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• Python on Mac: Fink? MacPorts? Builtin? Homebrew? Binary installer?

  - by BastiBechtold

  For the last few days, I have been trying to use Python for some audio development. The thing is, Mac OSX does not handle uninstalling stuff well. Actually, there is no way to uninstall anything. Once it is on your system, you better pray that it didn't do any funny stuff. Hence, I don't really want to rely on installer packages for Python. So I turn to Homebrew and install Python using Homebrew. Works fabulously. Using pip, Numpy, SciPy, Matplotlib were no (big) problem, either. Now I want to play audio. There is a host of different packages out there, but pip does not seem willing to install any. But, there is a binary distribution for PyGame, which I guess should work with the built-in Python. Hence my question: What would you do? Would you just install the binary distributions and hope that they interoperate well and never need uninstalling? Would you hack your way through whichever package control management system you prefer and deal with its problems? Something else?

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• Architecture for database analytics

  - by David Cournapeau

  Hi, We have an architecture where we provide each customer Business Intelligence-like services for their website (internet merchant). Now, I need to analyze those data internally (for algorithmic improvement, performance tracking, etc...) and those are potentially quite heavy: we have up to millions of rows / customer / day, and I may want to know how many queries we had in the last month, weekly compared, etc... that is the order of billions entries if not more. The way it is currently done is quite standard: daily scripts which scan the databases, and generate big CSV files. I don't like this solutions for several reasons: as typical with those kinds of scripts, they fall into the write-once and never-touched-again category tracking things in "real-time" is necessary (we have separate toolset to query the last few hours ATM). this is slow and non-"agile" Although I have some experience in dealing with huge datasets for scientific usage, I am a complete beginner as far as traditional RDBM go. It seems that using column-oriented database for analytics could be a solution (the analytics don't need most of the data we have in the app database), but I would like to know what other options are available for this kind of issues.

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• Is a control's OnInit called even when attaching it during parent's OnPreRender?

  - by Xerion

  My original understanding was that the asp.net page lifecycle is run once for all pages and controls under normal circumstances. When I attached a control during a container's OnPreRender, I encountered a situation where the control's OnInit was not called. OK, I considered that a bug in my code and fixed as such, by attaching the control earlier. But just today, I encountered a situation where OnInit for a control seems to be called after the normal OnInit has been done for everyone else. See stack below. It seems that during the page's PreRender, the control's OnInit is called as it is being dynamically added. So I just want to confirm exactly what ASP.NET's behavior is? Does it actually keep track of the stage of each control's lifecycle, and upon adding a new control, it will run from the very beginning? [HttpException (0x80004005): The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases.] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +8678663 MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.Initialize() MyCompany.Web.Controls.SetStartPageWrapper.OnInit(EventArgs e) System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.AddedControl(Control control, Int32 index) +198 System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.Add(Control child) +80 MyCompany.Web.Controls.PageHeader.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) in System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842

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• Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

  - by perissf

  In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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• Response.Redirect not firing due to code to prevent re-submission

  - by Marco

  I have an event which needs to contact some third party providers before performing a redirect (think 'final payment page on ecommerce site') and hence has some lag associated with its processing. It is very important that these third party providers are not contacted more than once, and sometimes impatient users may try and refresh the page (hence re-submitting the data). The general code structure is: If Session("orderStatus") <> 'processing' Then Session("orderStatus") = 'processing' DoThirdPartyStuffThatTakesSomeTime() Response.Redirect("confirmationPage.asp", True) End If The problem is, if the user refreshes the page, the response.redirect does not happen (even though the rest of the code will run before the redirect from the original submission). It seems that the new submission creates a new thread for the browser which takes precedence - it skips this bit of code obviously to prevent the third party providers being contacted a second time, and since there is no redirect, just comes back to the same page. The whole second submission may have completed before the first submission has finished its job. Any help on how I can still ignore all of the subsequent submissions of the page, but still make the redirect work...? Thanks

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• Newb Question: scanf() in C

  - by riemannliness

  So I started learning C today, and as an exercise i was told to write a program that asks the user for numbers until they type a 0, then adds the even ones and the odd ones together. Here is is (don't laugh at my bad style): #include <stdio.h>; int main() { int esum = 0, osum = 0; int n, mod; puts("Please enter some numbers, 0 to terminate:"); scanf("%d", &n); while (n != 0) { mod = n % 2; switch(mod) { case 0: esum += n; break; case 1: osum += n; } scanf("%d", &n); } printf("The sum of evens:%d,\t The sum of odds:%d", esum, osum); return 0; } My question concerns the mechanics of the scanf() function. It seems that when you enter several numbers at once separated by spaces (eg. 1 22 34 2 8), the scanf() function somehow remembers each distinct numbers in the line, and steps through the while loop for each one respectively. Why/how does this happen? Example interaction within command prompt: - Please enter some numbers, 0 to terminate: 42 8 77 23 11 (enter) 0 (enter) - The sum of evens:50, The sum of odds:111 I'm running the program through the command prompt, it's compiled for win32 platforms with visual studio.

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• Deploy an hta file in an exe or msi file

  - by rjmunro

  I've written an HTA file frontend for our web app that allows the web app to run without web browser status bars etc, and allows it to access the local system for certain tasks. I need a way to deploy this to customers. I need an installer to supply an hta file, an ico file, and add a link to them in the start menu and on the users desktop. I looked at building an installer with NSIS, but I couldn't figure out how to assign the icon to the shortcuts - The icon had to be a standard HTA one. Can this be done with NSIS, or should I be using another installer? P.s. I've got no particular preference for NSIS, it's just something I once used a very long time ago. When I download stuff, I think I prefer them to be msi files that launch with windows installer (it feels more like downloading a .rpm or .deb on linux which I am used to) but I know nothing about how those are created. I'm a web/linux guy who knows very little about windows programming.

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• Neural Networks or Human-computer interaction

  - by Shahin

  I will be entering my third year of university in my next academic year, once I've finished my placement year as a web developer, and I would like to hear some opinions on the two modules in the Title. I'm interested in both, however I want to pick one that will be relevant to my career and that I can apply to systems I develop. I'm doing an Internet Computing degree, it covers web development, networking, database work and programming. Though I have had myself set on becoming a web developer I'm not so sure about that any more so am trying not to limit myself to that area of development. I know HCI would help me as a web developer, but do you think it's worth it? Do you think Neural Network knowledge could help me realistically in a system I write in the future? Thanks. EDIT: Hi guys, I thought it would be useful to follow-up with what I decided to do and how it's worked out. I picked Artificial Neural Networks over HCI, and I've really enjoyed it. Having a peek into cognitive science and machine learning has ignited my interest for the subject area, and I will be hoping to take on a postgraduate project a few years from now when I can afford it. I have got a job which I am starting after my final exams (which are in a few days) and I was indeed asked if I had done a module in HCI or similar. It didn't seem to matter, as it isn't a front-end developer position! I would recommend taking the module if you have it as an option, as well as any module consisting of biological computation, it will open up more doors should you want to go onto postgraduate research in the future. Thanks again, Shahin

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• Java 8 Stream, getting head and tail

  - by lyomi

  Java 8 introduced a Stream class that resembles Scala's Stream, a powerful lazy construct using which it is possible to do something like this very concisely: def from(n: Int): Stream[Int] = n #:: from(n+1) def sieve(s: Stream[Int]): Stream[Int] = { s.head #:: sieve(s.tail filter (_ % s.head != 0)) } val primes = sieve(from(2)) primes takeWhile(_ < 1000) print // prints all primes less than 1000 I wondered if it is possible to do this in Java 8, so I wrote something like this: IntStream from(int n) { return IntStream.iterate(n, m -> m + 1); } IntStream sieve(IntStream s) { int head = s.findFirst().getAsInt(); return IntStream.concat(IntStream.of(head), sieve(s.skip(1).filter(n -> n % head != 0))); } IntStream primes = sieve(from(2)); PrimitiveIterator.OfInt it = primes.iterator(); for (int prime = it.nextInt(); prime < 1000; prime = it.nextInt()) { System.out.println(prime); } Fairly simple, but it produces java.lang.IllegalStateException: stream has already been operated upon or closed because both findFirst() and skip() is a terminal operation on Stream which can be done only once. I don't really have to use up the stream twice since all I need is the first number in the stream and the rest as another stream, i.e. equivalent of Scala's Stream.head and Stream.tail. Is there a method in Java 8 Stream that I can achieve this? Thanks.

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• Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

  - by SG1

  I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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• Graphical glitches when adding cells and scrolling with UITableView

  - by Daniel I-S

  I am using a UITableView to display the results of a series of calculations. When the user hits 'calculate', I wish to add the latest result to the screen. This is done by adding a new cell to a 'results' section. The UITableViewCell object is added to an array, and then I use the following code to add this new row to what is displayed on the screen: [thisView beginUpdates]; [thisView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newIndexPath] withRowAnimation: UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [thisView endUpdates]; This results in the new cell being displayed. However, I then want to immediately scroll the screen down so that the new cell is the lowermost cell on-screen. I use the following code: [thisView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:newIndexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionBottom animated:YES]; This almost works great. However, the first time a cell is added and scrolled to, it appears onscreen only briefly before vanishing. The view scrolls down to the correct place, but the cell is not there. Scrolling the view by hand until this invisible new cell's position is offscreen, then back again, causes the cell to appear - after which it behaves normally. This only happens the first time a cell is added; subsequent cells don't have this problem. It also happens regardless of the combination of scrollToRowAtIndexPath and insertRowsAtIndexPath animation settings. There is also a problem where, if new cells are added repeatedly and quickly, the new cells stop 'connecting up'. The lowermost cell in a group is supposed to have rounded corners, and when a new cell is added these turn into square corners so that there is a clean join with the next cell in the group. In this case, however, a cell often does not lose its rounded edges despite not being the last cell anymore. This also gets corrected once the affected area moves offscreen and back. This method of adding and scrolling would be perfect for my application if it weren't for these weird glitches. Any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong?

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• jquery image fading with tabs

  - by StealthRT

  Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: <script type="text/javascript"> function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

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• C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

  - by user127817

  I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

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• Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

  - by Anubis

  Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

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• Double hashing passwords - client & server

  - by J. Stoever

  Hey, first, let me say, I'm not asking about things like md5(md5(..., there are already topics about it. My question is this: We allow our clients to store their passwords locally. Naturally, we don't want them stored in plan text, so we hmac them locally, before storing and/or sending. Now, this is fine, but if this is all we did, then the server would have the stored hmac, and since the client only needs to send the hmac, not the plain text password, an attacker could use the stored hashes from the server to access anyone's account (in the catastrophic scenario where someone would get such an access to the database, of course). So, our idea was to encode the password on the client once via hmac, send it to the server, and there encode it a second time via hmac and match it against the stored, two times hmac'ed password. This would ensure that: The client can store the password locally without having to store it as plain text The client can send the password without having to worry (too much) about other network parties The server can store the password without having to worry about someone stealing it from the server and using it to log in. Naturally, all the other things (strong passwords, double salt, etc) apply as well, but aren't really relevant to the question. The actual question is: does this sound like a solid security design ? Did we overlook any flaws with doing things this way ? Is there maybe a security pattern for something like this ?

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• Limiting TCP sends with a "to-be-sent" queue and other design issues.

  - by Poni

  Hello all! This question is the result of two other questions I've asked in the last few days. I'm creating a new question because I think it's related to the "next step" in my understanding of how to control the flow of my send/receive, something I didn't get a full answer to yet. The other related questions are: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3028376/an-iocp-documentation-interpretation-question-buffer-ownership-ambiguity http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3028998/non-blocking-tcp-buffer-issues In summary, I'm using Windows I/O Completion Ports. I have several threads that process notifications from the completion port. I believe the question is platform-independent and would have the same answer as if to do the same thing on a *nix, *BSD, Solaris system. So, I need to have my own flow control system. Fine. So I send send and send, a lot. How do I know when to start queueing the sends, as the receiver side is limited to X amount? Let's take an example (closest thing to my question): FTP protocol. I have two servers; One is on a 100Mb link and the other is on a 10Mb link. I order the 100Mb one to send to the other one (the 10Mb linked one) a 1GB file. It finishes with an average transfer rate of 1.25MB/s. How did the sender (the 100Mb linked one) knew when to hold the sending, so the slower one wouldn't be flooded? Another way to ask this: Can I get a "hold-your-sendings" notification from the remote side? Is it built-in in TCP or the so called "reliable network protocol" needs me to do so? Again, I have a loop with many sends to a remote server, and at some point, within that loop I'll have to determine if I should queue that send or I can pass it on to the transport layer (TCP). How do I do that? What would you do? Of course that when I get a completion notification from IOCP that the send was done I'll issue other pending sends, that's clear. Another design question related to this: Since I am to use a custom buffers with a send queue, and these buffers are being freed to be reused (thus not using the "delete" keyword) when a "send-done" notification has been arrived, I'll have to use a mutual exlusion on that buffer pool. Using a mutex slows things down, so I've been thinking; Why not have each thread have its own buffers pool, thus accessing it , at least when getting the required buffers for a send operation, will require no mutex, because it belongs to that thread only. The buffers pool is located at the thread local storage (TLS) level. No mutual pool implies no lock needed, implies faster operations BUT also implies more memory used by the app, because even if one thread already allocated 1000 buffers, the other one that is sending right now and need 1000 buffers to send something will need to allocated these to its own. This is a long question and I hope none got hurt (: Thank you all!

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• Remove redundant SQL code

  - by Dave Jarvis

  Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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• How to parse XML with special characters?

  - by Snooze

  Whenever I try to parse XML with special characters such as o or ???? I get an error. The xml documents claims to use UTF-8 encoding but that does not seem to be the case. Here is what the troublesome text looks like when I view the XML in Firefox: Bleach: The Diamond Dust Rebellion - MÅ? Hitotsu no HyÅ?rinmaru; Bleach - The DiamondDust Rebellion - Mou Hitotsu no Hyourinmaru On the actual website, Å? is actually the character o. <br /> One day, Doraemon and his friends meet Professor Mangetsu (æº?æ??å??ç??, Professor Mangetsu?), who studies magic and magical beings such as goblins, and his daughter Miyoko (ç¾?å¤?å­?, Miyoko?), and are warned of the dangerous approximation of the &quot;star of the Underworld&quot; to the Earth&#039;s orbit.<br /> <br /> And once again, on the actual website, those characters appear as ???? and ???. The actual XML file is formatted properly other than those special characters, which certainly do not appear to be using the UTF-8 encoding. Is there a way to get NSXML to parse these XML files?

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• advanced winform framework

  - by alfredo dobrekk

  Hi, i m starting a new project that would basically take input from user and save them to database among about 30 screens, and i would like to find a framework that will allow the maximum number of these features out of the box : .net c#. windows form. unit testing continuous integration screens with lists, combo boxes, text boxes, add, delete, save, cancel that are easy to update when you add a property to your classes or a field to your database. auto completion on controls to help user find its way use of an orm like nhibernate easy multithreading and display of wait screens for user easy undo redo tabbed child windows search forms ability to grant access to some functionnalities according to user profiles mvp/mvvm or whatever design patterns either some code generation from database to c# classe or generation of database schema from c# classes some kind of database versioning / upgrade to easily update database when i release patches to application once in production code metrics analysis some code generator i can use against my entities that would generate some rough form i can rearrange after code documentation generator ... Any ideas ? I know its lot but i really would like to use existing code to build upon so i can focus on business rules. Do u have any suggestion to add to the list before starting ? What open source tools would u use to achieve these ?

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• Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

  - by andrej351

  Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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• Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

  - by jpierson

  I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

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• Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

  - by user1071914

  I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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• Picking good first estimates for Goldschmidt division

  - by Mads Elvheim

  I'm calculating fixedpoint reciprocals in Q22.10 with Goldschmidt division for use in my software rasterizer on ARM. This is done by just setting the nominator to 1, i.e the nominator becomes the scalar on the first iteration. To be honest, I'm kind of following the wikipedia algorithm blindly here. The article says that if the denominator is scaled in the half-open range (0.5, 1.0], a good first estimate can be based on the denominator alone: Let F be the estimated scalar and D be the denominator, then F = 2 - D. But when doing this, I lose a lot of precision. Say if I want to find the reciprocal of 512.00002f. In order to scale the number down, I lose 10 bits of precision in the fraction part, which is shifted out. So, my questions are: Is there a way to pick a better estimate which does not require normalization? Also, is it possible to pre-calculate the first estimates so the series converges faster? Right now, it converges after the 4th iteration on average. On ARM this is about ~50 cycles worst case, and that's not taking emulation of clz/bsr into account, nor memory lookups. Here is my testcase. Note: The software implementation of clz on line 13 is from my post here. You can replace it with an intrinsic if you want. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> const unsigned int BASE = 22ULL; static unsigned int divfp(unsigned int val, int* iter) { /* Nominator, denominator, estimate scalar and previous denominator */ unsigned long long N,D,F, DPREV; int bitpos; *iter = 1; D = val; /* Get the shift amount + is right-shift, - is left-shift. */ bitpos = 31 - clz(val) - BASE; /* Normalize into the half-range (0.5, 1.0] */ if(0 < bitpos) D >>= bitpos; else D <<= (-bitpos); /* (FNi / FDi) == (FN(i+1) / FD(i+1)) */ /* F = 2 - D */ F = (2ULL<<BASE) - D; /* N = F for the first iteration, because the nominator is simply 1. So don't waste a 64-bit UMULL on a multiply with 1 */ N = F; D = ((unsigned long long)D*F)>>BASE; while(1){ DPREV = D; F = (2<<(BASE)) - D; D = ((unsigned long long)D*F)>>BASE; /* Bail when we get the same value for two denominators in a row. This means that the error is too small to make any further progress. */ if(D == DPREV) break; N = ((unsigned long long)N*F)>>BASE; *iter = *iter + 1; } if(0 < bitpos) N >>= bitpos; else N <<= (-bitpos); return N; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { double fv, fa; int iter; unsigned int D, result; sscanf(argv[1], "%lf", &fv); D = fv*(double)(1<<BASE); result = divfp(D, &iter); fa = (double)result / (double)(1UL << BASE); printf("Value: %8.8lf 1/value: %8.8lf FP value: 0x%.8X\n", fv, fa, result); printf("iteration: %d\n",iter); return 0; }

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• CGContextDrawImage returning bad access

  - by Marcelo

  Hello guys, I've been trying to blend two UIImage for about 2 days now and I've been getting some BAD_ACCESS errors. First of all, I have two images that have the same orientation, basically I'm using the CoreGraphics to do the blending. One curious detail, everytime I modify the code, the first time I compile and run it on device, I get to do everything I want without any sort of trouble. Once I restart the application, I get error and the program shuts down. Can anyone give me a light? I tried accessing the baseImage sizes dynamically, but it gives me bad access too. Here's a snippet of how I'm doing the blending. UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(320, 480)); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, 480); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [baseImage CGImage]); CGContextSetBlendMode(context, kCGBlendModeOverlay); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [tmpImage CGImage]); [transformationView setImage:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext();

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• XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

  - by maharaj

  Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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