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• Advice on software / database design to avoid using cursors when updating database

  - by Remnant

  I have a database that logs when an employee has attended a course and when they are next due to attend the course (courses tend to be annual). As an example, the following employee attended course '1' on 1st Jan 2010 and, as the course is annual, is due to attend next on the 1st Jan 2011. As today is 20th May 2010 the course status reads as 'Complete' i.e. they have done the course and do not need to do it again until next year: EmployeeID CourseID AttendanceDate DueDate Status 123456 1 01/01/2010 01/01/2011 Complete In terms of the DueDate I calculate this in SQL when I update the employee's record e.g. DueDate = AttendanceDate + CourseFrequency (I pull course frequency this from a separate table). In my web based app (asp.net mvc) I pull back this data for all employees and display it in a grid like format for HR managers to review. This allows HR to work out who needs to go on courses. The issue I have is as follows. Taking the example above, suppose today is 2nd Jan 2011. In this case, employee 123456 is now overdue for the course and I would like to set the Status to Incomplete so that the HR manager can see that they need to action this i.e. get employee on the course. I could build a trigger in the database to run overnight to update the Status field for all employees based on the current date. From what I have read I would need to use cursors to loop over each row to amend the status and this is considered bad practice / inefficient or at least something to avoid if you can??? Alternatively, I could compute the Status in my C# code after I have pulled back the data from the database and before I display it on screen. The issue with this is that the Status in the database would not necessarily match what is shown on screen which just feels plain wrong to me. Does anybody have any advice on the best practice approach to such an issue? It helps, if I did use a cursor I doubt I would be looping over more than 1000 records at any given time. Maybe this is such small volume that using cursors is okay?

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• Unable to disable generation of sources JAR with maven-release-plugin

  - by Chris Lieb

  I am trying to release a web project using Maven 2.2.1 and the maven-release-plugin 2.0-beta-9, but it always fails when doing release:perform on generating the sources jar for the EAR project, which makes sense since the EAR project doesn't have any source. [INFO] [INFO] [source:jar {execution: attach-sources}] [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [INFO] Error creating source archive: You must set at least one file. To try to disable the building of a sources JAR for the EAR project, I added the following to the POM for my EAR project (the version of the release plugin is set in a parent POM): <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-release-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <useReleaseProfile>false</useReleaseProfile> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Upon running the release again after checking in this change, I got the same error while generating the sources JAR for the EAR project, even though this should have been disabled by the previous POM snippet. What am I doing wrong? Why is the sources JAR still being built? Edit: I've tried to make the source plugin include my application.xml file so that this error doesn't occur by adding the following POM snippet: <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-source-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <includes> <include>${basedir}/META-INF/**/*</include> </includes> <useDefaultExcludes>false</useDefaultExcludes> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Unfortunately, this does not fix the problem either.

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• ASP NET MVC (loading data from database)

  - by rah.deex

  hi experts, its me again... i have some code like this.. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MvcGridSample.Models { public class CustomerService { private List<SVC> Customers { get { List<SVC> customers; if (HttpContext.Current.Session["Customers"] != null) { customers = (List<SVC>) HttpContext.Current.Session["Customers"]; } else { //Create customer data store and save in session customers = new List<SVC>(); InitCustomerData(customers); HttpContext.Current.Session["Customers"] = customers; } return customers; } } public SVC GetByID(int customerID) { return this.Customers.AsQueryable().First(customer => customer.seq_ == customerID); } public IQueryable<SVC> GetQueryable() { return this.Customers.AsQueryable(); } public void Add(SVC customer) { this.Customers.Add(customer); } public void Update(SVC customer) { } public void Delete(int customerID) { this.Customers.RemoveAll(customer => customer.seq_ == customerID); } private void InitCustomerData(List<SVC> customers) { customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 1, FirstName = "John", LastName = "Doe", Phone = "1111111111", Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 5, DateOfLastOrder = DateTime.Parse("5/3/2007") }); customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 2, FirstName = "Jane", LastName = "Doe", Phone = "2222222222", Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 3, DateOfLastOrder = DateTime.Parse("4/5/2008") }); customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 3, FirstName = "John", LastName = "Smith", Phone = "3333333333", Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 25, DateOfLastOrder = DateTime.Parse("4/5/2000") }); customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 4, FirstName = "Eddie", LastName = "Murphy", Phone = "4444444444", Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 1, DateOfLastOrder = DateTime.Parse("4/5/2003") }); customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 5, FirstName = "Ziggie", LastName = "Ziggler", Phone = null, Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 0, DateOfLastOrder = null }); customers.Add(new SVC { ID = 6, FirstName = "Michael", LastName = "J", Phone = "666666666", Email = "[email protected]", OrdersPlaced = 5, DateOfLastOrder = DateTime.Parse("12/3/2007") }); } } } those codes is an example that i've got from the internet.. in that case, the data is created and saved in session before its shown.. the things that i want to ask is how if i want to load the data from table? i'am a newbie here.. please help :) thank b4 for advance..

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• More GCC link time issues: undefined reference to main

  - by vikramtheone

  Hi Guys, I'm writing software for a Cortex-A8 processor and I have to write some ARM assembly code to access specific registers. I'm making use of the gnu compilers and related tool chains, these tools are installed on the processor board(Freescale i.MX515) with Ubuntu. I make a connection to it from my host PC(Windows) using WinSCP and the PuTTY terminal. As usual I started with a simple C project having main.c and functions.s. I compile the main.c using GCC, assemble the functions.s using as and link the generated object files using once again GCC, but I get strange errors during this process. An important finding - Meanwhile, I found out that my assembly code may have some issues because when I individually assemble it using the command as -o functions.o functions.s and try running the generated functions.o using ./functions.o command, the bash shell is failing to recognize this file as an executable(on pressing tab functions.o is not getting selected/PuTTY is not highlighting the file). Can anyone suggest whats happening here? Are there any specific options I have to send, to GCC during the linking process? The errors I see are strange and beyond my understanding, I don't understand to what the GCC is referring. I'm pasting here the contents of main.c, functions.s, the Makefile and the list of errors. Help, please!!! Vikram main.c #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main(void) { puts("!!!Hello World!!!"); /* prints !!!Hello World!!! */ return EXIT_SUCCESS; } functions.s * Main program */ .equ STACK_TOP, 0x20000800 .text .global _start .syntax unified _start: .word STACK_TOP, start .type start, function start: movs r0, #10 movs r1, #0 .end Makefile all: hello hello: main.o functions.o gcc -o main.o functions.o main.o: main.c gcc -c -mcpu=cortex-a8 main.c functions.o: functions.s as -mcpu=cortex-a8 -o functions.o functions.s Errors ubuntu@ubuntu-desktop:~/Documents/Project/Others/helloworld$ make gcc -c -mcpu=cortex-a8 main.c as -mcpu=cortex-a8 -o functions.o functions.s gcc -o main.o functions.o functions.o: In function `_start': (.text+0x0): multiple definition of `_start' /usr/lib/gcc/arm-linux-gnueabi/4.3.3/../../../crt1.o:init.c:(.text+0x0): first defined here /usr/lib/gcc/arm-linux-gnueabi/4.3.3/../../../crt1.o: In function `_start': init.c:(.text+0x30): undefined reference to `main' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [hello] Error 1

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• Android - Start service on boot

  - by Gady

  From everything I've seen on Stack Exchange and elsewhere, I have everything set up correctly to start an IntentService when Android OS boots. Unfortunately it is not starting on boot, and I'm not getting any errors. Maybe the experts can help... Manifest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.phx.batterylogger" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" android:installLocation="internalOnly"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="8" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.RECEIVE_BOOT_COMPLETED" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.BATTERY_STATS" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <service android:name=".BatteryLogger"/> <receiver android:name=".StartupIntentReceiver"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BOOT_COMPLETED" /> </intent-filter> </receiver> </application> </manifest> BroadcastReceiver for Startup: package com.phx.batterylogger; import android.content.BroadcastReceiver; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; public class StartupIntentReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Intent serviceIntent = new Intent(context, BatteryLogger.class); context.startService(serviceIntent); } } UPDATE: I tried just about all of the suggestions below, and I added logging such as Log.v("BatteryLogger", "Got to onReceive, about to start service"); to the onReceive handler of the StartupIntentReceiver, and nothing is ever logged. So it isn't even making it to the BroadcastReceiver. I think I'm deploying the APK and testing correctly, just running Debug in Eclipse and the console says it successfully installs it to my Xoom tablet at \BatteryLogger\bin\BatteryLogger.apk. Then to test, I reboot the tablet and then look at the logs in DDMS and check the Running Services in the OS settings. Does this all sound correct, or am I missing something? Again, any help is much appreciated.

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• .NET: Avoidance of custom exceptions by utilising existing types, but which?

  - by Mr. Disappointment

  Consider the following code (ASP.NET/C#): private void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!SetupHelper.SetUp()) { throw new ShitHitFanException(); } } I've never been too hesitant to simply roll my own exception type, basically because I have found (bad practice, or not) that mostly a reasonable descriptive type name gives us enough as developers to go by in order to know what happened and why something might have happened. Sometimes the existing .NET exception types even accommodate these needs - regardless of the message. In this particular scenario, for demonstration purposes only, the application should die a horrible, disgraceful death should SetUp not complete properly (as dictated by its return value), but I can't find an already existing exception type in .NET which would seem to suffice; though, I'm sure one will be there and I simply don't know about it. Brad Abrams posted this article that lists some of the available exception types. I say some because the article is from 2005, and, although I try to keep up to date, it's a more than plausible assumption that more have been added to future framework versions that I am still unaware of. Of course, Visual Studio gives you a nicely formatted, scrollable list of exceptions via Intellisense - but even on analysing those, I find none which would seem to suffice for this situation... ApplicationException: ...when a non-fatal application error occurs The name seems reasonable, but the error is very definitely fatal - the app is dead. ExecutionEngineException: ...when there is an internal error in the execution engine of the CLR Again, sounds reasonable, superficially; but this has a very definite purpose and to help me out here certainly isn't it. HttpApplicationException: ...when there is an error processing an HTTP request Well, we're running an ASP.NET application! But we're also just pulling at straws here. InvalidOperationException: ...when a call is invalid for the current state of an instance This isn't right but I'm adding it to the list of 'possible should you put a gun to my head, yes'. OperationCanceledException: ...upon cancellation of an operation the thread was executing Maybe I wouldn't feel so bad using this one, but I'd still be hijacking the damn thing with little right. You might even ask why on earth I would want to raise an exception here but the idea is to find out that if I were to do so then do you know of an appropriate exception for such a scenario? And basically, to what extent can we piggy-back on .NET while keeping in line with rationality?

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• AD - DirectoryServices: VBNET2.0 - Speaking architecture...

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I've been mandated to write an application to migrate the Active Directory access models to another environment. Here's the context: I'm stuck with VB.NET 2005 and .NET Framework 2.0; The application must use the Windows authenticated user to manage AD; The objects I have to handle are Groups, Users and OrganizationalUnits; I intend to use the Façade design pattern to provider ease of use and a fully reusable code; I plan to write a factory for each of the objects managed (group, ou, user); The use of Attributes should be useful here, I guess; As everything is about the DirectoryEntry class when accessing the AD, it seems a good candidate for generic types. Obligatory features: User creates new OUs manually; User creates new group manually; User creates new user (these users are services accounts) manually; Application reads an XML file which contains the OUs, groups and users to create; Application informs the user about the OUs, groups and users that shall be created; User specifies the domain environment where to migrate the XML input file designated objects; User makes changes if needed, and launches the task operations; Application performs required by the XML input file operations against the underlying AD as specified by the user; Application informs the user upon completion. Linear features: User fetches OUs, groups, users; User changes OUs, groups, users; User deletes OUs, groups, users; The application logs AD entries and operations performed, plus errors and exceptions; Nice-to-have features: Application rollbacks operations on error or exception. I've been working for weeks now to get acquainted with the AD and the System.DirectoryServices assembly. But I don't seem to find a way to be fully satisfied with what I'm doing and always looking for better. I have studied Bret de Smet's Linq to AD on CodePlex, but then again, I can't use it as I'm stuck with .NET 2.0, so no Linq! But I've learned about Attributes, and seen that he's working with generic types as he codes a DirectorySource class to perform the operations for OUs, groups and users. Any suggestions? Thanks for any help, code sample, ideas, architural solution, everything!

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• Impersonation on Windows 2000 to Windows XP Leaves Connections Open

  - by Tallek

  I'm running on a Windows 2000 Pro SP4 box (off domain) and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box (on domain). I'm using code very similar to the WindowsImpersonationContextFacade in the question posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/879704/how-can-i-temporarily-impersonate-a-user-to-open-a-file. I am using impersonation to remotely start and stop windows services as well as access network shares (for some automated integration tests). To get this working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. Everything worked beautifully ( Windows XP on domain to Windows XP on domain, Windows XP on domain to Windows Server 2003 off domain, and even Windows XP on domain to Windows 2000 off domain). The one issue was running on Windows 2000 Pro SP4 off the domain and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box running on the domain. To get the Windows 2000 piece working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50 and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. This seemed to get me 95% of the way there, i could now impersonate the local user on the XP box and start/stop services as well as access a network share using the impersonated credentials. I'm running in to one problem though, calling Undo impersonation and closing the token handle seems to leave the connection to the remote box open. After about 10 or so impersonation calls, further impersonation attempts will fail with an error saying something about too many connections are currently open. If i look at the Computer Management - System Tools - Shared Folders - Sessions on my remote Windows XP box, i can see about 10 sessions open to the Windows 2000 box. I can manually close these (i think they may eventually close themselves, but not very quickly) and then impersonation begins working again few more times. This open session issue doesn't seem to be a problem in any of my other test scenarios, just when running locally on a Windows 2000 box. Any ideas? Edit 1: After some more testing and trying out many different things, this seems to be an issue with open sessions not being reused. On Windows 2000 only, every call to LogonUser to get a token and then using that token to impersonate seems to result in a new session being created. I'm guessing Windows XP & Windows Server 2003 are reusing open sessions since i don't seem to be having any issues with them. If I call LogonUser once, then cache the token, I seem to be able to make as many calls to impersonate as I need using the cached token without running in to the "too many connections" issue. This seems like an ugly work around though since i can't call CloseHandle() on my token every time i perform impersonation. Anybody have any thoughts or ideas, or am i stuck with this ugly hack? Thanks

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• Where is the method call in the EXE file?

  - by Victor Hurdugaci

  Introduction After watching this video from LIDNUG, about .NET code protection http://secureteam.net/lidnug_recording/Untitled.swf (especially from 46:30 to 57:30), I would to locate the call to a MessageBox.Show in an EXE I created. The only logic in my "TrialApp.exe" is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("This is trial app"); } } Compiled on the Release configuration: http://rapidshare.com/files/392503054/TrialApp.exe.html What I do to locate the call Run the application in WinDBG and break after the message box appears. Get the CLR stack with !clrstack: 0040e840 5e21350b [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e840] System.Windows.Forms.SafeNativeMethods.MessageBox(System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef, System.String, System.String, Int32) 0040e894 5e21350b System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.ShowCore(System.Windows.Forms.IWin32Window, System.String, System.String, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxDefaultButton, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxOptions, Boolean) 0040e898 002701f0 [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e898] 0040e934 002701f0 TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Get the MethodDesc structure (using the address of Form1_Load) !ip2md 002701f0 MethodDesc: 001762f8 Method Name: TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Class: 00171678 MethodTable: 00176354 mdToken: 06000005 Module: 00172e9c IsJitted: yes CodeAddr: 002701d0 Transparency: Critical Source file: D:\temp\TrialApp\TrialApp\Form1.cs @ 22 Dump the IL of this method (by MethodDesc) !dumpil 001762f8 IL_0000: ldstr "This is trial app" IL_0005: call System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox::Show IL_000a: pop IL_000b: ret So, as the video mentioned, the call to to Show is 5 bytes from the beginning of the method implementation. Now I open CFFExplorer (just like in the video) and get the RVA of the Form1_Load method: 00002083. After this, I go to Address Converter (again in CFF Explorer) and navigate to offset 00002083. There we have: 32 72 01 00 00 70 28 16 00 00 0A 26 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 In the video is mentioned that the first 12 bytes are for the method header so I skip them 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 5 bytes from the beginning of the implementation should be the opcode for method call (28). Unfortunately, is not there. 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 Questions: What am I doing wrong? Why there is no method call at that position in the file? Or maybe the video is missing some information... Why the guy in that video replaces the call with 9 zeros?

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• java.util.Map with HtmlDataTable

  - by gerry

  Hi, I'm developing an application on GlassFish v3 which uses Suns-RI of JavaEE6 and JSF2.0, etc. And the bad thing is, that no changes/switches away from Suns RI can be made (to use MyFaces or something like that). Now, the problem is, that I want to build HtmlDatatable by hand ( in Java code). The datatable should represent a java.util.Map where the first column should display the key and the second the values of the map. I've build successfully a PanelGrid from a java.util.List and used every time the "setExpressionValue" methods of UIComponent to bind the UI to the underlying List. But now, this doesn't work with the Map. Here is a snippet of my code: public HtmlDataTable getEntityDetailsDataTable() { ... Application app = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getApplication(); HtmlDataTable component = (HtmlDataTable)app.createComponent(HtmlDataTable.COMPONENT_TYPE); component.setValueExpression("value", ExpressionUtil.createValueExpression("#{entityTree.entity."+fieldName+".entrySet()}", Map.class)); component.setVar("param"); UIColumn column = new UIColumn(); UIOutput label1 = DynamicHtmlComponentCreator.createHtmlOutputText("#{param[key]}", String.class); column.getChildren().add(label1); UIOutput label2 = DynamicHtmlComponentCreator.createHtmlOutputText("#{param[value]}", String.class); column.getChildren().add(label2); component.getChildren().add(column); ... return component; } component.getChildren().add(column); ... return component; } So, further the problem is, that this code only prints out the content of the Map, on another page I need the values displayed in HtmlInputText elements and the whole map updated if the user clicks a i.e. "Save" button. So, further the problem is, that this code only prints out the content of the Map, on another page I need the values displayed in HtmlInputText elements and the whole map updated if the user clicks a i.e. "Save" button. If there is a workaround, to represent the Map as to Lists...please help me, because for this (map as 2 lists) I've no idea how the underlying map/database model can be updated again. Hopefully, someone can help me....

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• IsAuthenticated is false! weird behaviour + review question

  - by Naor

  This is the login function (after I validate user name and password, I load user data into "user" variable and call Login function: public static void Login(IUser user) { HttpResponse Response = HttpContext.Current.Response; HttpRequest Request = HttpContext.Current.Request; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, user.UserId.ToString(), DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddHours(12), false, UserResolver.Serialize(user)); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket)); cookie.Path = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); string redirectUrl = user.HomePage; Response.Redirect(redirectUrl, true); } UserResolver is the following class: public class UserResolver { public static IUser Current { get { IUser user = null; if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { FormsIdentity id = (FormsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = id.Ticket; user = Desrialize(ticket.UserData); } return user; } } public static string Serialize(IUser user) { StringBuilder data = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter w = new StringWriter(data); string type = user.GetType().ToString(); //w.Write(type.Length); w.WriteLine(user.GetType().ToString()); StringBuilder userData = new StringBuilder(); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(user.GetType()); serializer.Serialize(new StringWriter(userData), user); w.Write(userData.ToString()); w.Close(); return data.ToString(); } public static IUser Desrialize(string data) { StringReader r = new StringReader(data); string typeStr = r.ReadLine(); Type type=Type.GetType(typeStr); string userData = r.ReadToEnd(); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(type); return (IUser)serializer.Deserialize(new StringReader(userData)); } } And the global.asax implements the following: void Application_PostAuthenticateRequest(Object sender, EventArgs e) { IPrincipal p = HttpContext.Current.User; if (p.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { IUser user = UserResolver.Current; Role[] roles = user.GetUserRoles(); HttpContext.Current.User = Thread.CurrentPrincipal = new GenericPrincipal(p.Identity, Role.ToString(roles)); } } First question: Am I do it right? Second question - weird thing! The user variable I pass to Login has 4 members: UserName, Password, Name, Id. When UserResolver.Current executed, I got the user instance. I descided to change the user structure - I add an array of Warehouse object. Since that time, when UserResolver.Current executed (after Login), HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated was false and I couldn't get the user data. When I removed the Warehouse[] from user structure, it starts to be ok again and HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated become true after I Login. What is the reason to this weird behaviour?

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• executing a script from maven inside a multi module project

  - by Roman

  Hi everyone. I have this multi-module project. In the beginning of each build I would like to run some bat file. So i did the following: <profile> <id>deploy-db</id> <build> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1.1</version> </plugin> </plugins> <pluginManagement> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <inherited>false</inherited> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <executable>../database/schemas/import_databases.bat</executable> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </pluginManagement> </build> </profile> when i run the mvn verify -Pdeploy-db from the root I get this script executed over and over again in each of my modules. I want it to be executed only once, in the root module. What is there that I am missing ? Thanks

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• Problems with contenteditable in Firefox

  - by Jonathan

  Hello, I am working on a Javascript WYSIWYG editor in Firefox. I am using a div with the contenteditable attribute set to true in order to accomplish this (I cannot use a contenteditable iframe for this particular project). This contenteditable div is nested in another div that is not contenteditable. I am encountering the following two problems when using execCommand to apply formatting, including font style and size, as well as bold, italic, and underline: When all text in the div is selected, execCommand simply does not work. execCommand works fine when only part of the text is selected, but does nothing when all of the text is selected. Applying formatting with no text selected yields unexpected results. For example, when calling execCommand('bold') with no text selected and then typing results in bold text being typed until a spacebar is inserted, at which point the bold formatting is lost (until another space is inserted, interestingly enough; then the text becomes bold again). To see what I mean, please try running the following HTML code in Firefox 3: <html> <head><title></title></head> <body> <button onClick="execCommand('bold', false, null);">Bold</button> <div style="width: 300px; border: 1px solid #000000;"> <div contenteditable="true">Some editable text</div> </div> </body> </html> Please try the following: Select the word "Some" only. Click the Bold button. This will make the text bold, as expected. Select the entire phrase "Some editable text" (either manually or using CTRL-A). Click the Bold button. Nothing happens. This demonstrates the first bug shown above. Hit the backspace key to clear the div. Click the Bold button and begin typing. Type a few words with spaces. This will demonstrate the second bug. Any ideas on what could be causing these problems and how to work around them would be greatly appreciated!

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• Why is zIndex not working from IE/Javascript?

  - by Vilx-

  <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=7" /> <title>Problem demo</title> </head> <body> <div style="background:red; position:relative;" id='div1'>1. <div style="background:lime; position: absolute; width: 300px;height: 300px; top: 3px; left: 30px" id="div2">3.</div> </div> <div style="background:blue;position:relative;color: white" id="div3">2.</div> <script type="text/javascript">/*<![CDATA[*/ window.onload= function() { // The container of the absolute DIV document.getElementById('div1').style.zIndex = 800; // The lowest DIV of all which obscures the absolute DIV document.getElementById('div2').style.zIndex = 1; // The absolute DIV document.getElementById('div3').style.zIndex = 1000; } /*]]>*/</script> </body> </html> In a nutshell, this script has two DIV elements with position:relative and the first of them has a third DIV with position:absolute in it. It's all set to run on IE-7 standards mode (I'm targeting IE7 and above). I know about the separate z-stacks of IE, so by default the third DIV should be beneath the second DIV. To fix this problem there is some Javascript which sets the z-orders of first and third DIV to 1000, and the z-order of the second DIV to 999. Unfortunately this does not help. If the z-indexes were set in markup, this would work, but why not from JS? Note: This problem does not exist in IE8 standards mode, but I'm targetting IE7, so I can't rely on that. Also, if you save this to your hard drive and then open it up, at first IE complains something about ActiveX and stuff. After you wave it away, everything works as expected. But if you refresh the page, the problem is there again.

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• Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

  - by Dave Parker

  I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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• WPF binding behaviour different when bound property is declared as interface vs class type?

  - by Jay

  This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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• Why don't my scrollbars work properly when programmatically hiding rows in silverlight Datagrid?

  - by Luke Vilnis

  I have a Silverlight datagrid with custom code that allows for +/- buttons on the lefthand side and can display a table with a tree structure. The +/- buttons are bound to a IsExpanded property on my ViewModelRows, as I call them. The visibility of rows is bound to an IsVisible property on the ViewModelRows which is determined based on whether or not all of the parent rows are expanded. Straightforward enough. This code works fine in that if I scroll up and down the grid with PageUp/PageDown or the arrow keys, all the right rows are hidden and everything has the right structure and I can play with the +/- buttons to my hearts content. However, the vertical scroll bar on the right hand side, although it starts off the correct size and it scrolls through the rows smoothly, when I collapse rows and then re-expand them, doesn't go back to its correct size. The scrollbar can still usually be moved around to scroll through the whole collection, but because it is too big, once the bar moves to the bottom, there are still more rows to go through and it sort of jerkily shoots all the way down to the bottom or sometimes fails to scroll at all. This is pretty hard to describe so I included a screenshot with the black lines drawn on to show the difference in scrollbar length even though the two grids have the same number of rows expanded. I think this might be a bug related to the way the Datagrid does virtualization of rows. It seems to me like it isn't properly keeping track of how tall each row is supposed to be when expansion states change. Is there a way to programmatically "poke" (read hack) it to recalculate its scrollbar size on LoadingRow or something ugly like that? I'd include a code sample but there's 2 c# files and 1 xaml file so I wanted to see if anyone else has heard of this sort of issue before I try to make it reproducible in a self-contained way. Once again, scrolling with the arrow keys works fine so I'm pretty sure the underlying logic and binding is working, there's just some issue with the row height not being calculated properly. Since I'm a new user, it won't let me use image tags so here's the link to a picture of the problem: http://img210.imageshack.us/img210/8760/messedupscrollbars.png

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• Complex Entity Framework linked-graphs issue: how to limit change set / break the graph?

  - by Hightechrider

  I have an EDMX containing Sentences, and Words, say and a Sentence contains three Words, say. Appropriate FK relationships exist between the tables. I create some words: Word word1 = new Word(); Word word2 = ... I build a Sentence: Sentence x = new Sentence (word1, word2, word3); I build another Sentence: Sentence y = new Sentence (word1, word4, word5); I try to save x to the database, but EF builds a change set that includes everything, including y, word4 and word5 that aren't ready to save to the database. When SaveChanges() happens it throws an exception: Unable to determine the principal end of the ... relationship. Multiple added entities may have the same primary key. I think it does this because Word has an EntityCollection<Sentence> on it from the FK relationship between the two tables, and thus Sentence y is inextricably linked to Sentence x through word1. So I remove the Navigation Property Sentences from Word and try again. It still tries to put the entire graph into the change set. What suggestions do the Entity Framework experts have for ways to break this connection. Essentially what I want is a one-way mapping from Sentence to Word; I don't want an EntityCollection<Sentence> on Word and I don't want the object graph to get intertwined like this. Code sample: This puts two sentences into the database because Verb1 links them and EF explores the entire graph of existing objects and added objects when you do Add/SaveChanges. Word subject1 = new Word(){ Text = "Subject1"}; Word subject2 = new Word(){ Text = "Subject2"}; Word verb1 = new Word(){ Text = "Verb11"}; Word object1 = new Word(){ Text = "Object1"}; Word object2 = new Word(){ Text = "Object2"}; Sentence s1 = new Sentence(){Subject = subject1, Verb=verb1, Object=object1}; Sentence s2 = new Sentence(){Subject=subject2, Verb=verb1, Object=object2}; context.AddToSentences(s1); context.SaveChanges(); foreach (var s in context.Sentences) { Console.WriteLine(s.Subject + " " + s.Verb + " " + s.Object); }

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• MVVM Binding Orthogonal Aspects in Views e.g. Application Settings

  - by chibacity

  I have an application which I am developing using WPF\Prism\MVVM. All is going well and I have some pleasing MVVM implementations. However, in some of my views I would like to be able to bind application settings e.g. when a user reloads an application, the checkbox for auto-scrolling a grid should be checked in the state it was last time the user used the application. My view needs to bind to something that holds the "auto-scroll" setting state. I could put this on the view-model, but applications settings are orthogonal to the purpose of the view-model. The "auto-scroll" setting is controlling an aspect of the view. This setting is just an example. There will be quite a number of them and splattering my view-models with properties to represent application settings (so I can bind them) feels decidedly yucky. One view-model per view seems to be de rigeuer... What is best\usual practice here? Splatter my view-models with application settings? Have multiple view-models per view so settings can be represented in their own right? Split views so that controls can bind to an ApplicationSettingsViewModel? = too many views? Something else? Edit 1 To add a little more context, I am developing a UI with a tabbed interface. Each tab will host a single widget and there a variety of widgets. Each widget is a Prism composition of individual views. Some views are common amongst widgets e.g. a file picker view. Whilst each widget is composed of several views, as a whole, conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings e.g. last file selected, auto-scroll enabled, etc. These need to be persisted and retrieved\applied when the application starts again, and the widget views are created. My question is focused on the fact that conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings which is at right-angles to the fact that a widget consists of many views. Each view in the widget has it's own view-model (which works nicely and logically) but if I stick to a one view-model per view, I would have to splatter each view-model with user settings appropriate to it. This doesn't sound right ?!?

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• Wordpress - related posts by custom taxonomy problem

  - by Nordin

  Hello, I'm trying to display related posts based on a custum taxonomy. I found a query at wordpress.org that kind of works. However the original post gets duplicated in the results multiple times. (words is the name of the custom taxonomy I use) What seems to happen is that the single post gets duplicated according to what amount showpost is set. Any idea's what could cause this? The code: <?php //for in the loop, display all "content", regardless of post_type, //that have the same custom taxonomy (e.g. words) terms as the current post $backup = $post; // backup the current object $found_none = '<h2>No related posts found!</h2>'; $taxonomy = 'words';// e.g. post_tag, category, custom taxonomy $param_type = 'words'; // e.g. tag__in, category__in, but genre__in will NOT work $post_types = get_post_types( array('public' => true), 'names' ); $tax_args=array('orderby' => 'none'); $tags = wp_get_post_terms( $post->ID , $taxonomy, $tax_args); if ($tags) { foreach ($tags as $tag) { $args=array( "$param_type" => $tag->slug, 'post__not_in' => array($post->ID), 'post_type' => $post_types, 'showposts'=>5, 'caller_get_posts'=>1 ); $my_query = null; $my_query = new WP_Query($args); if( $my_query->have_posts() ) { while ($my_query->have_posts()) : $my_query->the_post(); ?> <h3><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>" rel="bookmark" title="<?php the_title(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></h3> <?php $found_none = ''; endwhile; } } } if ($found_none) { echo $found_none; } $post = $backup; // copy it back wp_reset_query(); // to use the original query again ?>

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• Execute SQL SP in Excel VBA

  - by TheOCD

  HI I am having problem with getting all the columns back when i execute following code in excel vba. I only get 6 out of 23 columns back. Connection, command etc works fine (i can see exec command in the SQL Profiler), data headers are created for all 23 columns but i only get data for 6 column. Side Note: it's not prod level code, have missed out error handling on purpose, sp works fine in SQL management studio, ASP.Net, C# win form app, it is for Excel 2003 connecting to SQL 2008. Can someone help me troubleshoot it? Dim connection As ADODB.connection Dim recordset As ADODB.recordset Dim command As ADODB.command Dim strProcName As String 'Stored Procedure name Dim strConn As String ' connection string. Dim selectedVal As String 'Set ADODB requirements Set connection = New ADODB.connection Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Set command = New ADODB.command If Workbooks("Book2.xls").MultiUserEditing = True Then MsgBox "You do not have Exclusive access to the workbook at this time." & _ vbNewLine & "Please have all other users close the workbook and then try again.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation Exit Sub Else On Error Resume Next ActiveWorkbook.ExclusiveAccess 'On Error GoTo No_Bugs End If 'set the active sheet Set oSht = Workbooks("Book2.xls").Sheets(1) 'get the connection string, if empty just exit strConn = ConnectionString() If strConn = "" Then Exit Sub End If ' selected value, if <NOTHING> just exit selectedVal = selectedValue() If selectedVal = "<NOTHING>" Then Exit Sub End If If Not oSht Is Nothing Then 'Open database connection connection.ConnectionString = strConn connection.Open ' set command stuff. command.ActiveConnection = connection command.CommandText = "GetAlbumByName" command.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc command.Parameters.Refresh command.Parameters(1).Value = selectedVal 'Execute stored procedure and return to a recordset Set recordset = command.Execute() If recordset.BOF = False And recordset.EOF = False Then Sheets("Sheet2").[A1].CopyFromRecordset recordset ' Create headers and copy data With Sheets("Sheet2") For Column = 0 To recordset.Fields.Count - 1 .Cells(1, Column + 1).Value = recordset.Fields(Column).Name Next .Range(.Cells(1, 1), .Cells(1, recordset.Fields.Count)).Font.Bold = True .Cells(2, 1).CopyFromRecordset recordset End With Else MsgBox "b4 BOF or after EOF.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If 'Close database connection and clean up If CBool(recordset.State And adStateOpen) = True Then recordset.Close Set recordset = Nothing If CBool(connection.State And adStateOpen) = True Then connection.Close Set connection = Nothing Else MsgBox "oSheet2 is Nothing.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If

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• ServiceController.Stop() doesn't appear to be stopping anything

  - by peacedog

  My dev box is a Windows 7 (x64) machine. I've got some code (C#, .net 2.0) that in certain circumstances, checks to see if a service is running and then stops it. ServiceController matchedService = //My Service! //If statements and such matchedService.Stop(); matchedService.WaitForStatus(ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped); Now, I can verify MyService is in fact installed and running. I can tell you I am running Visual Studio 2008 as an administrator while debugging. I can also verify that after a couple of If statements, I wind up at the .Stop() and .WaitForStatus() portion of the programming. I do know that if step over the .Stop() call, the service itself just keeps running (looking at it in Services, though it occurs to me perhaps I should grab a better tool for this. I'm sure there's some sysinternals tool that might give me more information). As I step over the .WaitForStatus() call, I basically wind up waiting for the stopped status. . . forever. Well, I let it sit there for over 15 minutes yesterday (twice) and nothing happens. We never make it to the next line of code. It feels exactly like Bowie's Space Oddity (you know the part I am talking about). There's a lotta things about MyService you don't know anything about. Things you wouldn't understand. Things you couldn't. . . let me state this plainly. No services depend on MyService and MyService depends on no other services. Addendum MyOtherService and SonOfMyService both seem to behave correctly at this point in the code. All of these services share the same characteristics (they're our own services we hatched in a secret lab and have no dependencies). Is it possible there is something wrong with the MyService install or something? I do know that if I stop debugging at this point, MyService is still listed as running in Services (even after hitting refresh). If I try to restart it then (or run my application again and get to this point), I get a message about it not being able to accept control messages. After that, the service shows up as stopped and I can start it normally. Why isn't the service being stopped? Is this a quirk of win 7? A failing on my part to understand the ServiceController, or Win Services in general?

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• How to save file and read

  - by Jessy

  Hello everyone, I create a program that place random image in grid layout format. The size of the grid layout is 6 x 6 = 36. Only 10 were filled with images (each image was different) and the rest were empty. freeimagehosting.net/uploads/bfb7e85f63.jpg How can I save it to a file and read it again, so it will display the same images with same placement on the grid? Here is the code that I used to save the images: //image file String []arrPic = {"pic1.jpg","pic2.jpg","pic3.jpg","pic4.jpg","pic5.jpg","pic6.jpg","pic7.jpg","pic8.jpg","pic9.jpg","pic10.jpg",,"pic11.jpg","pic12.jpg","pic13.jpg"}; ArrayList<String> pictures = new ArrayList<String>(Arrays.asList(arrPic)); ArrayList<String> file = new ArrayList<String>(); JPanel pDraw = new JPanel(new GridLayout(6,6,2,2)); ... //fill all grids with empty label for (int i =0; i<(6*6); i++){ JLabel lbl = new JLabel(""); pDraw.add(lbl); } ... //Choose random box to be filled with images for(int i=0; i<10; i++){ Boolean number = true; while(number){ int n = rand.nextInt(35); if(!(arraylist.contains(n))) number = false; arraylist.add(n); } //fill the grids with images for(int i=0; i<arraylist.size(); i++){ //select random image from arraylist int index = rand.nextInt (pictures.size()); String fileName = (String) pictures.get(index ); //find the image file icon = createImageIcon(fileName); //save the file in a new file file.add(fileName); //rescaled the image int x = rand.nextInt(50)+50; int y = rand.nextInt(50)+50; Image image = icon.getImage().getScaledInstance(x,y,Image.SCALE_SMOOTH); icon.setImage(image); //remove empty label and replace it with an image int one = (Integer) arraylist.get(i); pDraw.remove(one); final JLabel label; pDraw.add(label,one); }

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• New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

  - by Roeland

  Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

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• IE8 web slice - CSS problem

  - by rjovic

  Again me with IE8 web slice :) This time i have following problem. I created web slice for IE8 and created button for users where they can choice to add it to their browsers. Code is : <input class="add" type="button" value="Dodaj Xica web slice u IE8!" onclick='window.external.AddToFavoritesBar("http://localhost:51914/Home/GetWebSlice", "xica.rjovic.com", "slice");' /> There is everything fine, and web slice is added to IE8 and web page is displayed correct. But I have problem with CSS in web slice. I defined css in it, but when web slice i rendered there are only black fonts without any css properties. My web slice is defined as : <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>GetWebSlice</title> <style type="text/css"> p {color: white; } body {background-color: blue; } .container {background-color: red;} </style> </head> <body> <div class="hslice container" id="xica"> <h2 class="entry-title container">Xica web slice</h2> <div class="entry-content"> <h2>Saldo : <b><%= ViewData["total"] %></b></h2> <p><%= ViewData["cardNumber"] %></p> <p>Status : <%= ViewData["status"] %></p> </div> </div> </body> </html> When I try to see web slice directly in my browser then everything is ok, and css is show as expected. Thank you...! EDIT : here is the picture of problem : http://www.deviantpics.com/share-2F10_4BD73E25.html

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