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  • C# Property Access vs Interface Implementation

    - by ehdv
    I'm writing a class to represent a Pivot Collection, the root object recognized by Pivot. A Collection has several attributes, a list of facet categories (each represented by a FacetCategory object) and a list of items (each represented by a PivotItem object). Therefore, an extremely simplified Collection reads: public class Collection { private List<FacetCategory> categories; private List<PivotItem> items; // other attributes } What I'm unsure of is how to properly grant access to those two lists. Because declaration order of both facet categories and items is visible to the user, I can't use sets, but the class also shouldn't allow duplicate categories or items. Furthermore, I'd like to make the Collection object as easy to use as possible. So my choices are: Have Collection implement IList<PivotItem> and have accessor methods for FacetCategory: In this case, one would add an item to Collection foo by writing foo.Add(bar). This works, but since a Collection is equally both kinds of list making it only pass as a list for one type (category or item) seems like a subpar solution. Create nested wrapper classes for List (CategoryList and ItemList). This has the advantage of making a consistent interface but the downside is that these properties would no longer be able to serve as lists (because I need to override the non-virtual Add method I have to implement IList rather than subclass List. Implicit casting wouldn't work because that would return the Add method to its normal behavior. Also, for reasons I can't figure out, IList is missing an AddRange method... public class Collection { private class CategoryList: IList<FacetCategory> { // ... } private readonly CategoryList categories = new CategoryList(); private readonly ItemList items = new ItemList(); public CategoryList FacetCategories { get { return categories; } set { categories.Clear(); categories.AddRange(value); } } public ItemList Items { get { return items; } set { items.Clear(); items.AddRange(value); } } } Finally, the third option is to combine options one and two, so that Collection implements IList<PivotItem> and has a property FacetCategories. Question: Which of these three is most appropriate, and why?

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  • Hierarchy inheritance

    - by reito
    I had faced the problem. In my C++ hierarchy tree I have two branches for entities of difference nature, but same behavior - same interface. I created such hierarchy trees (first in image below). And now I want to work with Item or Base classes independetly of their nature (first or second). Then I create one abstract branch for this use. My mind build (second in image below). But it not working. Working scheme seems (third in image below). It's bad logic, I think... Do anybody have some ideas about such hierarchy inheritance? How make it more logical? More simple for understanding? Image Sorry for my english - russian internet didn't help:) Update: You ask me to be more explicit, and I will be. In my project (plugins for Adobe Framemaker) I need to work with dialogs and GUI controls. In some places I working with WinAPI controls, and some other places with FDK (internal Framemaker) controls, but I want to work throw same interface. I can't use one base class and inherite others from it, because all needed controls - is a hierarchy tree (not one class). So I have one hierarchy tree for WinAPI controls, one for FDK and one abstract tree to use anyone control. For example, there is an Edit control (WinEdit and FdkEdit realization), a Button control (WinButton and FdkButton realization) and base entity - Control (WinControl and FdkControl realization). For now I can link my classes in realization trees (Win and Fdk) with inheritence between each of them (WinControl is base class for WinButton and WinEdit; FdkControl is base class for FdkButton and FdkEdit). And I can link to abstract classes (Control is base class for WinControl and FdkControl; Edit is base class for WinEdit and FdkEdit; Button is base class for WinButton and FdkButton). But I can't link my abstract tree - compiler swears. In fact I have two hierarchy trees, that I want to inherite from another one. Update: I have done this quest! :) I used the virtual inheritence and get such scheme (http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/7782/99614779.png). Abstract tree has only absolute abstract methods. All inheritence in abstract tree are virtual. Link from realization tree to abstract are virtual. On image shown only one realization tree for simplicity. Thanks for help!

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  • Remove links with Javascript

    - by Arlen Beiler
    How do I remove links from a webpage with Javascript. I am using Google Chrome. The code I tried is: function removehyperlinks() { try { alert(document.anchors.length); alert(document.getElementsByTagName('a')); for(i=0;i=document.anchors.length;i++) { var a = document.anchors[i]; a.outerHTML = a.innerHTML; var b = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); b[i].outerHTML = b[i].innerHTML; } } catch(e) { alert (e);} alert('done'); } Of course, this is test code, which is why I have the alerts and 2 things trying at the same time. The first alert returns "0" the second [Object NodeList] and the third returns "done". My html body looks like this: <body onload="removehyperlinks()"> <ol style="text-align:left;" class="messagelist"> <li class="accesscode"><a href="#">General information, Updates, &amp; Meetings<span class="extnumber">141133#</span></a> <ol> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="77"><a href="#"">...</a></li> <li start="88"><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="99"><a href="#">...</a></li> </ol> </li> </ol> </body>

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

    - by MarkPowell
    I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

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  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • How to measure a canvas that has auto height and width

    - by Wymmeroo
    Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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  • Just a small problem regarding javscript BOM question

    - by caramel1991
    The question is this: Create a page with a number of links. Then write code that fires on the window onload event, displaying the href of each of the links on the page. And this is my solution <html> <body language="Javascript" onload="displayLink()"> <a href="http://www.google.com/">First link</a> <a href="http://www.yahoo.com/">Second link</a> <a href="http://www.msn.com/">Third link</a> <script type="text/javascript" language="Javascript"> function displayLink() { for(var i = 0;document.links[i];i++) { alert(document.links[i].href); } } </script> </body> </html> This is the answer provided by the book <html> <head> <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/javascript”> function displayLinks() { var linksCounter; for (linksCounter = 0; linksCounter < document.links.length; linksCounter++) { alert(document.links[linksCounter].href); } } </script> </head> <body onload=”displayLinks()”> <A href=”link0.htm” >Link 0</A> <A href=”link1.htm”>Link 2</A> <A href=”link2.htm”>Link 2</A> </body> </html> Before I get into the javascript tutorial on how to check user browser version or model,I was using the same method as the example,by acessing the length property of the links array for the loop,but after I read through the tutorial,I find out that I can also use this alternative ways,by using the method that the test condition will evalute to true only if the document.links[i] return a valid value,so does my code is written using the valid method??If it's not,any comment regarding how to write a better code??Correct me if I'm wrong,I heard some of the people say "a good code is not evaluate solely on whether it works or not,but in terms of speed,the ability to comprehend the code,and could posssibly let others to understand the code easily".Is is true??

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  • apply style to range of text with javascript in uiwebview

    - by drawnonward
    I am displaying some simple styled text as html in a UIWebView on iPhone. It is basically a series of paragraphs with the occasional strong or emphasized phrase. At runtime I need to apply styles to ranges of text. There are a few similar scenarios, one of which is highlighting search results. If the user has searched for "something" I would like to change the background color behind occurrences of the word, then later restore the original background. Is it possible to apply styles to ranges of text using javascript? A key part of this is also being able to unset the styles. There seem to be two likely paths to follow. One would be modifying some html in Objective-C and passing it through javascript as the new innerHTML of some container. The other would be to use javascript to directly manipulate DOM nodes. I could manipulate html, but that sounds tedious in Objective-C so I would rather manipulate the DOM if that is a reasonable approach. I am not that familiar with javascript and DOM so I do not know if it is a reasonable approach. I wrote some routines to translate between text ranges and node ranges with offsets. So if I start with text range 100-200 and that starts in one paragraph and ends in a third, I can get the text nodes and the offsets within the nodes that represent the given text range. I just need a way to split a text node at an offset in the text. Currently I just apply styles to the paragraphs containing the text range. A few notes: straight javascript please, no external frameworks like jquery. the changes never need to be written to disk. the changes should be undoable or at least removable. the styles to apply already exist in a css file. it needs to work in iPhone 3.0 and forward. all the source files are shipped with the app. please be verbose. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Not able to get siblings value from table row

    - by Sullan
    Hi All, I am trying to get values from adjacent columns, when a radio button is clicked for that row. I'm able to do so, but the problem I'm facing, when there are more elements in the radio button column, then i am getting null values(i.e 2nd row is not working). Please help...Code is all follows <table id="dist_list" class="data"> <tbody> <tr> <td> <input type="radio" value="636406" name="distRG" id="radio_7" /></td> <td class="selected">Company 1</td> <td class="siteId">1234</td> <td class="siteName">First Company Name</td> </tr> <!-- Not able to get values from this row, since there are more elements in it --> <tr> <td> <span class="jqTransformRadioWrapper"><a rel="distRG" class="jqTransformRadio" href="#"></a> <input type="radio" value="636406" name="distRG" id="radio_2" /> </span></td> <td class="selected">Company 2</td> <td class="siteId">2345</td> <td class="siteName">Second Company Name</td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="radio" value="636406" name="distRG" id="radio_3" /></td> <td class="selected">Company 3</td> <td class="siteId">3456</td> <td class="siteName">Third Company Name</td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="radio" value="213584" name="distRG" id="radio_4" /></td> <td class="selected">Company 4</td> <td class="siteId">4567</td> <td class="siteName">Fourth Company Name</td> </tr></tbody></table> jQuery script $("input[name=distRG]").click(function() { var owner = $(this).parent().siblings('td.selected').text(); var siteId = $(this).parent().siblings('td.siteId').text(); var siteName = $(this).parent().siblings('td.siteName').text(); alert(owner); alert(siteId); alert(siteName); });

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  • ANSI C as core of a C# project? Is this possible?

    - by Nektarios
    I'm writing a NON-GUI app which I want to be cross platform between OS X and Windows. I'm looking at the following architecture, but I don't know if it will work on the windows side: (Platform specific entry point) - ANSI C main loop = ANSI C model code doing data processing / logic = (Platform specific helpers) So the core stuff I'm planning to write in regular ANSI C, because A) it should be platform independent, B) I'm extremely comfortable with C, C) It can do the job and do it well (Platform specific entry point) can be written in whatever necessary to get the job done, this is a small amount of code, doesn't matter to me. (Platform specific helpers) is the sticky thing. This is stuff like parsing XML, accessing databases, graphics toolkit stuff, whatever. Things that aren't easy in C. Things that modern languages/frameworks will give for free. On OS X this code will be written in Objective-C interfacing with Cocoa. On Windows I'm thinking my best bet is to use C# So on Windows my architecture (simplified) looks like (C# or C?) - ANSI C - C# Is this possible? Some thoughts/suggestions so far.. 1) Compile my C core as a .dll -- this is fine, but seems there's no way to call my C# helpers unless I can somehow get function pointers and pass them to my core, but that seems unlikely 2) Compile a C .exe and a C# .exe and have them talk via shared memory or some kind of IPC. I'm not entirely opposed to this but it obviously introduces a lot of complexity so it doesn't seem ideal 3) Instead of C# use C++, it gets me some nice data management stuff and nice helper code. And I can mix it pretty easily. And the work I do could probably easily port to Linux. But I really don't like C++, and I don't want this to turn in to a 3rd-party-library-fest. Not that it's a huge deal, but it's 2010.. anything for basic data management should be built in. And targetting Linux is really not a priority. Note that no "total" alternatives are OK as suggested in other similar questions on SO I've seen; java, RealBasic, mono.. this is an extremely performance intensive application doing soft realtime for game/simulation purposes, I need C & friends here to do it right (maybe you don't, but I do)

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  • Java consistent synchronization

    - by ring0
    We are facing the following problem in a Spring service, in a multi-threaded environment: three lists are freely and independently accessed for Read once in a while (every 5 minutes), they are all updated to new values. There are some dependencies between the lists, making that, for instance, the third one should not be read while the second one is being updated and the first one already has new values ; that would break the three lists consistency. My initial idea is to make a container object having the three lists as properties. Then the synchronization would be first on that object, then one by one on each of the three lists. Some code is worth a thousands words... so here is a draft private class Sync { final List<Something> a = Collections.synchronizedList(new ArrayList<Something>()); final List<Something> b = Collections.synchronizedList(new ArrayList<Something>()); final List<Something> c = Collections.synchronizedList(new ArrayList<Something>()); } private Sync _sync = new Sync(); ... void updateRunOnceEveryFiveMinutes() { final List<Something> newa = new ArrayList<Something>(); final List<Something> newb = new ArrayList<Something>(); final List<Something> newc = new ArrayList<Something>(); ...building newa, newb and newc... synchronized(_sync) { synchronized(_sync.a) { _synch.a.clear(); _synch.a.addAll(newa); } synchronized(_sync.b) { ...same with newb... } synchronized(_sync.c) { ...same with newc... } } // Next is accessed by clients public List<Something> getListA() { return _sync.a; } public List<Something> getListB() { ...same with b... } public List<Something> getListC() { ...same with c... } The question would be, is this draft safe (no deadlock, data consistency)? would you have a better implementation suggestion for that specific problem? update Changed the order of _sync synchronization and newa... building. Thanks

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  • How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

    - by AnGafraidh
    I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

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  • I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

    - by culov
    I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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  • How do I connect multiple sortable lists to each other in jQuery UI?

    - by Abs
    I'm new to jQuery, and I'm totally struggling with using jQuery UI's sortable. I'm trying to put together a page to facilitate grouping and ordering of items. My page has a list of groups, and each group contains a list of items. I want to allow users to be able to do the following: 1. Reorder the groups 2. Reorder the items within the groups 3. Move the items between the groups The first two requirements are no problem. I'm able to sort them just fine. The problem comes in with the third requirement. I just can't connect those lists to each other. Some code might help. Here's the markup. <ul id="groupsList" class="groupsList"> <li id="group1" class="group">Group 1 <ul id="groupItems1" class="itemsList"> <li id="item1-1" class="item">Item 1.1</li> <li id="item1-2" class="item">Item 1.2</li> </ul> </li> <li id="group2" class="group">Group 2 <ul id="groupItems2" class="itemsList"> <li id="item2-1" class="item">Item 2.1</li> <li id="item2-2" class="item">Item 2.2</li> </ul> </li> <li id="group3" class="group">Group 3 <ul id="groupItems3" class="itemsList"> <li id="item3-1" class="item">Item 3.1</li> <li id="item3-2" class="item">Item 3.2</li> </ul> </li> </ul> I was able to sort the lists by putting $('#groupsList').sortable({}); and $('.itemsList').sortable({}); in the document ready function. I tried using the connectWith option for sortable to make it work, but I failed spectacularly. What I'd like to do is have the every groupItemsX list connected to every groupItemsX list but itself. How should I do that?

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  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Error reading values from dynamically created table rows in Android

    - by jaymo
    So I have a couple of dynamically created tablerows.Each TableRow has a couple of Textviews.I have a button that on clicked should get all the values of the second and third textviews in each Tablerow in the Table. I have tried to do this using the code below mSubmitOrders.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mTable.getChildCount()>1){ for(int i = 0; i < mTable.getChildCount(); i++){ TableRow tr = (TableRow)mTable.getChildAt(i); TextView code = (TextView) tr.getChildAt(1); TextView quantity = (TextView) tr.getChildAt(2); String Scode = code.getText().toString(); Log.i("TAG", Scode); String Squantity = quantity.getText().toString(); Log.i("TAG", Squantity); } } But I get the below errors (Logcat below). Assistance required 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): java.lang.ClassCastException: android.widget.LinearLayout cannot be cast to android.widget.TextView 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at com.symetry.myitprovider.ui.actual$4.onClick(actual.java:173) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:3131) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.view.View$PerformClick.run(View.java:12035) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:587) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:132) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4123) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:491) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:844) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:602) 10-22 09:00:16.345: E/AndroidRuntime(4495): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) EDIT: I have modified my code and now there is no error..but its not working as needed.. The new code is as below.. mSubmitOrders.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mTable.getChildCount()>1){ for(int i = 0; i < mTable.getChildCount(); i++){ //TODO: Figure out how to do this well LinearLayout LL = (LinearLayout)mTable.getChildAt(i); View x = ((View)(LL.getParent()).getParent()); Log.i("TAG", "Past view"); TextView code = (TextView)((ViewGroup) x).getChildAt(2); String Scode = code.getText().toString(); Log.i("TAG", Scode); } But thing is its not getting the texview from TableLayout's Table Row..its getting a different one...the one I have circled in the picture ![Error]:http://semasoftltd.com/error.png

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