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  • Peer did not return a certificate

    - by pfista
    I am trying to get two way SSL authentication working between a Python server and an Android client application. I have access to both the server and client, and would like to implement client authentication using my own certificate. So far I have been able to verify the server certificate and connect without client authentication. What sort of certificate does the client need and how do I get it to automatically send it to the server during the handshake process? Here is the client and server side code that I have so far. Is my approach wrong? Server Code while True: # Keep listening for clients c, fromaddr = sock.accept() ssl_sock = ssl.wrap_socket(c, keyfile = "serverPrivateKey.pem", certfile = "servercert.pem", server_side = True, # Require the client to provide a certificate cert_reqs = ssl.CERT_REQUIRED, ssl_version = ssl.PROTOCOL_TLSv1, ca_certs = "clientcert.pem", #TODO must point to a file of CA certificates?? do_handshake_on_connect = True, ciphers="!NULL:!EXPORT:AES256-SHA") print ssl_sock.cipher() thrd = sock_thread(ssl_sock) thrd.daemon = True thrd.start() I suspect I may be using the wrong file for ca_certs...? Client Code private boolean connect() { try { KeyStore keystore = KeyStore.getInstance("BKS"); // Stores the client certificate, to be sent to server KeyStore truststore = KeyStore.getInstance("BKS"); // Stores the server certificate we want to trust // TODO: change hard coded password... THIS IS REAL BAD MKAY truststore.load(mSocketService.getResources().openRawResource(R.raw.truststore), "test".toCharArray()); keystore.load(mSocketService.getResources().openRawResource(R.raw.keystore), "test".toCharArray()); // Use the key manager for client authentication. Keys in the key manager will be sent to the host KeyManagerFactory keyFManager = KeyManagerFactory.getInstance(KeyManagerFactory.getDefaultAlgorithm()); keyFManager.init(keystore, "test".toCharArray()); // Use the trust manager to determine if the host I am connecting to is a trusted host TrustManagerFactory trustMFactory = TrustManagerFactory.getInstance(TrustManagerFactory .getDefaultAlgorithm()); trustMFactory.init(truststore); // Create the socket factory and add both the trust manager and key manager SSLCertificateSocketFactory socketFactory = (SSLCertificateSocketFactory) SSLCertificateSocketFactory .getDefault(5000, new SSLSessionCache(mSocketService)); socketFactory.setTrustManagers(trustMFactory.getTrustManagers()); socketFactory.setKeyManagers(keyFManager.getKeyManagers()); // Open SSL socket directly to host, host name verification is NOT performed here due to // SSLCertificateFactory implementation mSSLSocket = (SSLSocket) socketFactory.createSocket(mHostname, mPort); mSSLSocket.setSoTimeout(TIMEOUT); // Most SSLSocketFactory implementations do not verify the server's identity, allowing man-in-the-middle // attacks. This implementation (SSLCertificateSocketFactory) does check the server's certificate hostname, // but only for createSocket variants that specify a hostname. When using methods that use InetAddress or // which return an unconnected socket, you MUST verify the server's identity yourself to ensure a secure // connection. verifyHostname(); // Safe to proceed with socket now ... I have generated a client private key, a client certificate, a server private key, and a server certificate using openssl. I then added the client certificate to keystore.bks (which I store in /res/raw/keystore.bks) I then added the server certificate to the truststore.bks So now when the client tries to connect I am getting this error server side: ssl.SSLError: [Errno 1] _ssl.c:504: error:140890C7:SSL routines:SSL3_GET_CLIENT_CERTIFICATE:peer did not return a certificate And when I try to do this in the android client SSLSession s = mSSLSocket.getSession(); s.getPeerCertificates(); I get this error: javax.net.ssl.SSLPeerUnverifiedException: No peer certificate So obviously the keystore I am using doesn't appear to have a correct peer certificate in it and thus isn't sending one to the server. What should I put in the keystore to prevent this exception? Furthermore, is this method of two way SSL authentication safe and effective?

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  • What is the best way to test using grails using IDEA?

    - by egervari
    I am seriously having a very non-pleasant time testing using Grails. I will describe my experience, and I'd like to know if there's a better way. The first problem I have with testing is that Grails doesn't give immediate feedback to the developer when .save() fails inside of an integration test. So let's say you have a domain class with 12 fields, and 1 of them is violating a constraint and you don't know it when you create the instance... it just doesn't save. Naturally, the test code afterward is going to fail. This is most troublesome because the thingy under test is probably fine... and the real risk and pain is the setup code for the test itself. So, I've tried to develop the habit of using .save(failOnError: true) to avoid this problem, but that's not something that can be easily enforced by everyone working on the project... and it's kind of bloaty. It'd be nice to turn this on for code that is running as part of a unit test automatically. Integration Tests run slow. I cannot understand how 1 integration test that saves 1 object takes 15-20 seconds to run. With some careful test planning, I've been able to get 1000 tests talking to an actual database and doing dbunit dumps after every test to happen in about the same time! This is dumb. It is hard to run all the unit tests and not integration tests in IDEA. Integration tests are a massive pain. Idea actually shows a GREEN BAR when integration tests fail. The output given by grails indicates that something failed, but it doesn't say what it was. It says to look in the test reports... which forces the developer to launch up their file system to hunt the stupid html file down. What a pain. Then once you got the html file and click to the failing test, it'll tell you a line number. Since these reports are not in the IDE, you can't just click the stack trace to go to that line of code... you gotta go back and find it yourself. ARGGH!@!@! Maybe people put up with this, but I refuse. Testing should not be this painful. It should be fast and painless, or people won't do it. Please help. What is the solution? Rails instead of Grails? Something else entirely? I love the Grails framework, but they never demo their testing for a reason. They have a snazzy framework, but the testing is painful. After having used Scala for the last 1.5 months, and being totally spoiled by ScalaTest... I can't go back to this.

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  • Jasper report always showing no content, why?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have the following code: InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, String> parameters = new HashMap<String, String>(); parameters.put("StringParameterName", "show me"); try { JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); } catch (JRException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); return null; } And the test.jrxml looks like this (I generated part of it with the iReport, the only thing I did was to remove the language="groovy" attribute): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jasperReport xmlns="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/xsd/jasperreport.xsd" name="test" pageWidth="595" pageHeight="842" columnWidth="555" leftMargin="20" rightMargin="20" topMargin="20" bottomMargin="20"> <property name="ireport.zoom" value="1.0"/> <property name="ireport.x" value="0"/> <property name="ireport.y" value="0"/> <parameter name="StringParameterName" isForPrompting="false" class="java.lang.String"/> <background> <band splitType="Stretch"/> </background> <title> <band height="20"> <staticText> <reportElement x="180" y="0" width="200" height="20"/> <text><![CDATA[Hello World!]]></text> </staticText> </band> </title> <pageHeader> <band height="35" splitType="Stretch"/> </pageHeader> <columnHeader> <band height="61" splitType="Stretch"/> </columnHeader> <detail> <band height="125" splitType="Stretch"> <textField> <reportElement x="243" y="77" width="100" height="20"/> <textElement/> <textFieldExpression class="java.lang.String"><![CDATA[$P{StringParameterName}]]></textFieldExpression> </textField> </band> </detail> <columnFooter> <band height="45" splitType="Stretch"/> </columnFooter> <pageFooter> <band height="54" splitType="Stretch"/> </pageFooter> <summary> <band height="42" splitType="Stretch"/> </summary> </jasperReport> As a result I always get a blank pdf file. What could be the reason?

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  • Why isn't my algorithm for find the biggest and smallest inputs working?

    - by Matt Ellen
    I have started a new job, and with it comes a new language: Ironpython. Thankfully a good language :D Before starting I got to grips with Python on the whole, but that was only a week's worth of learning. Now I'm writing actual code. I've been charged with writing an algorithm that finds the best input parameter to collect data with. The basic algorithm is (as I've been instructed): Set the input parameter to a good guess Start collecting data When data is available stop collecting find the highest point If the point before this (i.e. for the previous parameter value) was higher and the point before that was lower then we've found the max otherwise the input parameter is increased by the initial guess. goto 2 If the max is found then the min needs to be found. To do this the algorithm carries on increasing the input, but by 1/10 of the max, until the current point is greater than the previous point and the point before that is also greater. Once the min is found then the algorithm stops. Currently I have a simplified data generator outputting the sin of the input, so that I know that the min value should be PI and the max value should be PI/2 The main Python code looks like this (don't worry, this is just for my edification, I don't write real code like this): import sys sys.path.append(r"F:\Programming Source\C#\PythonHelp\PythonHelp\bin\Debug") import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile("PythonHelpClasses.dll") import PythonHelpClasses from PHCStruct import Helper from System import Math helper = Helper() def run(): b = PythonHelpClasses.Executor() a = PythonHelpClasses.HasAnEvent() b.Input = 0.0 helper.__init__() def AnEventHandler(e): b.Stop() h = helper h.lastLastVal, h.lastVal, h.currentVal = h.lastVal, h.currentVal, e.Number if h.lastLastVal < h.lastVal and h.currentVal < h.lastVal and h.NotPast90: h.NotPast90 = False h.bestInput = h.lastInput inputInc = 0.0 if h.NotPast90: inputInc = Math.PI/10.0 else: inputInc = h.bestInput/10.0 if h.lastLastVal > h.lastVal and h.currentVal > h.lastVal and h.NotPast180: h.NotPast180 = False if h.NotPast180: h.lastInput, b.Input = b.Input, b.Input + inputInc b.Start(a) else: print "Best input:", h.bestInput print "Last input:", h.lastInput b.Stop() a.AnEvent += AnEventHandler b.Start(a) PHCStruct.py: class Helper(): def __init__(self): self.currentVal = 0 self.lastVal = 0 self.lastLastVal = 0 self.NotPast90 = True self.NotPast180 = True self.bestInput = 0 self.lastInput = 0 PythonHelpClasses has two small classes I wrote in C# before I realised how to do it in Ironpython. Executor runs a delegate asynchronously while it's running member is true. The important code: public void Start(HasAnEvent hae) { running = true; RunDelegate r = new RunDelegate(hae.UpdateNumber); AsyncCallback ac = new AsyncCallback(UpdateDone); IAsyncResult ar = r.BeginInvoke(Input, ac, null); } public void Stop() { running = false; } public void UpdateDone(IAsyncResult ar) { RunDelegate r = (RunDelegate)((AsyncResult)ar).AsyncDelegate; r.EndInvoke(ar); if (running) { AsyncCallback ac = new AsyncCallback(UpdateDone); IAsyncResult ar2 = r.BeginInvoke(Input, ac, null); } } HasAnEvent has a function that generates the sin of its input and fires an event with that result as its argument. i.e.: public void UpdateNumber(double val) { AnEventArgs e = new AnEventArgs(Math.Sin(val)); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); if (null != AnEvent) { AnEvent(e); } } The sleep is in there just to slow things down a bit. The problem I am getting is that the algorithm is not coming up with the best input being PI/2 and the final input being PI, but I can't see why. Also the best and final inputs are different each time I run the programme. Can anyone see why? Also when the algorithm terminates the best and final inputs are printed to the screen multiple times, not just once. Can someone explain why?

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  • Throwing a C++ exception from inside a Linux Signal handler

    - by SoapBox
    As a thought experiment more than anything I am trying to get a C++ exception thrown "from" a linux signal handler for SIGSEGV. (I'm aware this is not a solution to any real world SIGSEGV and should never actually be done, but I thought I would try it out after being asked about it, and now I can't get it out of my head until I figure out how to do it.) Below is the closest I have come, but instead of the signal being caught properly, terminate() is being called as if no try/catch block is available. Anyone know why? Or know a way I can actually get a C++ exception from a signal handler? The code (beware, the self modifying asm limits this to running on x86_64 if you're trying to test it): #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> #include <signal.h> #include <stdint.h> #include <errno.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/mman.h> using namespace std; uint64_t oldaddr = 0; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw std::runtime_error("SIGSEGV"); } void segv_handler(int sig, siginfo_t *info, void *pctx) { ucontext_t *context = (ucontext_t *)pctx; cout << "Inside SIGSEGV handler" << endl; oldaddr = context->uc_mcontext.gregs[REG_RIP]; uint32_t pageSize = (uint32_t)sysconf(_SC_PAGESIZE); uint64_t bottomOfOldPage = (oldaddr/pageSize) * pageSize; mprotect((void*)bottomOfOldPage, pageSize*2, PROT_READ|PROT_WRITE|PROT_EXEC); // 48 B8 xx xx xx xx xx xx xx xx = mov rax, xxxx *((uint8_t*)(oldaddr+0)) = 0x48; *((uint8_t*)(oldaddr+1)) = 0xB8; *((int64_t*)(oldaddr+2)) = (int64_t)thrower; // FF E0 = jmp rax *((uint8_t*)(oldaddr+10)) = 0xFF; *((uint8_t*)(oldaddr+11)) = 0xE0; } void func() { try { *(uint32_t*)0x1234 = 123456789; } catch (...) { cout << "caught inside func" << endl; throw; } } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; struct sigaction action, old_action; action.sa_sigaction = segv_handler; sigemptyset(&action.sa_mask); action.sa_flags = SA_SIGINFO | SA_RESTART | SA_NODEFER; if (sigaction(SIGSEGV, &action, &old_action)<0) cerr << "Error setting handler : " << strerror(errno) << endl; try { func(); } catch (std::exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The actual output: Top of main Inside SIGSEGV handler Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): SIGSEGV Aborted Expected output: Top of main Inside thrower caught inside func Caught : SIGSEGV Bottom of main

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  • news feed using .Net Dataservices / OData / Atom ?

    - by Stephan
    Let's say I have an web CMS type application, and an EDM model with an entity called 'article', and I need to offer the ability for client applications, to a read/query the articles (and other resources stored in our database) a straightforward syndication feed of these articles to end users (along the lines of a simple RSS feed) It seems to me that for the first task, and .net 4's dataservice would be perfect for the job. For the second case, I'm wondering (a) whether atom the right format to choose - I think it is - and (b) whether it's possible to achieve such a feed using the same ado.net OData service. I took a look at some of the examples out there and briefly set up a proof of concept: http://localhost/projectname/DataService.svc/Articles <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes"?> <feed xml:base="http://localhost/projectname/DataService.svc/" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices" xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <title type="text">Articles</title> <id>http://localhost/projectname/DataService.svc/Articles</id> <updated>2010-05-21T09:41:22Z</updated> <link rel="self" title="Articles" href="Articles" /> <entry> <id>http://---------DataService.svc/Articles(1)</id> <title type="text"></title> <updated>2010-05-21T09:41:22Z</updated> <author> <name /> </author> <link rel="edit" title="Article" href="Articles(1)" /> <category term="Model1.Article" scheme="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/scheme" /> <content type="application/xml"> <m:properties> <d:int_ContentID m:type="Edm.Int32">1</d:int_ContentID> <d:Titel>hello world</d:Titel> <d:Source>http://www.google.com</d:Source> </m:properties> </content> </entry> </feed> and noticed that, though the feed works and items are showing up, the title tag on the entry level is left blank. (as a result, when you check this feed in a feed reader, you will see no title). I searched msdn but haven't found a way to do that, but it should be possible. Stackoverflow itself uses an atom feed in that fashion, so it should be possible. Right? So I suppose my question is; Is there a way to make the ado.net dataservice Atom feed look like something suitable for your average news feed reader? - OR, am I using the wrong tool for the wrong purposes, and should I be looking elsewhere (.net syndication API's perhaps)?

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  • Anyone willing to help out a javascript n00b? :-)

    - by Splynx
    Since I am asking for a lot, and know it, the following is a wall of text for those who might show some interest and want to know a little before offering their help to me. First a little about my level of programming skills, and a little about what I ask for. Where I'm at: I am not totally new to Javascript, and have dabbled a little with PHP earlier - well have dabbled a lot with PHP in fact, but never got good at it because I program alone. And I have until now never used forums to get help etc. other that searching to see if anyone else had my problem before and what the solution was. So I am not a intuitive or talented programmer, I'm more of a very maticulate programmer and you would be surprised how far you can get with if else... (ok that's a joke hehe). My solutions are usually (I am guessing here) not the best ones - and slow I take it, and the code is usually too long and I have to look up most of the stuff I use (really a lot of it is not done in "freehand"). I have a LOT of experience with HTML and CSS, and have always done well formed markup, as well as I am really into x-browsing and always require that my work validates when it's done. I also worry about optimizing a lot, and work with sprites for images, minimize the number of http requests etc, using H1,H2 etc. where it is logically correct, as well as use the correct elements and not just div span or p it... So because I am a workhorse and very maticulate I can actually pull off some quite "advanced" features, but it's always the basics that bite me in the end. Not fully understanding the syntax and so on usually gives me problems. Have recently discovered jQuery - wich is a lot of fun.... But I want to use it for the DOM node manipulation/handling only. As I mentioned I worry about optimizing, and jQuery used for everything seems... well not optimal, it strikes me as doing it yourself when possible is faster than accesing another script that may take a whole lot of other considerations into perspective when handling your variables and objects (and I am just guessing here since I as explained know nothing). So thats where I'm at... As mentioned I just started with javascript for "real" so I do not have much to show, but at the end of my WOT you can see two unfinisheded scripts I have made so you can see where I'm at roughly - just check out the URL without the /feedback.html for the second example (I am only allowed to post 1 link since I am also a SO n00b) (and for those rushing over to a validation service, remember I wrote "when it's done"...) What I ask for: I am figuring this... I have a piece of code I am working on at the moment, and this little project has taught me a whole lot already, and I have "grown" a lot as a javascript programmer. If I add a whole lot of comments to the script, and explain what it is intended to do, will you then show me where: I am writing incorrect code - making mistakes Where/how my code could be more optimal Where I am just simply being a muppet The code I want to use as the background for the tuition is the one here http://projects.1000monkeys.dk/feedback.html Use firebug and have a quick look see...

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  • Saving a .xls file with fwrite

    - by kielie
    hi guys, I have to create a script that takes a mySQL table, and exports it into .XSL format, and then saves that file into a specified folder on the web host. I got it working, but now I can't seem to get it to automatically save the file to the location without prompting the user. It needs to run every day at a specified time, so it can save the previous days leads into a .XSL file on the web host. Here is the code: <?php // DB TABLE Exporter // // How to use: // // Place this file in a safe place, edit the info just below here // browse to the file, enjoy! // CHANGE THIS STUFF FOR WHAT YOU NEED TO DO $dbhost = "-"; $dbuser = "-"; $dbpass = "-"; $dbname = "-"; $dbtable = "-"; // END CHANGING STUFF $cdate = date("Y-m-d"); // get current date // first thing that we are going to do is make some functions for writing out // and excel file. These functions do some hex writing and to be honest I got // them from some where else but hey it works so I am not going to question it // just reuse // This one makes the beginning of the xls file function xlsBOF() { echo pack("ssssss", 0x809, 0x8, 0x0, 0x10, 0x0, 0x0); return; } // This one makes the end of the xls file function xlsEOF() { echo pack("ss", 0x0A, 0x00); return; } // this will write text in the cell you specify function xlsWriteLabel($Row, $Col, $Value ) { $L = strlen($Value); echo pack("ssssss", 0x204, 8 + $L, $Row, $Col, 0x0, $L); echo $Value; return; } // make the connection an DB query $dbc = mysql_connect( $dbhost , $dbuser , $dbpass ) or die( mysql_error() ); mysql_select_db( $dbname ); $q = "SELECT * FROM ".$dbtable." WHERE date ='$cdate'"; $qr = mysql_query( $q ) or die( mysql_error() ); // Ok now we are going to send some headers so that this // thing that we are going make comes out of browser // as an xls file. // header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Content-Type: application/force-download"); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Type: application/download"); //this line is important its makes the file name header("Content-Disposition: attachment;filename=export_".$dbtable.".xls "); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary "); // start the file xlsBOF(); // these will be used for keeping things in order. $col = 0; $row = 0; // This tells us that we are on the first row $first = true; while( $qrow = mysql_fetch_assoc( $qr ) ) { // Ok we are on the first row // lets make some headers of sorts if( $first ) { foreach( $qrow as $k => $v ) { // take the key and make label // make it uppper case and replace _ with ' ' xlsWriteLabel( $row, $col, strtoupper( ereg_replace( "_" , " " , $k ) ) ); $col++; } // prepare for the first real data row $col = 0; $row++; $first = false; } // go through the data foreach( $qrow as $k => $v ) { // write it out xlsWriteLabel( $row, $col, $v ); $col++; } // reset col and goto next row $col = 0; $row++; } xlsEOF(); exit(); ?> I tried using, fwrite to accomplish this, but it didn't seem to go very well, I removed the header information too, but nothing worked. Here is the original code, as I found it, any help would be greatly appreciated. :-) Thanx in advance. :-)

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  • Are free operator->* overloads evil?

    - by Potatoswatter
    I was perusing section 13.5 after refuting the notion that built-in operators do not participate in overload resolution, and noticed that there is no section on operator->*. It is just a generic binary operator. Its brethren, operator->, operator*, and operator[], are all required to be non-static member functions. This precludes definition of a free function overload to an operator commonly used to obtain a reference from an object. But the uncommon operator->* is left out. In particular, operator[] has many similarities. It is binary (they missed a golden opportunity to make it n-ary), and it accepts some kind of container on the left and some kind of locator on the right. Its special-rules section, 13.5.5, doesn't seem to have any actual effect except to outlaw free functions. (And that restriction even precludes support for commutativity!) So, for example, this is perfectly legal (in C++0x, remove obvious stuff to translate to C++03): #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <type_traits> using namespace std; template< class F, class S > typename common_type< F,S >::type operator->*( pair<F,S> const &l, bool r ) { return r? l.second : l.first; } template< class T > T & operator->*( pair<T,T> &l, bool r ) { return r? l.second : l.first; } template< class T > T & operator->*( bool l, pair<T,T> &r ) { return l? r.second : r.first; } int main() { auto x = make_pair( 1, 2.3 ); cerr << x->*false << " " << x->*4 << endl; auto y = make_pair( 5, 6 ); y->*(0) = 7; y->*0->*y = 8; // evaluates to 7->*y = y.second cerr << y.first << " " << y.second << endl; } I can certainly imagine myself giving into temp[la]tation. For example, scaled indexes for vector: v->*matrix_width[2][5] = x; Did the standards committee forget to prevent this, was it considered too ugly to bother, or are there real-world use cases?

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  • How do I make these fields autopopulate from the database?

    - by dmanexe
    I have an array, which holds values like this: $items_pool = Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [quantity] => 1 ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [quantity] => 1 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 72 [quantity] => 6 ) [3] => Array ( [id] => 4 [quantity] => 1 ) [4] => Array ( [id] => 5 [quantity] => 1 ) [5] => Array ( [id] => 7 [quantity] => 1 ) [6] => Array ( [id] => 8 [quantity] => 1 ) [7] => Array ( [id] => 9 [quantity] => 1 ) [8] => Array ( [id] => 19 [quantity] => 1 ) [9] => Array ( [id] => 20 [quantity] => 1 ) [10] => Array ( [id] => 22 [quantity] => 1 ) [11] => Array ( [id] => 29 [quantity] => 0 ) ) Next, I have a form that I am trying to populate. It loops through the item database, prints out all the possible items, and checks the ones that are already present in $items_pool. <?php foreach ($items['items_poolpackage']->result() as $item): ?> <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checkmark]" value="<?=$item->id?>"> <?php endforeach; ?> I know what logically I'm trying to accomplish here, but I can't figure out the programming. What I'm looking for, written loosely is something like this (not real code): <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?=$item->id?>][checkmark]" value="<?=$item->id?>" <?php if ($items_pool['$item->id']) { echo "SELECTED"; } else { }?>> Specifically this conditional loop through the array, through all the key values (the ID) and if there's a match, the checkbox is selected. <?php if ($items_pool['$item->id']) { echo "SELECTED"; } else { }?> I understand from a loop structured like this that it may mean a lot of 'extra' processing. TL;DR - I need to echo within a loop if the item going through the loop exists within another array.

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  • Why does virtual assignment behave differently than other virtual functions of the same signature?

    - by David Rodríguez - dribeas
    While playing with implementing a virtual assignment operator I have ended with a funny behavior. It is not a compiler glitch, since g++ 4.1, 4.3 and VS 2005 share the same behavior. Basically, the virtual operator= behaves differently than any other virtual function with respect to the code that is actually being executed. struct Base { virtual Base& f( Base const & ) { std::cout << "Base::f(Base const &)" << std::endl; return *this; } virtual Base& operator=( Base const & ) { std::cout << "Base::operator=(Base const &)" << std::endl; return *this; } }; struct Derived : public Base { virtual Base& f( Base const & ) { std::cout << "Derived::f(Base const &)" << std::endl; return *this; } virtual Base& operator=( Base const & ) { std::cout << "Derived::operator=( Base const & )" << std::endl; return *this; } }; int main() { Derived a, b; a.f( b ); // [0] outputs: Derived::f(Base const &) (expected result) a = b; // [1] outputs: Base::operator=(Base const &) Base & ba = a; Base & bb = b; ba = bb; // [2] outputs: Derived::operator=(Base const &) Derived & da = a; Derived & db = b; da = db; // [3] outputs: Base::operator=(Base const &) ba = da; // [4] outputs: Derived::operator=(Base const &) da = ba; // [5] outputs: Derived::operator=(Base const &) } The effect is that the virtual operator= has a different behavior than any other virtual function with the same signature ([0] compared to [1]), by calling the Base version of the operator when called through real Derived objects ([1]) or Derived references ([3]) while it does perform as a regular virtual function when called through Base references ([2]), or when either the lvalue or rvalue are Base references and the other a Derived reference ([4],[5]). Is there any sensible explanation to this odd behavior?

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  • Why do some Flask session values disappear from the session after closing the browser window, but then reappear later without me adding them?

    - by Ben
    So my understanding of Flask sessions is that I can use it like a dictionary and add values to a session by doing: session['key name'] = 'some value here' And that works fine. On a route I have the client call using AJAX post, I assign a value to the session. And it works fine. I can click on various pages of my site and the value stays in the session. If I close the browser window however, and then go back to my site, the session value I had in there is gone. So that's weird and you would think the problem is the session isn't permanent. I also implemented Flask-Openid and that uses the session to store information and that does persist if I close the browser window and open it back up again. I also checked the cookie after closing the browser window, but before going back to my site, and the cookie is indeed still there. Another odd piece of behaviour (which may be related) is that some values I have written to the session for testing purposes will go away when I access the AJAX post route and assign the correct value. So that is odd, but what is truly weird is that when I then close the browser window and open it up again, and have thus lost the value I was trying to retain, the ones that I lost previously actually return! They aren't being reassigned because there's no code in my Python files to reassign those values. Here is some outputs to helper make it clearer. They are all outputed from a route for a real page, and not the AJAX post route I mentioned above. This is the output after I have assigned the value I want to store in the session. The value key is 'userid' - all the other values are dummy ones I have added in trying to solve this problem. 'userid': 8 will stay in the session as long as I don't close the browser window. I can access other routes and the value will stay there just like it should. ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'userid': 8, 'test_variable_num': 102, 'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'test_variable_text': 'hi!'}>] If I do close the browser window, and go back into the site, but without redoing the AJAX post request, I get this output: ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'yo': 'yo'}>] The 'yo' value was not in the first first output. I don't know where it came from. I searched my code for 'yo' and there is no instances of me assigning that value anywhere. I think I may have added it to the session days ago. So it seems like it is persisting, but being hidden when the other values are written. And this last one is me accessing the AJAX post route again, and then going to the page that prints out the keys using debug. Same output as the first output I pasted above, which you would expect, and the 'yo' value is gone again (but it will come back if I close the browser window) ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'userid': 8, 'test_variable_num': 102, 'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'test_variable_text': 'hi!'}>] I tested this in both Chrome and Firefox. So I find this all weird and I am guessing it stems from a misunderstanding of how sessions work. I think they're dictionaries and I can write dictionary values into them and retrieve them days later as long as I set the session to permanent and the cookie doesn't get deleted. Any ideas why this weird behaviour is happening?

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  • wpftoolkit DataGridTemplateColumn Template binding

    - by Guillaume
    I want my datagrid columns to share a cell/celledit template. I have the solution do that (thanks to WPF DataGridTemplateColumn shared template?). Now what I would love to is improving the readability by avoiding all the node nesting. My current view looks like that: <wpftk:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Tests}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellTemplate"> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding Content}"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellEditingTemplate"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding Content}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Start Date"> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ContentPresenter ContentTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" Content="{Binding StartDate}"/> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ContentPresenter ContentTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}" Content="{Binding StartDate}"/> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <!--and again the whole block above for each columns...--> </wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> </wpftk:DataGrid> What I would like to achieve is to bind the value at the DataGridTemplateColumn level and propagate it to the template level. Anyone know how to do that? What I tried to do is something like that: <wpftk:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Tests}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellTemplate"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="CustomCellEditingTemplate"> <TextBox Text="{Binding}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </wpftk:DataGrid.Resources> <wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Start Date" Binding="{Binding StartDate}" CellTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" CellEditingTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}"/> <wpftk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="End Date" Binding="{Binding EndDate}" CellTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellTemplate}" CellEditingTemplate="{StaticResource CustomCellEditingTemplate}"/> </wpftk:DataGrid.Columns> </wpftk:DataGrid> Obviously the binding porperty is not a valid property of the DataGridTemplateColumn but maybe by playing with the datacontext and some relative source could do the trick but frankly I can't find a way to implement that. Not sure if what I want is possible and i'm willing to accept a "no way you can do that" as an answer NOTE: The TextBlock/TextBox in the template is just for test (the real template is much more complex) DataGridTextColumn will not do the trick Thanks in advance

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  • How do I use constructor dependency injection to supply Models from a collection to their ViewModels

    - by GraemeF
    I'm using constructor dependency injection in my WPF application and I keep running into the following pattern, so would like to get other people's opinion on it and hear about alternative solutions. The goal is to wire up a hierarchy of ViewModels to a similar hierarchy of Models, so that the responsibility for presenting the information in each model lies with its own ViewModel implementation. (The pattern also crops up under other circumstances but MVVM should make for a good example.) Here's a simplified example. Given that I have a model that has a collection of further models: public interface IPerson { IEnumerable<IAddress> Addresses { get; } } public interface IAddress { } I would like to mirror this hierarchy in the ViewModels so that I can bind a ListBox (or whatever) to a collection in the Person ViewModel: public interface IPersonViewModel { ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; } void Initialize(); } public interface IAddressViewModel { } The child ViewModel needs to present the information from the child Model, so it's injected via the constructor: public class AddressViewModel : IAddressViewModel { private readonly IAddress _address; public AddressViewModel(IAddress address) { _address = address; } } The question is, what is the best way to supply the child Model to the corresponding child ViewModel? The example is trivial, but in a typical real case the ViewModels have more dependencies - each of which has its own dependencies (and so on). I'm using Unity 1.2 (although I think the question is relevant across the other IoC containers), and I am using Caliburn's view strategies to automatically find and wire up the appropriate View to a ViewModel. Here is my current solution: The parent ViewModel needs to create a child ViewModel for each child Model, so it has a factory method added to its constructor which it uses during initialization: public class PersonViewModel : IPersonViewModel { private readonly Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> _addressViewModelFactory; private readonly IPerson _person; public PersonViewModel(IPerson person, Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> addressViewModelFactory) { _addressViewModelFactory = addressViewModelFactory; _person = person; Addresses = new ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel>(); } public ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; private set; } public void Initialize() { foreach (IAddress address in _person.Addresses) Addresses.Add(_addressViewModelFactory(address)); } } A factory method that satisfies the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> interface is registered with the main UnityContainer. The factory method uses a child container to register the IAddress dependency that is required by the ViewModel and then resolves the child ViewModel: public class Factory { private readonly IUnityContainer _container; public Factory(IUnityContainer container) { _container = container; } public void RegisterStuff() { _container.RegisterInstance<Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel>>(CreateAddressViewModel); } private IAddressViewModel CreateAddressViewModel(IAddress model) { IUnityContainer childContainer = _container.CreateChildContainer(); childContainer.RegisterInstance(model); return childContainer.Resolve<IAddressViewModel>(); } } Now, when the PersonViewModel is initialized, it loops through each Address in the Model and calls CreateAddressViewModel() (which was injected via the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> argument). CreateAddressViewModel() creates a temporary child container and registers the IAddress model so that when it resolves the IAddressViewModel from the child container the AddressViewModel gets the correct instance injected via its constructor. This seems to be a good solution to me as the dependencies of the ViewModels are very clear and they are easily testable and unaware of the IoC container. On the other hand, performance is OK but not great as a lot of temporary child containers can be created. Also I end up with a lot of very similar factory methods. Is this the best way to inject the child Models into the child ViewModels with Unity? Is there a better (or faster) way to do it in other IoC containers, e.g. Autofac? How would this problem be tackled with MEF, given that it is not a traditional IoC container but is still used to compose objects?

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  • Help to restructure my Doc/View more correctly

    - by Harvey
    Edited by OP. My program is in need of a lot of cleanup and restructuring. In another post I asked about leaving the MFC DocView framework and going to the WinProc & Message Loop way (what is that called for short?). Well at present I am thinking that I should clean up what I have in Doc View and perhaps later convert to non-MFC it that even makes sense. My Document class currently has almost nothing useful in it. I think a place to start is the InitInstance() function (posted below). In this part: POSITION pos=pDocTemplate->GetFirstDocPosition(); CLCWDoc *pDoc=(CLCWDoc *)pDocTemplate->GetNextDoc(pos); ASSERT_VALID(pDoc); POSITION vpos=pDoc->GetFirstViewPosition(); CChildView *pCV=(CChildView *)pDoc->GetNextView(vpos); This seem strange to me. I only have one doc and one view. I feel like I am going about it backwards with GetNextDoc() and GetNextView(). To try to use a silly analogy; it's like I have a book in my hand but I have to look up in it's index to find out what page the Title of the book is on. I'm tired of feeling embarrassed about my code. I either need correction or reassurance, or both. :) Also, all the miscellaneous items are in no particular order. I would like to rearrange them into an order that may be more standard, structured or straightforward. ALL suggestions welcome! BOOL CLCWApp::InitInstance() { InitCommonControls(); if(!AfxOleInit()) return FALSE; // Initialize the Toolbar dll. (Toolbar code by Nikolay Denisov.) InitGuiLibDLL(); // NOTE: insert GuiLib.dll into the resource chain SetRegistryKey(_T("Real Name Removed")); // Register document templates CSingleDocTemplate* pDocTemplate; pDocTemplate = new CSingleDocTemplate( IDR_MAINFRAME, RUNTIME_CLASS(CLCWDoc), RUNTIME_CLASS(CMainFrame), RUNTIME_CLASS(CChildView)); AddDocTemplate(pDocTemplate); // Parse command line for standard shell commands, DDE, file open CCmdLineInfo cmdInfo; ParseCommandLine(cmdInfo); // Dispatch commands specified on the command line // The window frame appears on the screen in here. if (!ProcessShellCommand(cmdInfo)) { AfxMessageBox("Failure processing Command Line"); return FALSE; } POSITION pos=pDocTemplate->GetFirstDocPosition(); CLCWDoc *pDoc=(CLCWDoc *)pDocTemplate->GetNextDoc(pos); ASSERT_VALID(pDoc); POSITION vpos=pDoc->GetFirstViewPosition(); CChildView *pCV=(CChildView *)pDoc->GetNextView(vpos); if(!cmdInfo.m_Fn1.IsEmpty() && !cmdInfo.m_Fn2.IsEmpty()) { pCV->OpenF1(cmdInfo.m_Fn1); pCV->OpenF2(cmdInfo.m_Fn2); pCV->DoCompare(); // Sends a paint message when complete } // enable file manager drag/drop and DDE Execute open m_pMainWnd->DragAcceptFiles(TRUE); m_pMainWnd->ShowWindow(SW_SHOWNORMAL); m_pMainWnd->UpdateWindow(); // paints the window background pCV->bDoSize=true; //Prevent a dozen useless size calculations return TRUE; } Thanks

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  • Java Refuses to Start - Could not reserve enough space for object heap

    - by Randyaa
    Background We have a pool of aproximately 20 linux blades. Some are running Suse, some are running Redhat. ALL share NAS space which contains the following 3 folders: /NAS/app/java - a symlink that points to an installation of a Java JDK. Currently version 1.5.0_10 /NAS/app/lib - a symlink that points to a version of our application. /NAS/data - directory where our output is written All our machines have 2 processors (hyperthreaded) with 4gb of physical memory and 4gb of swap space. We limit the number of 'jobs' each machine can process at a given time to 6 (this number likely needs to change, but that does not enter into the current problem so please ignore it for the time being). Some of our jobs set a Max Heap size of 512mb, some others reserve a Max Heap size of 2048mb. Again, we realize we could go over our available memory if 6 jobs started on the same machine with the heap size set to 2048, but to our knowledge this has not yet occurred. The Problem Once and a while a Job will fail immediately with the following message: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not reserve enough space for object heap Could not create the Java virtual machine. We used to chalk this up to too many jobs running at the same time on the same machine. The problem happened infrequently enough (MAYBE once a month) that we'd just restart it and everything would be fine. The problem has recently gotten much worse. All of our jobs which request a max heap size of 2048m fail immediately almost every time and need to get restarted several times before completing. We've gone out to individual machines and tried executing them manually with the same result. Debugging It turns out that the problem only exists for our SuSE boxes. The reason it has been happening more frequently is becuase we've been adding more machines, and the new ones are SuSE. 'cat /proc/version' on the SuSE boxes give us: Linux version 2.6.5-7.244-bigsmp (geeko@buildhost) (gcc version 3.3.3 (SuSE Linux)) #1 SMP Mon Dec 12 18:32:25 UTC 2005 'cat /proc/version' on the RedHat boxes give us: Linux version 2.4.21-32.0.1.ELsmp ([email protected]) (gcc version 3.2.3 20030502 (Red Hat Linux 3.2.3-52)) #1 SMP Tue May 17 17:52:23 EDT 2005 'uname -a' gives us the following on BOTH types of machines: UTC 2005 i686 i686 i386 GNU/Linux No jobs are running on the machine, and no other processes are utilizing much memory. All of the processes currently running might be using 100mb total. 'top' currently shows the following: Mem: 4146528k total, 3536360k used, 610168k free, 132136k buffers Swap: 4194288k total, 0k used, 4194288k free, 3283908k cached 'vmstat' currently shows the following: procs -----------memory---------- ---swap-- -----io---- --system-- ----cpu---- r b swpd free buff cache si so bi bo in cs us sy id wa 0 0 0 610292 132136 3283908 0 0 0 2 26 15 0 0 100 0 If we kick off a job with the following command line (Max Heap of 1850mb) it starts fine: java/bin/java -Xmx1850M -cp helloworld.jar HelloWorld Hello World If we bump up the max heap size to 1875mb it fails: java/bin/java -Xmx1875M -cp helloworld.jar HelloWorld Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not reserve enough space for object heap Could not create the Java virtual machine. It's quite clear that the memory currently being used is for Buffering/Caching and that's why so little is being displayed as 'free'. What isn't clear is why there is a magical 1850mb line where anything higher means Java can't start. Any explanations would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Add options to select box without Internet Explorer closing the box?

    - by Paul Colby
    Hi, I'm trying to build a web page with a number of drop-down select boxes that load their options asynchronously when the box is first opened. This works very well under Firefox, but not under Internet Explorer. Below is a small example of what I'm trying to achieve. Basically, there is a select box (with the id "selectBox"), which contains just one option ("Any"). Then there is an onmousedown handler that loads the other options when the box is clicked. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function appendOption(select,option) { try { selectBox.add(option,null); // Standards compliant. } catch (e) { selectBox.add(option); // IE only version. } } function loadOptions() { // Simulate an AJAX request that will call the // loadOptionsCallback function after 500ms. setTimeout(loadOptionsCallback,500); } function loadOptionsCallback() { var selectBox = document.getElementById('selectBox'); var option = document.createElement('option'); option.text = 'new option'; appendOption(selectBox,option); } </script> </head> <body> <select id="selectBox" onmousedown="loadOptions();"> <option>Any</option> </select> </body> </html> The desired behavior (which Firefox does) is: the user see's a closed select box containing "Any". the user clicks on the select box. the select box opens to reveal the one and only option ("Any"). 500ms later (or when the AJAX call has returned) the dropped-down list expands to include the new options (hard coded to 'new option' in this example). So that's exactly what Firefox does, which is great. However, in Internet Explorer, as soon as the new option is added in "4" the browser closes the select box. The select box does contain the correct options, but the box is closed, requiring the user to click to re-open it. So, does anyone have any suggestions for how I can load the select control's options asynchronously without IE closing the drop-down box? I know that I can load the list before the box is even clicked, but the real form I'm developing contains many such select boxes, which are all interrelated, so it will be much better for both the client and server if I can load each set of options only when needed. Also, if the results are loaded synchronously, before the select box's onmousedown handler completes, then IE will show the full list as expected - however, synchronous loading is a bad idea here, since it will completely "lock" the browser while the network requests are taking place. Finally, I've also tried using IE's click() method to open the select box once the new options have been added, but that does not re-open the select box. Any ideas or suggestions would be really appreciated!! :) Thanks! Paul.

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  • Evidence-Based-Scheduling - are estimations only as accurate as the work-plan they're based on?

    - by Assaf Lavie
    I've been using FogBugz's Evidence Based Scheduling (for the uninitiated, Joel explains) for a while now and there's an inherent problem I can't seem to work around. The system is good at telling me the probability that a given project will be delivered at some date, given the detailed list of tasks that comprise the project. However, it does not take into account the fact that during development additional tasks always pop up. Now, there's the garbage-can approach of creating a generic task/scheduled-item for "last minute hacks" or "integration tasks", or what have you, but that clearly goes against the idea of aggregating the estimates of many small cases. It's often the case that during the development stage of a project you realize that there's a whole area your planning didn't cover, because, well, that's the nature of developing stuff that hasn't been developed before. So now your ~3 month project may very well turn into a 6 month project, but not because your estimations were off (you could be the best estimator in the world, for those task the comprised your initial work plan); rather because you ended up adding a whole bunch of new tasks that weren't there to begin with. EBS doesn't help you with that. It could, theoretically (I guess). It could, perhaps, measure the amount of work you add to a project over time and take that into consideration when estimating the time remaining on a given project. Just a thought. In other words, EBS works on a task basis, but not on a project/release basis - but the latter is what's important. It's what your boss typically cares about - delivery date, not the time it takes to finish each task along the way, and not the time it would have taken, if your planning was perfect. So the question is (yes, there's a question here, don't close it): What's your methodology when it comes to using EBS in FogBugz and how do you solve the problem above, which seems to be a main cause of schedule delays and mispredictions? Edit Some more thoughts after reading a few answers: If it comes down to having to choose which delivery date you're comfortable presenting to your higher-ups by squinting at the delivery-probability graph and choosing 80%, or 95%, or 60% (based on what, exactly?) then we've resorted to plain old buffering/factoring of our estimates. In which case, couldn't we have skipped the meticulous case by case hour-sized estimation effort step? By forcing ourselves to break down tasks that take more than a day into smaller chunks of work haven't we just deluded ourselves into thinking our planning is as tight and thorough as it could be? People may be consistently bad estimators that do not even learn from their past mistakes. In that respect, having an EBS system is certainly better than not having one. But what can we do about the fact that we're not that good in planning as well? I'm not sure it's a problem that can be solved by a similar system. Our estimates are wrong because of tendencies to be overly optimistic/pessimistic about certain tasks, and because of neglect to account for systematic delays (e.g. sick days, major bug crisis) - and usually not because we lack knowledge about the work that needs to be done. Our planning, on the other hand, is often incomplete because we simply don't have enough knowledge in this early stage; and I don't see how an EBS-like system could fill that gap. So we're back to methodology. We need to find a way to accommodate bad or incomplete work plans that's better than voodoo-multiplication.

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  • How do I properly add existing source code files to my Xcode project?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm new to iPhone development and I'm still getting familiar with the Mac dev environment, including Xcode. I want to add some 3rd party code to my iPhone project, but when I add the "existing files" to my Xcode project, I'm presented with a dialog box that has far too many options that I don't understand and, as such, my project isn't working. When I #import headerfilename.h, I get a build error that reads headerfilename.h: No such file or directory. Can anyone explain to me what all these options mean or give me a link to some documentation that can? I'm having a hard time finding anything in Apple's docs. Which options do I want to choose to add existing source code files to my Xcode project? I should note that the source code files that I'm trying to add are located in my project/Classes/frameworkname/ directory. After they're added, do I need to reference this new code directory in my project settings anywhere (i.e. some kind of header file directory variable)? Thanks so much! Update: I found the following answers/responses on the apple dev forums that were very useful and helped me fix my issue... To make it simple : - if you do not check the copy option, the file stay where it is. - if you check it, it is copied in your project folders In the first case (what it seems you are doing) you need to tell the compiler that the header files are in another directory : - project info - build - search paths - User Header Search Path : add the directory from where you took the header file Hope this will help You have discovered the most confusing dialog box that ever came out of Cupertino. Six years of Xcode, and this thing still is partly a mystery to me. To even get that far, I had to make many test projects to try and reverse-engineer what this thing does. The "Copy" box means that it will copy the files as they are right now, into the project. If this box is not checked, then it just references those files during a build and copies them as they are at THAT time. For source code, you want the Copy box checked. The "relative to" is a total mystery to me and I can't help you with that. I usually leave it however it is already set. Does it mean relative to where they are on disk, or the arrangement in Xcode, or in the bundle? Who knows. The last 2 radio buttons SEEM to mean that it will either re-create the folder structure of the folder you are adding, or just put "fake" folders in Xcode that point to the real folders. This is probably your problem - you are adding source code that is not all at the top level, and when it goes to find it, it does not re-create the hierarchy. Others can supply a better way, hopefully, but what I would do is put all of the source in one folder and add that, using the Copy box. Then in Xcode you can make whatever bogus folders you want and put the source file names in those fake folders.

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  • Coldfusion "Routines cannot be declared more than once"

    - by Nicholas
    We have the following code in our Application.cfc: <cffunction name="onError" returnType="void" output="false"> <cfargument name="exception" required="true"> <cfargument name="eventname" type="string" required="true"> <cfset cfcatch = exception> <cfinclude template="standalone/errors/error.cfm"> </cffunction> Within the error.cfm page we have this code (I didn't write it): <cfscript> function GetCurrentURL() { var theURL = "http"; if (cgi.https EQ "on" ) theURL = "#TheURL#s"; theURL = theURL & "://#cgi.server_name#"; if(cgi.server_port neq 80) theURL = theURL & ":#cgi.server_port#"; theURL = theURL & "#cgi.path_info#"; if(len(cgi.query_string)) theURL = theURL & "?#cgi.query_string#"; return theURL; } </cfscript> This is all part of a script that puts together bunches of details about the error and records it to the database. When an error occurs, we receive the message "The routine GetCurrentURL has been declared twice in different templates." However, I have searched the entire codebase in several different ways and found "GetCurrentURL" used only twice, both times in error.cfm. The first time is the declaration, and the second is actual use. So I'm not sure why CF is saying "in different templates". My next thought was that the problem is a recursive call, and that error.cfm is erroring and calling itself, so I attempted these two changes, either of which should have resolved the issue and unmasked the real error: <cfif StructKeyExists(variables,"GetCurrentURL") IS "NO"> <cfscript> function GetCurrentURL() { var theURL = "http"; if (cgi.https EQ "on" ) theURL = "#TheURL#s"; theURL = theURL & "://#cgi.server_name#"; if(cgi.server_port neq 80) theURL = theURL & ":#cgi.server_port#"; theURL = theURL & "#cgi.path_info#"; if(len(cgi.query_string)) theURL = theURL & "?#cgi.query_string#"; return theURL; } </cfscript> </cfif> And: <cfscript> if (!StructKeyExists(variables,"GetCurrentURL")) { function GetCurrentURL() { var theURL = "http"; if (cgi.https EQ "on" ) theURL = "#TheURL#s"; theURL = theURL & "://#cgi.server_name#"; if(cgi.server_port neq 80) theURL = theURL & ":#cgi.server_port#"; theURL = theURL & "#cgi.path_info#"; if(len(cgi.query_string)) theURL = theURL & "?#cgi.query_string#"; return theURL; } } </cfscript> Neither worked. I also tried adding this to the page just before the function call: <cfoutput>"#StructKeyExists(variables,"GetCurrentURL")#"</cfoutput> It caused the word "YES" to be printed on screen. This indicates that the above should work, as clearly the contents of the if statement will evaluate to "YES", and thus the if statement will evaluate to false, and thus the function will not be declared, and thus I will retain my sanity. But for some reason this problem persists. Any thoughts on what might be occuring or how to troubleshoot next? I'm stuck at this point.

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  • What container type provides better (average) performance than std::map?

    - by Truncheon
    In the following example a std::map structure is filled with 26 values from A - Z (for key) and 0 - 26 for value. The time taken (on my system) to lookup the last entry (10000000 times) is roughly 250 ms for the vector, and 125 ms for the map. (I compiled using release mode, with O3 option turned on for g++ 4.4) But if for some odd reason I wanted better performance than the std::map, what data structures and functions would I need to consider using? I apologize if the answer seems obvious to you, but I haven't had much experience in the performance critical aspects of C++ programming. UPDATE: This example is rather trivial and hides the true complexity of what I'm trying to achieve. My real world project is a simple scripting language that uses a parser, data tree, and interpreter (instead of a VM stack system). I need to use some kind of data structure (perhaps map) to store the variables names created by script programmers. These are likely to be pretty randomly named, so I need a lookup method that can quickly find a particular key within a (probably) fairly large list of names. #include <ctime> #include <map> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct mystruct { char key; int value; mystruct(char k = 0, int v = 0) : key(k), value(v) { } }; int find(const std::vector<mystruct>& ref, char key) { for (std::vector<mystruct>::const_iterator i = ref.begin(); i != ref.end(); ++i) if (i->key == key) return i->value; return -1; } int main() { std::map<char, int> mymap; std::vector<mystruct> myvec; for (int i = 'a'; i < 'a' + 26; ++i) { mymap[i] = i - 'a'; myvec.push_back(mystruct(i, i - 'a')); } int pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { find(myvec, 'z'); } std::cout << "linear scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { mymap['z']; } std::cout << "map scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; return 0; }

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  • Pagination number elements do not work - jquery

    - by ClarkSKent
    Hello, I am trying to get my pagination links to work. It seems when I click any of the pagination number links to go the next page, the new content does not load. literally nothing happens and when looking at the console in Firebug, nothing is sent or loaded. I have on the main page 3 links to filter the content and display it. When any of these links are clicked the results are loaded and displayed along with the associated pagination numbers for that specific content. Here is the main page so you can see what the structure looks like for the jquery: <?php include_once('generate_pagination.php'); ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery_pagination.js"></script> <div id="loading" ></div> <div id="content" data-page="1"></div> <ul id="pagination"> <?php generate_pagination($sql) ?> </ul> <br /> <br /> <a href="#" class="category" id="marketing">Marketing</a> <a href="#" class="category" id="automotive">Automotive</a> <a href="#" class="category" id="sports">Sports</a> The jquery below is pretty simple and I don't think I need to explain what it does. I believe the problem may be with the $("#pagination li").click(function(){ since the li elements are the numbers that do not work when clicked. Even when I try to fadeOut or hide the content on click nothing happens. I'm pretty new to the jquery structure so I do not fully understand where the real problem is occurring, this is just from my observation. The jquery file looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ //Display Loading Image function Display_Load() { $("#loading").fadeIn(900,0); $("#loading").html("<img src='bigLoader.gif' />"); } //Hide Loading Image function Hide_Load() { $("#loading").fadeOut('slow'); }; //Default Starting Page Results $("#pagination li:first").css({'color' : '#FF0084'}).css({'border' : 'none'}); Display_Load(); $("#content").load("pagination_data.php?page=1", Hide_Load()); //Pagination Click $("#pagination li").click(function(){ Display_Load(); //CSS Styles $("#pagination li") .css({'border' : 'solid #dddddd 1px'}) .css({'color' : '#0063DC'}); $(this) .css({'color' : '#FF0084'}) .css({'border' : 'none'}); //Loading Data var pageNum = this.id; $("#content").load("pagination_data.php?page=" + pageNum, function(){ $(this).attr('data-page', pageNum); Hide_Load(); }); }); // Editing below. // Sort content Marketing $("a.category").click(function() { Display_Load(); var this_id = $(this).attr('id'); $.get("pagination.php", { category: this.id }, function(data){ //Load your results into the page var pageNum = $('#content').attr('data-page'); $("#pagination").load('generate_pagination.php?category=' + pageNum +'&ids='+ this_id ); $("#content").load("filter_marketing.php?page=" + pageNum +'&id='+ this_id, Hide_Load()); }); }); }); If anyone could help me on this that would be great, Thanks. EDIT: Here are the innards of <ul id="pagination">: <?php function generate_pagination($sql) { include_once('config.php'); $per_page = 3; //Calculating no of pages $result = mysql_query($sql); $count = mysql_fetch_row($result); $pages = ceil($count[0]/$per_page); //Pagination Numbers for($i=1; $i<=$pages; $i++) { echo '<li class="page_numbers" id="'.$i.'">'.$i.'</li>'; } } $ids=$_GET['ids']; generate_pagination("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM explore WHERE category='$ids'"); ?>

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  • Trying get dynamic content hole-punched through Magento's Full Page Cache

    - by rlflow
    I am using Magento Enterprise 1.10.1.1 and need to get some dynamic content on our product pages. I am inserting the current time in a block to quickly see if it is working, but can't seem to get through full page cache. I have tried a variety of implementations found here: http://tweetorials.tumblr.com/post/10160075026/ee-full-page-cache-hole-punching http://oggettoweb.com/blog/customizations-compatible-magento-full-page-cache/ http://magentophp.blogspot.com/2011/02/magento-enterprise-full-page-caching.html (http://www.exploremagento.com/magento/simple-custom-module.php - custom module) Any solutions, thoughts, comments, advice is welcome. here is my code: app/code/local/Fido/Example/etc/config.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <config> <modules> <Fido_Example> <version>0.1.0</version> </Fido_Example> </modules> <global> <blocks> <fido_example> <class>Fido_Example_Block</class> </fido_example> </blocks> </global> </config> app/code/local/Fido/Example/etc/cache.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <config> <placeholders> <fido_example> <block>fido_example/view</block> <name>example</name> <placeholder>CACHE_TEST</placeholder> <container>Fido_Example_Model_Container_Cachetest</container> <cache_lifetime>86400</cache_lifetime> </fido_example> </placeholders> </config> app/code/local/Fido/Example/Block/View.php <?php /** * Example View block * * @codepool Local * @category Fido * @package Fido_Example * @module Example */ class Fido_Example_Block_View extends Mage_Core_Block_Template { private $message; private $att; protected function createMessage($msg) { $this->message = $msg; } public function receiveMessage() { if($this->message != '') { return $this->message; } else { $this->createMessage('Hello World'); return $this->message; } } protected function _toHtml() { $html = parent::_toHtml(); if($this->att = $this->getMyCustom() && $this->getMyCustom() != '') { $html .= '<br />'.$this->att; } else { $now = date('m-d-Y h:i:s A'); $html .= $now; $html .= '<br />' ; } return $html; } } app/code/local/Fido/Example/Model/Container/Cachetest.php <?php class Fido_Example_Model_Container_Cachetest extends Enterprise_PageCache_Model_Container_Abstract { protected function _getCacheId() { return 'HOMEPAGE_PRODUCTS' . md5($this->_placeholder->getAttribute('cache_id') . $this->_getIdentifier()); } protected function _renderBlock() { $blockClass = $this->_placeholder->getAttribute('block'); $template = $this->_placeholder->getAttribute('template'); $block = new $blockClass; $block->setTemplate($template); return $block->toHtml(); } protected function _saveCache($data, $id, $tags = array(), $lifetime = null) { return false; } } app/design/frontend/enterprise/[mytheme]/template/example/view.phtml <?php /** * Fido view template * * @see Fido_Example_Block_View * */ ?> <div> <?php echo $this->receiveMessage(); ?> </span> </div> snippet from app/design/frontend/enterprise/[mytheme]/layout/catalog.xml <reference name="content"> <block type="catalog/product_view" name="product.info" template="catalog/product/view.phtml"> <block type="fido_example/view" name="product.info.example" as="example" template="example/view.phtml" />

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  • Unknown error sourcing a script containing 'typeset -r' wrapped in command substitution

    - by Bernard Assaf
    I wish to source a script, print the value of a variable this script defines, and then have this value be assigned to a variable on the command line with command substitution wrapping the source/print commands. This works on ksh88 but not on ksh93 and I am wondering why. $ cat typeset_err.ksh #!/bin/ksh unset _typeset_var typeset -i -r _typeset_var=1 DIR=init # this is the variable I want to print When run on ksh88 (in this case, an AIX 6.1 box), the output is as follows: $ A=$(. ./typeset_err.ksh; print $DIR) $ echo $A init When run on ksh93 (in this case, a Linux machine), the output is as follows: $ A=$(. ./typeset_err.ksh; print $DIR) -ksh: _typeset_var: is read only $ print $A ($A is undefined) The above is just an example script. The actual thing I wish to accomplish is to source a script that sets values to many variables, so that I can print just one of its values, e.g. $DIR, and have $A equal that value. I do not know in advance the value of $DIR, but I need to copy files to $DIR during execution of a different batch script. Therefore the idea I had was to source the script in order to define its variables, print the one I wanted, then have that print's output be assigned to another variable via $(...) syntax. Admittedly a bit of a hack, but I don't want to source the entire sub-script in the batch script's environment because I only need one of its variables. The typeset -r code in the beginning is the error. The script I'm sourcing contains this in order to provide a semaphore of sorts--to prevent the script from being sourced more than once in the environment. (There is an if statement in the real script that checks for _typeset_var = 1, and exits if it is already set.) So I know I can take this out and get $DIR to print fine, but the constraints of the problem include keeping the typeset -i -r. In the example script I put an unset in first, to ensure _typeset_var isn't already defined. By the way I do know that it is not possible to unset a typeset -r variable, according to ksh93's man page for ksh. There are ways to code around this error. The favorite now is to not use typeset, but just set the semaphore without typeset (e.g. _typeset_var=1), but the error with the code as-is remains as a curiosity to me, and I want to see if anyone can explain why this is happening. By the way, another idea I abandoned was to grep the variable I need out of its containing script, then print that one variable for $A to be set to; however, the variable ($DIR in the example above) might be set to another variable's value (e.g. DIR=$dom/init), and that other variable might be defined earlier in the script; therefore, I need to source the entire script to make sure I all variables are defined so that $DIR is correctly defined when sourcing.

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  • Generated LinqtoSql Sql 5x slower than SAME EXACT hand-written sql

    - by JasonM
    I have a sql statement which is hardcoded in an existing VB6 app. I'm upgrading a new version in C# and using Linq To Sql. I was able to get LinqToSql to generate the same sql (before I start refactoring), but for some reason the Sql generated by LinqToSql is 5x slower than the original sql. This is running the generated Sql Directly in LinqPad. The only real difference my meager sql eyes can spot is the WITH (NOLOCK), which if I add into the LinqToSql generated sql, makes no difference. Can someone point out what I'm doing wrong here? Thanks! Existing Hard Coded Sql (5.0 Seconds) SELECT DISTINCT CH.ClaimNum, CH.AcnProvID, CH.AcnPatID, CH.TinNum, CH.Diag1, CH.GroupNum, CH.AllowedTotal FROM Claims.dbo.T_ClaimsHeader AS CH WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE CH.ContractID IN ('123A','123B','123C','123D','123E','123F','123G','123H') AND ( ( (CH.Transmited Is Null or CH.Transmited = '') AND CH.DateTransmit Is Null AND CH.EobDate Is Null AND CH.ProcessFlag IN ('Y','E') AND CH.DataSource NOT IN ('A','EC','EU') AND CH.AllowedTotal > 0 ) ) ORDER BY CH.AcnPatID, CH.ClaimNum Generated Sql from LinqToSql (27.6 Seconds) -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 NVarChar(4) SET @p0 = '123A' DECLARE @p1 NVarChar(4) SET @p1 = '123B' DECLARE @p2 NVarChar(4) SET @p2 = '123C' DECLARE @p3 NVarChar(4) SET @p3 = '123D' DECLARE @p4 NVarChar(4) SET @p4 = '123E' DECLARE @p5 NVarChar(4) SET @p5 = '123F' DECLARE @p6 NVarChar(4) SET @p6 = '123G' DECLARE @p7 NVarChar(4) SET @p7 = '123H' DECLARE @p8 VarChar(1) SET @p8 = '' DECLARE @p9 NVarChar(1) SET @p9 = 'Y' DECLARE @p10 NVarChar(1) SET @p10 = 'E' DECLARE @p11 NVarChar(1) SET @p11 = 'A' DECLARE @p12 NVarChar(2) SET @p12 = 'EC' DECLARE @p13 NVarChar(2) SET @p13 = 'EU' DECLARE @p14 Decimal(5,4) SET @p14 = 0 -- EndRegion SELECT DISTINCT [t0].[ClaimNum], [t0].[acnprovid] AS [AcnProvID], [t0].[acnpatid] AS [AcnPatID], [t0].[tinnum] AS [TinNum], [t0].[diag1] AS [Diag1], [t0].[GroupNum], [t0].[allowedtotal] AS [AllowedTotal] FROM [Claims].[dbo].[T_ClaimsHeader] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[contractid] IN (@p0, @p1, @p2, @p3, @p4, @p5, @p6, @p7)) AND (([t0].[Transmited] IS NULL) OR ([t0].[Transmited] = @p8)) AND ([t0].[DATETRANSMIT] IS NULL) AND ([t0].[EOBDATE] IS NULL) AND ([t0].[PROCESSFLAG] IN (@p9, @p10)) AND (NOT ([t0].[DataSource] IN (@p11, @p12, @p13))) AND ([t0].[allowedtotal] > @p14) ORDER BY [t0].[acnpatid], [t0].[ClaimNum] New LinqToSql Code (30+ seconds... Times out ) var contractIds = T_ContractDatas.Where(x => x.EdiSubmissionGroupID == "123-01").Select(x => x.CONTRACTID).ToList(); var processFlags = new List<string> {"Y","E"}; var dataSource = new List<string> {"A","EC","EU"}; var results = (from claims in T_ClaimsHeaders where contractIds.Contains(claims.contractid) && (claims.Transmited == null || claims.Transmited == string.Empty ) && claims.DATETRANSMIT == null && claims.EOBDATE == null && processFlags.Contains(claims.PROCESSFLAG) && !dataSource.Contains(claims.DataSource) && claims.allowedtotal > 0 select new { ClaimNum = claims.ClaimNum, AcnProvID = claims.acnprovid, AcnPatID = claims.acnpatid, TinNum = claims.tinnum, Diag1 = claims.diag1, GroupNum = claims.GroupNum, AllowedTotal = claims.allowedtotal }).OrderBy(x => x.ClaimNum).OrderBy(x => x.AcnPatID).Distinct(); I'm using the list of constants above to make LinqToSql Generate IN ('xxx','xxx',etc) Otherwise it uses subqueries which are just as slow...

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