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  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

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  • IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

    - by Iain Collins
    I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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  • show-hide image onmouseover

    - by butters
    I have 3 images on top of each other. The first one is a normal .jpg image, the second a greyscale version and the 3rd is some kind of effect i add with a transparent .png Now what i want is that, if i move the mouse over those images, the greyscale image is hidden or replaced by another image and afterwards visible again. The problem here is that i am a js noob, so it's kind of hard for me to find a solution ^^ my code looks something like this: <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> <!-- ul li{ display: inline-table; } .frame{ position: relative; height: 110px; width: 110px; } .frame div{ position: absolute; top:0px; left:0px; } .effect{ background:url(images/effect.png) no-repeat; height:110px; width: 110px; } .image{ height:100px; width:100px; border: 1px solid red; margin:4px; } .greyscale{ height:100px; width:100px; border: 1px solid red; margin:4px; } --> </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li> <div class="frame"> <div class="image"><img src="images/pic1.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="greyscale"><img src="images/grey1.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="effect">qwert</div> </div> </li> <li> <div class="frame"> <div class="image"><img src="images/pic2.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="greyscale"><img src="images/grey2.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="effect">qewrt</div> </div> </li> </ul> </body> </html> </code></pre> would be super-awesome if someone can help me out :)

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  • ajaxSubmit options success & error functions aren't fired

    - by Thommy Tomka
    jQuery 1.7.2 jQuery Validate 1.1.0 jQuery Form 3.18 Wordpress 3.4.2 I am trying to code a contact/ mail form in above environment/ with above jQuery libs. Now I am having a problem with the jQuery Form JS: I have taken the original code from the developers page for ajaxSubmit and only altered the target option to an ID which exists in my HTML source and replaced $ with jQuery in function showRequest. The problem is, that the function namend after success: does not fire. I tried the same with error: and again nothing fired. Only complete: did and the function I placed there alerted the responseText from the receiving script. Does anyone has an idea whats going wrong? Thanks in advance! Thomas jQuery(document).ready(function() { var options = { target: '#mail-status', // target element(s) to be updated with server response beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: type // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) //clearForm: true // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: //timeout: 3000 }; jQuery("#mailform").validate( { submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery(form).ajaxSubmit(options); }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { }, rules: { author: { minlength: 2, required: true }, email: { required: true, email: true }, comment: { minlength: 2, required: true } }, highlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).addClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass("e"); }, unhighlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).removeClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass("e"); } }); }); // pre-submit callback function showRequest(formData, jqForm, options) { // formData is an array; here we use $.param to convert it to a string to display it // but the form plugin does this for you automatically when it submits the data var queryString = jQuery.param(formData); // jqForm is a jQuery object encapsulating the form element. To access the // DOM element for the form do this: // var formElement = jqForm[0]; alert('About to submit: \n\n' + queryString); // here we could return false to prevent the form from being submitted; // returning anything other than false will allow the form submit to continue return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { // for normal html responses, the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseText property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'xml' then the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseXML property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'json' then the first argument to the success callback // is the json data object returned by the server alert('status: ' + statusText + '\n\nresponseText: \n' + responseText + '\n\nThe output div should have already been updated with the responseText.'); }

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  • Custom Tag implementation issue

    - by Appps
    I have a custom tag as follows. repeat and heading tag have doAfterBody method implemented. <csajsp:repeat reps="5"> <LI> <csajsp:heading bgColor="BLACK"> White on Black Heading </csajsp:heading> </LI> </csajsp:repeat> /* Repeat tag Class*/ public void setReps(String repeats) { System.out.println("TESTING"+repeats); //sets the reps variable. } public int doAfterBody() { System.out.println("Inside repeate tag"+reps); if (reps-- >= 1) { BodyContent body = getBodyContent(); try { JspWriter out = body.getEnclosingWriter(); System.out.println("BODY"+body.getString()); out.println(body.getString()); body.clearBody(); // Clear for next evaluation } catch(IOException ioe) { System.out.println("Error in RepeatTag: " + ioe); } return(EVAL_BODY_TAG); } else { return(SKIP_BODY); } } /* Class of Heading tag */ public int doAfterBody() { System.out.println("inside heading tag"); BodyContent body = getBodyContent(); System.out.println(body.getString()); try { JspWriter out = body.getEnclosingWriter(); out.print("NEW TEXT"); } catch(IOException ioe) { System.out.println("Error in FilterTag: " + ioe); } // SKIP_BODY means I'm done. If I wanted to evaluate // and handle the body again, I'd return EVAL_BODY_TAG. return(SKIP_BODY); } public int doEndTag() { try { JspWriter out = pageContext.getOut(); out.print("NEW TEXT 2"); } catch(IOException ioe) { System.out.println("Error in HeadingTag: " + ioe); } return(EVAL_PAGE); // Continue with rest of JSP page } The order in which SOP are printed is 1) Setter method of csajsp:repeat is called. 2) White on Black Heading is printed. ie doAfterBody of csajsp:heading tag is called. I don't know why it is not calling doAfterBody of csajsp:repeat tag. Please help me to understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • Problem in databinding a dictionary in ListView combo-box column.

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a listview of which itemsource is set to my custom collection, let's say MyCollection. The code below is not full code , it's just a code snippets to explain the problem. class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { Options _options; public Options OptionProp { get { return _options; } set { _options = value; OnPropertyChanged ("OptionProp");} } string _Name; public string NameProp { get { return _Name; } set { _Name = value; OnPropertyChanged ("NameProp");} } } class Options : Dictionary<string,string> { public Options() { this.Clear(); this.Add("One" , "1" ); this.Add("Two" , "2" ); this.Add("Three" , "3" ); } } MyCollection in my viewModel class viewModel { ObservableCollection<Item> **MyCollection**; KeyValuePair<sting,string> **SelectedOption**; } The listview Item Source is set to my MyCollection. <ListView ItemSource = MyCollectoin> I Listview contains two columns of which I have defined a datatemplats in the listview. First column is a combo-box of which Itemsource is set to Options ( defined above ) Second column is a simple textblock to display Name. Problem 1. I have defined a datatemplate for first column in which I have a combo box , I have set the Itemsource =**MyCollection** and SelectedItem = SelectedOption of the combo-box. User can perform following operations in the listview: Add ( Add the row in the listview ) Move Up ( Move row up in the listview ) Move Down ( Move down the item in the listview ) .Now when I add the row in the listview , the combo-box selected index is always comes to -1 (first column). However the combo box contains options One, Two and Three. Also, I have initialized the SelectedOption to contain the first item, i:e One. problem 2. . Let suppose, I have added a single row in a listview and I have selected Option "one" in the combo box manually. Now when I perform Move Up or Move Down operations the selected index of a combo box is again set to -1. In the Move Up or Move Down operation , I am calling MoveUp and MoveDown methods of the Observable collection. Probelm 3 How to serialize the entire collection in XML. Since I can't serialize the Dictionary and KeyValue Pair. I have to restore the state of the listview.

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  • JAVA - Strange problem (probably thread problem) with JTable & Model

    - by Stefanos Kargas
    I am using 2 Tables (JTable) with their DefaultTableModels. The first table is already populated. The second table is populated for each row of the first table (using an SQL Query). My purpose is to export every line of the first table with it's respective lines of the second in an Excel File. I am doing it with a for (for each line of 1st table), in which I write a line of the 1st table in the Excel File, then I populate the 2nd table (for this line of 1st Table), I get every line from the Table (from it's Model actually) and put it in the Excel File under the current line of 1st table. This means that if I have n lines in first table I will clear and populate again the second table n times. All this code is called in a seperate thread. THE PROBLEM IS: Everything works perfectly fine ecxept that I am getting some exceptions. The strange thing is that I'm not getting anything false in my result. The Excel file is perfect. Some of the lines of the exceptions are: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 0 = 0 at java.util.Vector.elementAt(Vector.java:427) at javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel.getValueAt(DefaultTableModel.java:632) at javax.swing.JComponent.paint(JComponent.java:1017) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paint(RepaintManager.java:1220) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(RepaintManager.java:803) I am assuming that the problem lies in the fact that the second table needs some more time to be populated before I try to get any data from it. That's why I see RepaintManager and paintDirtyRegions in my exceptions. Another thing I did is that I ran my program in debug mode and I put a breakpoint after each population of the 2nd table. Then I pressed F5 to continue for each population of 2nd table and no exception appeared. The program came to it's end without any exceptions. This is another important fact that tells me that maybe in this case I gave the table enough time to be populated. Of course you will ask me: If your program works fine, why do you care about the exceptions? I care for avoiding any future problems and I care to have a better understanding of Java and Java GUI and threads. Why do you depend on a GUI component (and it's model) to get your information and why don't you recreate the resultset that populates your tables using an SQL Query and get your info from the resultset? That would be the best and the right way. The fact is that I have the tables code ready and it was easier for me to just get the info from them. But the right way would be to get everything direct from database. Anyway what I did brought out my question, and answering it would help me understand more things about java. So I posted it.

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  • Contact form problem - I do receive messages, but no contents (blank page).

    - by nitbuntu
    I have a contact form on site which used to work, but since last few months has stopped working properly. This could have been due to some coding error that I can't figure out. What happens is that I receive the messages sent, but they are completely blank, with no contents at all. What could be the problems? I'm attaching first the front-end page, and then the back-end. Sample of contact.php the front-end code:- <div id="content"> <h2 class="newitemsxl">Contact Us</h2> <div id="contactcontent"> <form method="post" action="contactus.php"> Name:<br /> <input type="text" name="Name" /><br /> Email:<br /> <input type="text" name="replyemail" /><br /> Your message:<br /> <textarea name="comments" cols="40" rows="4"></textarea><br /><br /> <?php require("ClassMathGuard.php"); MathGuard::insertQuestion(); ?><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Send" /> * Refresh browser for a different question. :-) </form> </div> </div> Sample of contactus.php (backend code):- <?php /* first we need to require our MathGuard class */ require ("ClassMathGuard.php"); /* this condition checks the user input. Don't change the condition, just the body within the curly braces */ if (MathGuard :: checkResult($_REQUEST['mathguard_answer'], $_REQUEST['mathguard_code'])) { $mailto="[email protected]"; $pcount=0; $gcount=0; $subject = "A Stylish Goods Enquiry"; $from="[email protected]"; echo ("Great, you're message has been sent !"); //insert your code that will be executed when user enters the correct answer } else { echo ("Sorry, wrong answer, please go back and try again !"); //insert your code which tells the user he is spamming your website } while (list($key,$val)=each($HTTP_POST_VARS)) { $pstr = $pstr."$key : $val \n "; ++$pcount; } while (list($key,$val)=each($HTTP_GET_VARS)) { $gstr = $gstr."$key : $val \n "; ++$gcount; } if ($pcount > $gcount) { $comments=$pstr; mail($mailto,$subject,$comments,"From:".$from); } else { $comments=$gstr; mail($mailto,$subject,$comments,"From:".$from); } ?>

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  • creating a JQuery function

    - by Russell Parrott
    Sorry to bother you guys & girls again on Christmas eve, but I need help creating a reusable JQuery function. I have "badly crafted" this set of code that all works. But I would really like to put it as a function so I don't have to keep repeating everything for each form. I am not too sure about how all the if statements can be combined etc. that is why I wrote it as it is. Any help much appreciated - Oh I suppose it could also be some kind of plugin but that might be the next step if I can understand how the function works. $(':input:visible').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('required')) { if($(this).val() == '' ) { $(this).css({'background-color':'#FFEEEE' }); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).next('.errormsg').html('OOPs ... '+$(this).prev('label').html()+' is required'); $(this).focus(); $(this).attr('placeholder').hide(); } else { $(this).css({'background-color':'#FFF' , 'border-color':'#999999'}); $(this).next('.errormsg').empty(); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').show(); } } return false; }); $(':input[max]').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('max') < parseInt($(this).val()) ){ $(this).next('.errormsg').html( 'OOPs ... the maximum value is '+$(this).attr('max') ); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).focus(); } else {} return false; }); $(':input[min]').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('min') > parseInt($(this).val()) ){ $(this).next('.errormsg').html( 'OOPs ... the minimum value is '+$(this).attr('min') ); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).focus(); } else {} return false; }); $(':input[maxlength]').live('keyup',function(){ if($(this).val()==''){ } else { $(this).next('.errormsg').html( $(this).attr('maxlength')- $(this).val().length +' chars remaining'); } return false; }); As said, help much appreciated with one small (I hope) thing, how can I break out of any function IF there are no error messages to actually submit the form?

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  • How to properly downcast in C# with a SWIG generated interface?

    - by JG
    I've got a very large and mature C++ code base that I'm trying to use SWIG on to generate a C# interface for. I cannot change the actual C++ code itself but we can use whatever SWIG offers in the way of extending/updating it. I'm facing an issue where a function C++ is written as such: A* SomeClass::next(A*) The caller might do something like: A* acurr = 0; while( (acurr = sc->next(acurr)) != 0 ){ if( acurr isoftype B ){ B* b = (B*)a; ...do some stuff with b.. } elseif( acurr isoftype C ) ... } Essentially, iterating through a container elements that depending on their true type, do something different. The SWIG generated C# layer for the "next" function unfortunately does the following: return new A(); So the calling code in C# land cannot determine if the returned object is actually a derived class or not, it actually appears to always be the base class (which does make sense). I've come across several solutions: Use the %extend SWIG keyword to add a method on an object and ultimately call dynamic_cast. The downside to this approach, as I see it, is that this requires you to know the inheritance hierarchy. In my case it is rather huge and I see this is as a maintenance issue. Use the %factory keyword to supply the method and the derived types and have SWIG automatically generate the dynamic_cast code. This appears to be a better solution that the first, however upon a deeper look it still requires you to hunt down all the methods and all the possible derived types it could return. Again, a huge maintenance issue. I wish I had a doc link for this but I can't find one. I found out about this functionality by looking through the example code that comes with SWIG. Create a C# method to create an instance of the derived object and transfer the cPtr to the new instance. While I consider this clumsy, it does work. See an example below. public static object castTo(object fromObj, Type toType) { object retval = null; BaseClass fromObj2 = fromObj as BaseClass; HandleRef hr = BaseClass.getCPtr(fromObj2); IntPtr cPtr = hr.Handle; object toObj = Activator.CreateInstance(toType, cPtr, false); // make sure it actually is what we think it is if (fromObj.GetType().IsInstanceOfType(toObj)) { return toObj; } return retval; } Are these really the options? And if I'm not willing to dig through all the existing functions and class derivations, then I'm left with #3? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How can I have a Makefile automatically rebuild source files that include a modified header file? (I

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I have the following makefile that I use to build a program (a kernel, actually) that I'm working on. Its from scratch and I'm learning about the process, so its not perfect, but I think its powerful enough at this point for my level of experience writing makefiles. AS = nasm CC = gcc LD = ld TARGET = core BUILD = build SOURCES = source INCLUDE = include ASM = assembly VPATH = $(SOURCES) CFLAGS = -Wall -O -fstrength-reduce -fomit-frame-pointer -finline-functions \ -nostdinc -fno-builtin -I $(INCLUDE) ASFLAGS = -f elf #CFILES = core.c consoleio.c system.c CFILES = $(foreach dir,$(SOURCES),$(notdir $(wildcard $(dir)/*.c))) SFILES = assembly/start.asm SOBJS = $(SFILES:.asm=.o) COBJS = $(CFILES:.c=.o) OBJS = $(SOBJS) $(COBJS) build : $(TARGET).img $(TARGET).img : $(TARGET).elf c:/python26/python.exe concat.py stage1 stage2 pad.bin core.elf floppy.img $(TARGET).elf : $(OBJS) $(LD) -T link.ld -o $@ $^ $(SOBJS) : $(SFILES) $(AS) $(ASFLAGS) $< -o $@ %.o: %.c @echo Compiling $<... $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -c -o $@ $< #Clean Script - Should clear out all .o files everywhere and all that. clean: -del *.img -del *.o -del assembly\*.o -del core.elf My main issue with this makefile is that when I modify a header file that one or more C files include, the C files aren't rebuilt. I can fix this quite easily by having all of my header files be dependencies for all of my C files, but that would effectively cause a complete rebuild of the project any time I changed/added a header file, which would not be very graceful. What I want is for only the C files that include the header file I change to be rebuilt, and for the entire project to be linked again. I can do the linking by causing all header files to be dependencies of the target, but I cannot figure out how to make the C files be invalidated when their included header files are newer. I've heard that GCC has some commands to make this possible (so the makefile can somehow figure out which files need to be rebuilt) but I can't for the life of me find an actual implementation example to look at. Can someone post a solution that will enable this behavior in a makefile? EDIT: I should clarify, I'm familiar with the concept of putting the individual targets in and having each target.o require the header files. That requires me to be editing the makefile every time I include a header file somewhere, which is a bit of a pain. I'm looking for a solution that can derive the header file dependencies on its own, which I'm fairly certain I've seen in other projects.

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  • Move options between multiple lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. EDIT: Having now actually sat down to try to code the non-javascripty bits, I need to revise my question, because I realized that multiple select lists won't really work from the "how do I inform the server about all this lovely new information" standpoint. So the html code is now a pseudo-listbox, i.e. an unordered list (ul) displayed in a box with a scrollbar, and each list item (<li>) has a set of five radio buttons (unselected/own/read/like/heard). My task is still roughly the same: how to take this one list and make it easy to categorize the items, in such a way that the user can tell at a glance what is in what category. (The pseudo-listbox has some of the same disadvantages as a multi-select listbox, namely it's hard to tell what's selected if the list is long enough to scroll.) The dream solution would be a drag-and-drop type thing, but at this point even buttons would be OK. Another modification (a good one) is that the client has revised the lists, so the longest is now "only" 62 items long (instead of the many hundreds they had before). The categories will still mostly contain zero, one, or two selected items, possibly a couple more if the user was overzealous. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :) [existing code deleted because it's largely irrelevant.]

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • Why are static classes considered “classes” and “reference types”?

    - by Timwi
    I’ve been pondering about the C# and CIL type system today and I’ve started to wonder why static classes are considered classes. There are many ways in which they are not really classes: A “normal” class can contain non-static members, a static class can’t. In this respect, a class is more similar to a struct than it is to a static class, and yet structs have a separate name. You can have a reference to an instance of a “normal” class, but not a static class (despite it being considered a “reference type”). In this respect, a class is more similar to an interface than it is to a static class, and yet interfaces have a separate name. The name of a static class can never be used in any place where a type name would normally fit: you can’t declare a variable of this type, you can’t use it as a base type, and you can’t use it as a generic type parameter. In this respect, static classes are somewhat more like namespaces. A “normal” class can implement interfaces. Once again, that makes classes more similar to structs than to static classes. A “normal” class can inherit from another class. It is also bizarre that static classes are considered to derive from System.Object. Although this allows them to “inherit” the static methods Equals and ReferenceEquals, the purpose of that inheritance is questionable as you would call those methods on object anyway. C# even allows you to specify that useless inheritance explicitly on static classes, but not on interfaces or structs, where the implicit derivation from object and System.ValueType, respectively, actually has a purpose. Regarding the subset-of-features argument: Static classes have a subset of the features of classes, but they also have a subset of the features of structs. All of the things that make a class distinct from the other kinds of type, do not seem to apply to static classes. Regarding the typeof argument: Making a static class into a new and different kind of type does not preclude it from being used in typeof. Given the sheer oddity of static classes, and the scarcity of similarities between them and “normal” classes, shouldn’t they have been made into a separate kind of type instead of a special kind of class?

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  • Function Point Analysis -- a seriously overestimating technique?

    - by kizzx2
    I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week (I"m not even saying weekend) to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

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  • Why does my entire page reload in Chrome and Firefox when using asynchronous UpdatePanel postbacks?

    - by Alex
    Being a bit perplexed about this issue by now, I hope some of you gurus can shed some light on my problem... I've developed a AJAX-enhanced website, which has been running fine in IE, Chrome and Firefox for a year or so. I use a Timer-control to check for incoming messages every 30 seconds, and this updates an UpdatePanel showing potential new messages. Now several one of my Firefox users complain about the page refreshing every 30 seconds! I my self cannot reproduce this behaviour, but given the "30 seconds"-description, I cursed my Timer-solution as the culprit. But now, I'm experiencing this error myself, not in Firefox though, but in Google Chrome! (And only on one of my two computers!) Every 30 seconds the page reloads! But I found that it's not only related to the Timer, because all other asynchronous postbacks to the server within UpdatePanels reloads the entire page as well. This error has never been experienced in Internet Explorer (to my knowledge). As I said, this it not only related to the Timer postback, but if it's of interest to anybody the code is like this: <asp:Timer runat="server" ID="MailCheckTimer" Interval="30000" OnTick="MailChecker_Tick"></asp:Timer> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="MailCheckerUpdatePanel" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <div class="newmail_box" runat="server" id="newmail_box"> <!-- Content stripped for this example --> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="MailCheckTimer" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In other places of the website I call the client side __doPostBack function directly from JavaScript in relation to an UpdatePanel. Normal behaviour for this call is to updated the referenced UpdatePanel with some content, but now in Chrome this refreshes the entire page! (but again not consistently, and never in IE) Even the most fundamental UpdatePanel operations like refreshing the content after a button (inside the panel) is clicked, forces the page to reload completely: <asp:Button ID="btnSearch" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="btnSearch_Click"></asp:Button> And just to torment me further, I only experience this on my public website, and not in my local development environment, making it a tedious affair for me to find the actual cause! :( Any ideas on why this happens? Why so inconsistently? Has it to do with my UpdatePanel-design? Or does some security setting in Firefox/Chrome that prevent some asynchronous UpdatePanel callbacks? Any help or idea is highly appreciated!

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  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

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  • importing modules in app engine

    - by tanky
    Ive asked this before, but it seems i wasnt clear/detailed enough and after a week of trying im still struggling so i will try again. i am trying to use, oauth2 and ply on app engine. i have tried copying their directories into my app engine project directory (in the form ply-3.4 or brosner-python-oauth2-82a05f9) and i have tried copying the specific sub directory contained within the aforemention one. (ply or oauth2) i have tried saying import oauth2, from brosner-oauth2_python-82a05f9 import oauth and other variations on the theme, but i still cant get it to work nothing has worked. i have tried including them in app.yaml, but that seemed to create an even bigger error as my entire project wouldnt even run when i tried that. and now i have run out of things to try. the error log i am getting is as follows. INFO 2012-10-20 22:33:29,358 dev_appserver.py:2884] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 500 - WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\oauth2-1.0.2-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\oauth2-1.0.2-py2.7.egg' WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\ply-3.4-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\ply-3.4-py2.7.egg' WARNING 2012-10-20 22:33:58,453 py_zipimport.py:139] Can't open zipfile C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\tweepy-1.11-py2.7.egg: IOError: [Errno 13] file not accessible: 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\tweepy-1.11-py2.7.egg' ERROR 2012-10-20 22:34:00,015 wsgi.py:189] Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 225, in _LoadHandler handler = import(path[0]) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1850, in load_module return self.FindAndLoadModule(submodule, fullname, search_path) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1722, in FindAndLoadModule description) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 676, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver_import_hook.py", line 1665, in LoadModuleRestricted description) File "C:\Documents and Settings\ladds\My Documents\udacity\sigh\main.py", line 3, in import ply ImportError: No module named ply INFO 2012-10-20 22:34:00,030 dev_appserver.py:2884] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 500 - thanks for any help.

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  • Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

    - by RabidFire
    Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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  • What are the weaknesses of this user authentication method?

    - by byronh
    I'm developing my own PHP framework. It seems all the security articles I have read use vastly different methods for user authentication than I do so I could use some help in finding security holes. Some information that might be useful before I start. I use mod_rewrite for my MVC url's. Passwords are sha1 and md5 encrypted with 24 character salt unique to each user. mysql_real_escape_string and/or variable typecasting on everything going in, and htmlspecialchars on everything coming out. Step-by step process: Top of every page: session_start(); session_regenerate_id(); If user logs in via login form, generate new random token to put in user's MySQL row. Hash is generated based on user's salt (from when they first registered) and the new token. Store the hash and plaintext username in session variables, and duplicate in cookies if 'Remember me' is checked. On every page, check for cookies. If cookies set, copy their values into session variables. Then compare $_SESSION['name'] and $_SESSION['hash'] against MySQL database. Destroy all cookies and session variables if they don't match so they have to log in again. If login is valid, some of the user's information from the MySQL database is stored in an array for easy access. So far, I've assumed that this array is clean so when limiting user access I refer to user.rank and deny access if it's below what's required for that page. I've tried to test all the common attacks like XSS and CSRF, but maybe I'm just not good enough at hacking my own site! My system seems way too simple for it to actually be secure (the security code is only 100 lines long). What am I missing? I've also spent alot of time searching for the vulnerabilities with mysql_real_escape string but I haven't found any information that is up-to-date (everything is from several years ago at least and has apparently been fixed). All I know is that the problem was something to do with encoding. If that problem still exists today, how can I avoid it? Any help will be much appreciated.

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  • Stuck at being unable to print a substring no more than 4679 characters

    - by Newcoder
    I have a program that does string manipulation on very large strings (around 100K). The first step in my program is to cleanup the input string so that it only contains certain characters. Here is my method for this cleanup: public static String analyzeString (String input) { String output = null; output = input.replaceAll("[-+.^:,]",""); output = output.replaceAll("(\\r|\\n)", ""); output = output.toUpperCase(); output = output.replaceAll("[^XYZ]", ""); return output; } When i print my 'input' string of length 97498, it prints successfully. My output string after cleanup is of length 94788. I can print the size using output.length() but when I try to print this in Eclipse, output is empty and i can see in eclipse output console header. Since this is not my final program, so I ignored this and proceeded to next method that does pattern matching on this 'cleaned-up' string. Here is code for pattern matching: public static List<Integer> getIntervals(String input, String regex) { List<Integer> output = new ArrayList<Integer> (); // Do pattern matching Pattern p1 = Pattern.compile(regex); Matcher m1 = p1.matcher(input); // If match found while (m1.find()) { output.add(m1.start()); output.add(m1.end()); } return output; } Based on this program, i identify the start and end intervals of my pattern match as 12351 and 87314. I tried to print this match as output.substring(12351, 87314) and only get blank output. Numerous hit and trial runs resulted in the conclusion that biggest substring that i can print is of length 4679. If i try 4680, i again get blank input. My confusion is that if i was able to print original string (97498) length, why i couldnt print the cleaned-up string (length 94788) or the substring (length 4679). Is it due to regular expression implementation which may be causing some memory issues and my system is not able to handle that? I have 4GB installed memory.

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  • apt-get install fuse - MAKEDEV not installed, skipping device node creation

    - by holms
    This happened with command apt-get dist-upgrade to upgrade to debian jessie, after which I've tried to remove fuse, and install it again. Same error: root@msgapp:/dev# apt-get install fuse Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following NEW packages will be installed: fuse 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 0 B/69.9 kB of archives. After this operation, 191 kB of additional disk space will be used. Selecting previously unselected package fuse. (Reading database ... 39354 files and directories currently installed.) Preparing to unpack .../fuse_2.9.3-10_amd64.deb ... Unpacking fuse (2.9.3-10) ... Processing triggers for man-db (2.6.7.1-1) ... Setting up fuse (2.9.3-10) ... MAKEDEV not installed, skipping device node creation. device node not found dpkg: error processing package fuse (--configure): subprocess installed post-installation script returned error exit status 2 Errors were encountered while processing: fuse E: Sub-process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code (1) UPDATE Reinstalling makedev gives another problem: root@msgapp:/dev# apt-get install makedev Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following NEW packages will be installed: makedev 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 0 B/42.6 kB of archives. After this operation, 129 kB of additional disk space will be used. Selecting previously unselected package makedev. (Reading database ... 39347 files and directories currently installed.) Preparing to unpack .../makedev_2.3.1-93_all.deb ... Unpacking makedev (2.3.1-93) ... Processing triggers for man-db (2.6.7.1-1) ... ySetting up makedev (2.3.1-93) ... /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. There's ticket raised, and their fix doesn't give any result: root@msgapp:/dev# cd /dev && ./MAKEDEV fuse /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation.

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  • File Output using Gforth

    - by sheepez
    As a first project I have been writing a short program to render the Mandelbrot fractal. I have got to the point of trying to output my results to a file ( e.g. .bmp or .ppm ) and got stuck. I have not really found any examples of exactly what I am trying to do, but I have found two examples of code to copy from one file to another. The examples in the Gforth documentation ( Section 3.27 ) did not work for me ( winXP ) in fact they seemed to open and create files but not write to files properly. This is the Gforth documentation example that copies the contents of one file to another: 0 Value fd-in 0 Value fd-out : open-input ( addr u -- ) r/o open-file throw to fd-in ; : open-output ( addr u -- ) w/o create-file throw to fd-out ; s" foo.in" open-input s" foo.out" open-output : copy-file ( -- ) begin line-buffer max-line fd-in read-line throw while line-buffer swap fd-out write-line throw repeat ; I found this example ( http://rosettacode.org/wiki/File_IO#Forth ) which does work. The main problem is that I can't isolate the part that writes to a file and have it still work. The main confusion is that r doesn't seem to consume TOS as I might expect. : copy-file2 ( a1 n1 a2 n2 -- ) r/o open-file throw >r w/o create-file throw r> begin pad maxstring 2 pick read-file throw ?dup while pad swap 3 pick write-file throw repeat close-file throw close-file throw ; \ Invoke it like this: s" output.txt" s" input.txt" copy-file I would be very grateful if someone could explain exactly how the open, create read and write -file words actually work, as my investigation keeps resulting in somewhat bizarre stacks. Any clues as to why the Gforth examples do not work might help too. In summary, I want to output from Gforth to a file and so far have been thwarted. Can anyone offer any help? Thank you Vijay, I think that I understand the example that you gave. However when I try to use something like this ( which I think is similar ): 0 value test-file : write-test s" testfile.out" w/o create-file throw to test-file s" test text" test-file write-line ; I get ok but nothing is put into the file, have I made a mistake? It seems that the problem was due to not flushing the relevant buffers or explicitly closing the file. Adding something like test-file flush-file throw or test-file close-file throw between write-line and ; makes it work. Thanks again Vijay for helping.

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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