is being used to index into the string) and the fact that getters don't work (an out of bounds [] call on a string just returns nil). But then how and why might settings occasionally end up as a string rather than hash?

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  • Can Hudson branch promotion get based on project stability?

    - by Wayne
    Hudson CI server displays stability "weather" which is cool. And it allows one project build to kick off based on the successful build of another. However, how can you make that secondary project dependent additionally on the stability of multiple builds of the first project? Specifically, project "stable_deploy" needs to only kick off to promote a version to "stable" if project "integrate" with version 8.3.4.1233 has built and tested successfully at least 8 times--in a row. Until then, it's still in integration mode. IMPORTANT: A significant caveat to this is that a single set of Hudson projects gets used as a "pipeline" to process each new version through to release. So a project may have built successfully 8 times in a rolw but the latest version 8.3.4.1233 may be only the 2 most recent builds. The builds prior to that may be an earlier version. We're open to completely reorganizing this but the pipeline idea seemed to greatly reduce the amount of manually project creation and deletion. Is there a better way to track version release "pipeline"? In particular, we will have multiple versions in this pipeline simultaneously in the future due to fixes or patches to older versions. We don't see how to do that yet, except to create new pipeline projects for each version which is a real hassle. Here's some background details: The TickZoom application has some very complete unit tests some of which simulates real time trading environments. Add to that TickZoom makes elaborate use of parallelization for leveraging multi-core computers. Needless to say, during development of a new version, there can be stability issues during integration testing which get uncovered by running the build and auto tests repeatedly. A version which builds and tests cleanly 8 times in a row without change plus has undergone some real world testing by users can be deemed "stable" and promoted to the stable branch. Our Hudson projects look like this: test - Only for testing a build, zero user visibility. integrate_deploy - Promotes a test project build to integrate branch and makes it available to public for UA testing. integrate - Repeatedly builds the integrate branch to determine if it's stable enough to promote to stable branch. This runs the builds and test hourly throughout every night. stable_deploy - Promotes an integrate project build to the stable branch and makes it public for users who want the latest and greatest. stable - Builds the stable branch once every night. After 2 weeks of successful builds (14 builds) it can go to "release candidate". And so on... it continues with "release candidate" and then "release".

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  • Regular expression works normally, but fails when placed in an XML schema

    - by Eli Courtwright
    I have a simple doc.xml file which contains a single root element with a Timestamp attribute: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <root Timestamp="04-21-2010 16:00:19.000" /> I'd like to validate this document against a my simple schema.xsd to make sure that the Timestamp is in the correct format: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema attributeFormDefault="unqualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute name="Timestamp" use="required" type="timeStampType"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:simpleType name="timeStampType"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:pattern value="(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:schema> So I use the lxml Python module and try to perform a simple schema validation and report any errors: from lxml import etree schema = etree.XMLSchema( etree.parse("schema.xsd") ) doc = etree.parse("doc.xml") if not schema.validate(doc): for e in schema.error_log: print e.message My XML document fails validation with the following error messages: Element 'root', attribute 'Timestamp': [facet 'pattern'] The value '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000' is not accepted by the pattern '(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}'. Element 'root', attribute 'Timestamp': '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000' is not a valid value of the atomic type 'timeStampType'. So it looks like my regular expression must be faulty. But when I try to validate the regular expression at the command line, it passes: >>> import re >>> pat = '(0[0-9]{1})|(1[0-2]{1})-(3[0-1]{1}|[0-2]{1}[0-9]{1})-[2-9]{1}[0-9]{3} ([0-1]{1}[0-9]{1}|2[0-3]{1}):[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}:[0-5]{1}[0-9]{1}.[0-9]{3}' >>> assert re.match(pat, '04-21-2010 16:00:19.000') >>> I'm aware that XSD regular expressions don't have every feature, but the documentation I've found indicates that every feature that I'm using should work. So what am I mis-understanding, and why does my document fail?

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  • Mocking objects with complex Lambda Expressions as parameters

    - by iCe
    Hi there, I´m encountering this problem trying to mock some objects that receive complex lambda expressions in my projects. Mostly with with proxy objects that receive this type of delegate: Func<Tobj, Fun<TParam1, TParam2, TResult>> I have tried to use Moq as well as RhinoMocks to acomplish mocking those types of objects, however both fail. (Moq fails with NotSupportedException, and in RhinoMocks simpy does not satisgy expectation). This is simplified example of what I´m trying to do: I have a Calculator object that does calculations: public class Calculator { public Calculator() { } public int Add(int x, int y) { var result = x + y; return result; } public int Substract(int x, int y) { var result = x - y; return result; } } I need to validate parameters on every method in the Calculator class, so to keep with the Single Responsability principle, I create a validator class. I wire everything up using a Proxy class, that prevents having duplicate code: public class CalculatorProxy : CalculatorExample.ICalculatorProxy { private ILimitsValidator _validator; public CalculatorProxy(Calculator _calc, ILimitsValidator _validator) { this.Calculator = _calc; this._validator = _validator; } public int Operation(Func&lt;Calculator, Func&lt;int, int, int&gt;&gt; operation, int x, int y) { _validator.ValidateArgs(x, y); var calcMethod = operation(this.Calculator); var result = calcMethod(x, y); _validator.ValidateResult(result); return result; } public Calculator Calculator { get; private set; } } Now, I´m testing a component that does use the CalculatorProxy, so I want to mock it, for example using Rhino Mocks: [TestMethod] public void ParserWorksWithCalcultaroProxy() { var calculatorProxyMock = MockRepository.GenerateMock&lt;ICalculatorProxy&gt;(); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Calculator).Return(_calculator); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Operation(c =&gt; c.Add, 2, 2)).Return(4); var mathParser = new MathParser(calculatorProxyMock); mathParser.ProcessExpression("2 + 2"); calculatorProxyMock.VerifyAllExpectations(); } However I cannot get it to work! Any ideas about how this can be done? Thanks a lot!

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  • Which management tools would you recommend for software development?

    - by Robert Schneider
    What would you generally recommend for software developement? Which combination do you use or would you recommend? I assume that tools are needed for Version control, issues/bugs/task, Release management, Requirement management. Tools for Test management and Project management should be accounted for as well, I guess. Did I forget anything? Maybe tools for Continous Integration. I'm not interested in a halfway combination of one ore two tools like a Subversion + Bugzilla (I know they are good but for a company they might not be sufficient). And also tools like make/ant shouldn't be taken into account. I'd like to know a combination that covers all what is important for professional software development. However, it could be a single tool of course if it covers all the management issues. What do you think would be a good combination? I assume a combination should be regardes as good if the tools itself are good but also if they have good integrations. Udate: Something like Ant is just a script not a management tool. Okay: we do already have Perforce. But this is somehow generic. We have different projects that uses C-, VS/.NET-, Python-, PHP and we will be starting new projects in Java. Plenty of languages and frameworks, though some are going to be legacy. So the tools should be generic. Obviously we don't want to use Bugzilla for one project and Jira for another. The management tools have to be generic. Further thoughts: Think of sourceforge: For each project they offer a version control system, an issue tracker, a wiki, ... totally independent of what the project is about. Those are some management tools that a project usually needs. I would say that most companies need such a set of tools. But I could imagine, if a company has several projects, they need further tools too: for Project management, Quality management, ... And I could imagine there are some recommendable combinations of tools. A not really apropiate comparison to this could be LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP). A combination of software that has evolved since they work very well together, and are pretty useful for a lot of applications (or rather web sites). So maybe there are some recommendable management tool combinations that also fit toghether like LAMP. The integration is important. Thank you for the incredibly fast and helpful responses!!!

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  • passing multiple vectors to function by reference (using structure)

    - by madman
    Hi StackOverflow, Can someone tell me the correct way of passing multiple vectors to a function that can take only a single argument? (specifically for pthread_create (..) function) I tried the following but it does not seem to work :-( First, I created the following structure struct ip2 { void* obj; int dim; int n_s; vector<vector<vector<double> > > *wlist; vector<int> *nrsv; struct model *pModel; }; The threads that I have created actually needs all these parameters. Since im using pthreads_create I put all this in a structure and then passed the pointer to the structure as an argument to pthread_create (as shown). some_fxn() { //some code struct ip2 ip; ip.obj=(void*) this; ip.n_s=n_s; ip.wlist=&wlist; ip.nrsv=&nrsv; ip.pModel=pModel; ip.dim=dim; pthread_create(&callThd1[lcntr], &attr1, &Cls::Entry, (void*) &ip); } The Entry method looks something like this. void* Cls::Entry(void *ip) { struct ip2 *x; x = (struct ip2 *)ip; (reinterpret_cast<Cls1 *>(x->obj))->Run(x->dim,x->n_s, x->wlist, x->nrsv, x->pModel); } The Run method looks something like this. void Run(int dim, int n_c, vector<vector<vector<double> > > *wlist, vector<int> *nrsv, struct model* pModel ) { //some code for(int k = 0; k < n_c; ++k) { //some code end = index + nrsv[k]; //some code } I get the following error when I try to compile the program. error: no match for ‘operator+’ in ‘index + *(((std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >*)(((unsigned int)k) * 12u)) + nrsv)’ Can someone tell me how to do it the right way. Madhavan

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  • How can we define more than one table,define columns and write data in xml file ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I am writing my xml file manually. And I am writing that for storing data and retrieving data from that. I have written file like for the table PersonalInfo. <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <PersonalInfo> <xs:schema id="PersonalInfo" xmlns="" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"> <xs:element name="PersonalInfo" msdata:IsDataSet="true" msdata:UseCurrentLocale="true"> <xs:complexType> <xs:choice minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="PesonalInfo."> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <!--Define Column Here....--> <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string" /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> <!--First Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <!--Second Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> </PersonalInfo> Please suggest any mistake with writing file here. And now I want define more than table in this file. And here I have to write data for the table like <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> Is not possible some thing writing data when defining columns EDIT : <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string",Harikrishna,Jatin.... /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string",India,India.... /> And how to define more than one table in a single xml file ?

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • How to break a Hibernate session?

    - by Péter Török
    In the Hibernate reference, it is stated several times that All exceptions thrown by Hibernate are fatal. This means you have to roll back the database transaction and close the current Session. You aren’t allowed to continue working with a Session that threw an exception. One of our legacy apps uses a single session to update/insert many records from files into a DB table. Each recourd update/insert is done in a separate transaction, which is then duly committed (or rolled back in case an error occurred). Then for the next record a new transaction is opened etc. But the same session is used throughout the whole process, even if a HibernateException was caught in the middle. We are using Oracle 9i btw with Hibernate 3.24.sp1 on JBoss 4.2. Reading the above in the book, I realized that this design may fail. So I refactored the app to use a separate session for each record update. In a unit test with a mock session factory, I could prove that it is now requesting a new session for each record update. So far, so good. However, we found no way to reproduce the session failure while testing the whole app (would this be a stress test btw, or ...?). We thought of shutting down the listener of the DB but we realized that the app is keeping a bunch of connections open to the DB, and the listener would not affect those connections. (This is a web app, activated once every night by a scheduler, but it can also be activated via the browser.) Then we tried to kill some of those connections in the DB while the app was processing updates - this resulted in some failed updates, but then the app happily continued. Apparently Hibernate is clever enough to reopen broken connections under the hood without breaking the whole session. So this might not be a critical issue, as our app seems to be robust enough even in its original form. However, the issue keeps bugging me. I would like to know: Under what circumstances does the Hibernate session really become unusable after a HibernateException was thrown? How to reproduce this in a test? (What's the proper term for such a test?)

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  • plupload not working in wordpress theme files

    - by Kedar B
    This is my code for image upload.... <a id="aaiu-uploader" class="aaiu_button" href="#"><?php _e('*Select Images (mandatory)','wpestate');?></a> <input type="hidden" name="attachid" id="attachid" value="<?php echo $attachid;?>"> <input type="hidden" name="attachthumb" id="attachthumb" value="<? php echo $thumbid;?>"> i want upload functionality more than one time in single page in wordpress.i have add js code for that same as first upload block but its not working. This is js code for image upload.... jQuery(document).ready(function($) { "use strict"; if (typeof(plupload) !== 'undefined') { var uploader = new plupload.Uploader(ajax_vars.plupload); uploader.init(); uploader.bind('FilesAdded', function (up, files) { $.each(files, function (i, file) { // console.log('append'+file.id ); $('#aaiu-upload-imagelist').append( '<div id="' + file.id + '">' + file.name + ' (' + plupload.formatSize(file.size) + ') <b></b>' + '</div>'); }); up.refresh(); // Reposition Flash/Silverlight uploader.start(); }); uploader.bind('UploadProgress', function (up, file) { $('#' + file.id + " b").html(file.percent + "%"); }); // On erro occur uploader.bind('Error', function (up, err) { $('#aaiu-upload-imagelist').append("<div>Error: " + err.code + ", Message: " + err.message + (err.file ? ", File: " + err.file.name : "") + "</div>" ); up.refresh(); // Reposition Flash/Silverlight }); uploader.bind('FileUploaded', function (up, file, response) { var result = $.parseJSON(response.response); // console.log(result); $('#' + file.id).remove(); if (result.success) { $('#profile-image').css('background-image','url("'+result.html+'")'); $('#profile-image').attr('data-profileurl',result.html); $('#profile-image_id').val(result.attach); var all_id=$('#attachid').val(); all_id=all_id+","+result.attach; $('#attachid').val(all_id); $('#imagelist').append('<div class="uploaded_images" data- imageid="'+result.attach+'"><img src="'+result.html+'" alt="thumb" /><i class="fa deleter fa-trash-o"></i> </div>'); delete_binder(); thumb_setter(); } }); $('#aaiu-uploader').click(function (e) { uploader.start(); e.preventDefault(); }); $('#aaiu-uploader2').click(function (e) { uploader.start(); e.preventDefault(); }); } });

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  • php adding images to another image, exact positioning

    - by user271619
    I have a cool snippet of code that works well, except one thing. The code will take an icon I want to add to an existing picture. I can position it where I want too! Which is exactly what I need to do. However, I'm stuck on one thing, concerning the placement. The code "starting position" (on the main image: navIcons.png) is from the Bottom Right. I have 2 variables: $move_left = 10; & $move_up = 8;. So, the means I can position the icon.png 10px left, and 8px up, from the bottom right corner. I really really want to start the positioning from the Top Left of the image, so I'm really moving the icon 10px right & 8px down, from the top left position of the main image. Can someone look at my code and see if I'm just missing something that inverts that starting position? function attachIcon($imgname) { $mark = imagecreatefrompng($imgname); imagesavealpha($mark, true); list($icon_width, $icon_height) = getimagesize($imgname); $img = imagecreatefrompng('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagesavealpha($img, true); $move_left = 10; $move_up = 9; list($mainpic_width, $mainpic_height) = getimagesize('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagecopy($img, $mark, $mainpic_width-$icon_width-$move_left, $mainpic_height-$icon_height-$move_up, 0, 0, $icon_width, $icon_height); imagepng($img); // display the image + positioned icon in the browser //imagepng($img,'newnavIcon.png'); // rewrite the image with icon attached. } header('Content-Type: image/png'); attachIcon('icon.png'); ? For those who are wondering why I'd even bother doing this. In a nutshell, I like to add 16x16 icons to 1 single image, while using css to display that individual icon. This does involve me downloading the image (sprite) and open photoshop, add the new icon (positioning it), and reuploading it to the server. Not a massive ordeal, but just having fun with php.

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  • Junit (3.8.1) testing that an exception is thrown (works in unit test, fails when added to a testSui

    - by Mike Cargal
    I'm trying to test that I'm throwing an exception when appropriate. In my test class I have a method similar to the following: public void testParseException() { try { ClientEntitySingleton.getInstance(); fail("should have thrown exception."); } catch (RuntimeException re) { assertEquals( "<exception message>", re.getMessage()); } } This works fine (green bar) whenever I run that single unitTest class. However, when I add that test to a testSuite, I get a red bar Unit test failure reported on the exception. One more thing... it works in the testSuite, if it's the first test in the suite. Actually, I'm doing two of these tests and just figured out that if I make them the first two tests in the suite, all is good, but I get this failure if a "regular" test precedes it. So I have a work-around, but no real answer. Any ideas? Heres'a stack trace of the "failure" java.lang.RuntimeException: ProcEntity client dn="Xxxxxx/Xxxx/XXX" is defined multiple times. at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.ClientEntitySingleton.addClientEntity(ClientEntitySingleton.java:247) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.ClientEntitySingleton.startElement(ClientEntitySingleton.java:264) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.startElement(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.scanStartElement(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl$FragmentContentDispatcher.dispatch(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.scanDocument(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XMLParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.ClientEntitySingleton.parse(ClientEntitySingleton.java:216) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.ClientEntitySingleton.reload(ClientEntitySingleton.java:303) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.ClientEntitySingleton.setInputSourceProvider(ClientEntitySingleton.java:88) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.test.TestClientBase.setUp(TestClientBase.java:17) at com.someco.someprod.clientEntityManagement.test.TestClientEntityDup.setUp(TestClientEntityDup.java:8) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:125) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:106) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:124) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:109) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:118) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:208) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:203) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:208) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:203) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.junit3.JUnit3TestReference.run(JUnit3TestReference.java:128) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:460) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:673) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:386) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:196)

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