Search Results

Search found 21331 results on 854 pages for 'require once'.

Page 711/854 | < Previous Page | 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718  | Next Page >

  • word game ???? help please

    - by lolo
    Implement the “Word Decoder” game. This game will present the player with a series of scrambled words (up to 20 words) and challenge him/her to attempt to unscramble them. Each time a new word is displayed, and a text input is provided for the user to write the unscrambled word. Once the player thinks the word has been properly decoded, he clicks on the “Check answer” button. If the player’s answer is correct, his score is increased by one. If his answer is not correct, he is notified and he is then given a different word. For example: The word “tac” is displayed. The user inputs “cat”. The answer is correct, and the user’s score is 1. The word “niol” is then displayed. The user inputs “oinl”. The answer is not correct, the user is alerted, and the score stays the same. The game then displays the next word and so on. After the last word, the final score is given to the player. can you help me please???

    Read the article

  • Tomcat deploy: make included scripts executable

    - by AlexS
    I'm devellopping a WebApplication (for Tomcat) using netbeans on Windows 7. For the Webapplication to run I need to run a insall-script once. This script (*.bat for windows and *.sh for linux is included in my war-file (WEB_INF). Now everytime I deploy the WAR-file and want to run the script on linux I have to call chmod +x install.sh first. Is there a way that this script can be made executable by default? I don't want to have to execute some extra commands after the deploy to make the script executable. For clarification: I'm not new to Linux and I know how to set executable-rights on files. That's not the problem. My problem is: What do I have to do, so that this script is executable right after tomcat deployed my *.war-file (unpacked it). If I would be using Linux for development as well, I would try to set the rights according in my sources (maybe I'll try it when I have a little more spare time). But I am using Windows and netbeans. Are there any attributes I can set to achive my goal, or is it possible to achive this using ant? By the way: Are there security related issues with this approach? The script looks for java executable and calls a javabased GUI-installer...

    Read the article

  • How to write a flexible modular program with good interaction possibilities between modules?

    - by PeterK
    I went through answers on similar topics here on SO but could't find a satisfying answer. Since i know this is a rather large topic, i will try to be more specific. I want to write a program which processes files. The processing is nontrivial, so the best way is to split different phases into standalone modules which then would be used as necessary (since sometimes i will be only interested in the output of module A, sometimes i would need output of five other modules, etc). The thing is, that i need the modules to cooperate, because the output of one might be the input of another. And i need it to be FAST. Moreover i want to avoid doing certain processing more than once (if module A creates some data which then need to be processed by module B and C, i don't want to run module A twice to create the input for modules B,C ). The information the modules need to share would mostly be blocks of binary data and/or offsets into the processed files. The task of the main program would be quite simple - just parse arguments, run required modules (and perhaps give some output, or should this be the task of the modules?). I don't need the modules to be loaded at runtime. It's perfectly fine to have libs with a .h file and recompile the program every time there is a new module or some module is updated. The idea of modules is here mainly because of code readability, maintaining and to be able to have more people working on different modules without the need to have some predefined interface or whatever (on the other hand, some "guidelines" on how to write the modules would be probably required, i know that). We can assume that the file processing is a read-only operation, the original file is not changed. Could someone point me in a good direction on how to do this in C++ ? Any advice is wellcome (links, tutorials, pdf books...).

    Read the article

  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

    Read the article

  • CGContextDrawImage returning bad access

    - by Marcelo
    Hello guys, I've been trying to blend two UIImage for about 2 days now and I've been getting some BAD_ACCESS errors. First of all, I have two images that have the same orientation, basically I'm using the CoreGraphics to do the blending. One curious detail, everytime I modify the code, the first time I compile and run it on device, I get to do everything I want without any sort of trouble. Once I restart the application, I get error and the program shuts down. Can anyone give me a light? I tried accessing the baseImage sizes dynamically, but it gives me bad access too. Here's a snippet of how I'm doing the blending. UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(320, 480)); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, 480); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [baseImage CGImage]); CGContextSetBlendMode(context, kCGBlendModeOverlay); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [tmpImage CGImage]); [transformationView setImage:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext();

    Read the article

  • How do I programatically verify, create, and update SQL table structure?

    - by JYelton
    Scenario: I have an application (C#) that expects a SQL database and login, which are set by a user. Once connected, it checks for the existence of several table and creates them if not found. I'd like to expand on this by having the program be capable of adding columns to those tables if I release a new version of the program which relies upon the new columns. Question: What is the best way to programatically check the structure of an existing SQL table and create or update it to match an expected structure? I am planning to iterate through the list of required columns and alter the existing table whenever it does not contain the new column. I can't help but wonder if there's an approach that is different or better. Criteria: Here are some of my expectations and self-imposed rules: Newer versions of the program might no longer use certain columns, but they would be retained for data logging purposes. In other words, no columns will be removed. Existing data in the table must be preserved, so the table cannot simply be dropped and recreated. In all cases, newly added columns would allow null data, so the population of old records is taken care of by having default null values. Example: Here is a sample table (because visual examples help!): id sensor_name sensor_status x1 x2 x3 x4 1 na019 OK 0.01 0.21 1.41 1.22 Then, in a new version, I may want to add the column x5. The "x-columns" are all data-storage columns that accept null.

    Read the article

  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

    Read the article

  • django-cms lighttpd redirect domain to url

    - by Robert
    Hello, I am using djano-cms for my site, but instead of language alias /en/ /de/ I need to use another domain. I would like to avoid running multiple django instances, and instead I would like to use lighttpd redirects if possible. I would like requests coming to domain2.com getting data from domain.com/en . The best would be if the user entering: domain2.com/offer got transparently data from domain.com/en/offer Tried many solutions with url.redirect, url.rewrite but none seems to work as desired. Also tried with: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/261904/matching-domains-with-regex-for-lighttpd-mod-evhost-www-domain-com-domain-com but that didn't work. Please help. This is my lighttpd configuration. $HTTP["host"] == "^domain2\.com" { url.redirect = ("^/(.*)" => "http://domain.com/en/$1") } $HTTP["host"] =~ "^domain\.com" { server.document-root = "/var/www/django/projects/domain/" accesslog.filename = "/var/log/lighttpd/domain.log-access.log" server.errorlog = "/var/log/lighttpd/www.domain-error.log" fastcgi.server = ( "/domain-service.fcgi" => ( "main" => ( "socket" => "/tmp/django-domain.sock", "check-local" => "disable", ) ), ) alias.url = ( "/media/" => "/var/www/django/projects/domain/media/", ) url.rewrite-once = ( "^(/site_media.*)$" => "$1", "^(/media.*)$" => "$1", "^/favicon\.ico$" => "/media/favicon.ico", "^(/.*)$" => "/domain-service.fcgi$1", } Thanks

    Read the article

  • Getting the ranking of a photo in SQL

    - by Jake Petroules
    I have the following tables: Photos [ PhotoID, CategoryID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID ] Categories [ CategoryID, ... ] PK [ CategoryID ] Votes [ PhotoID, UserID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID, UserID ] A photo belongs to one category. A category may contain many photos. A user may vote once on any photo. A photo can be voted for by many users. I want to select the ranks of a photo (by counting how many votes it has) both overall and within the scope of the category that photo belongs to. The count of SELECT * FROM Votes WHERE PhotoID = @PhotoID being the number of votes a photo has. I want the resulting table to have generated columns for overall rank, and rank within category, so that I may order the results by either. So for example, the resulting table from the query should look like: PhotoID VoteCount RankOverall RankInCategory 1 48 1 7 3 45 2 5 19 33 3 1 2 17 4 3 7 9 5 5 ... ...you get the idea. How can I achieve this? So far I've got the following query to retrieve the vote counts, but I need to generate the ranks as well: SELECT PhotoID, UserID, CategoryID, DateUploaded, (SELECT COUNT(CommentID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.Comments WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS CommentCount, (SELECT COUNT(PhotoID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.PhotoVotes WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS VoteCount, Comments FROM dbo.Photos

    Read the article

  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

    Read the article

  • Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

    - by dantastic
    I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

    Read the article

  • protocol parsing in c

    - by nomad.alien
    I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Picking good first estimates for Goldschmidt division

    - by Mads Elvheim
    I'm calculating fixedpoint reciprocals in Q22.10 with Goldschmidt division for use in my software rasterizer on ARM. This is done by just setting the nominator to 1, i.e the nominator becomes the scalar on the first iteration. To be honest, I'm kind of following the wikipedia algorithm blindly here. The article says that if the denominator is scaled in the half-open range (0.5, 1.0], a good first estimate can be based on the denominator alone: Let F be the estimated scalar and D be the denominator, then F = 2 - D. But when doing this, I lose a lot of precision. Say if I want to find the reciprocal of 512.00002f. In order to scale the number down, I lose 10 bits of precision in the fraction part, which is shifted out. So, my questions are: Is there a way to pick a better estimate which does not require normalization? Also, is it possible to pre-calculate the first estimates so the series converges faster? Right now, it converges after the 4th iteration on average. On ARM this is about ~50 cycles worst case, and that's not taking emulation of clz/bsr into account, nor memory lookups. Here is my testcase. Note: The software implementation of clz on line 13 is from my post here. You can replace it with an intrinsic if you want. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> const unsigned int BASE = 22ULL; static unsigned int divfp(unsigned int val, int* iter) { /* Nominator, denominator, estimate scalar and previous denominator */ unsigned long long N,D,F, DPREV; int bitpos; *iter = 1; D = val; /* Get the shift amount + is right-shift, - is left-shift. */ bitpos = 31 - clz(val) - BASE; /* Normalize into the half-range (0.5, 1.0] */ if(0 < bitpos) D >>= bitpos; else D <<= (-bitpos); /* (FNi / FDi) == (FN(i+1) / FD(i+1)) */ /* F = 2 - D */ F = (2ULL<<BASE) - D; /* N = F for the first iteration, because the nominator is simply 1. So don't waste a 64-bit UMULL on a multiply with 1 */ N = F; D = ((unsigned long long)D*F)>>BASE; while(1){ DPREV = D; F = (2<<(BASE)) - D; D = ((unsigned long long)D*F)>>BASE; /* Bail when we get the same value for two denominators in a row. This means that the error is too small to make any further progress. */ if(D == DPREV) break; N = ((unsigned long long)N*F)>>BASE; *iter = *iter + 1; } if(0 < bitpos) N >>= bitpos; else N <<= (-bitpos); return N; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { double fv, fa; int iter; unsigned int D, result; sscanf(argv[1], "%lf", &fv); D = fv*(double)(1<<BASE); result = divfp(D, &iter); fa = (double)result / (double)(1UL << BASE); printf("Value: %8.8lf 1/value: %8.8lf FP value: 0x%.8X\n", fv, fa, result); printf("iteration: %d\n",iter); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

    - by ServAce85
    I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

    Read the article

  • JDBC transaction dead-lock solution required?

    - by user49767
    It's a scenario described my friend and challenged to find solution. He is using Oracle database and JDBC connection with read committed as transaction isolation level. In one of the transaction, he updates a record and executes selects statement and commits the transaction. when everything happening within single thread, things are fine. But when multiple requests are handled, dead-lock happens. Thread-A updates a record. Thread B updates another record. Thread-A issues select statement and waits for Thread-B's transaction to complete the commit operation. Thread-B issues select statement and waits for Thread-A's transaction to complete the commit operation. Now above causes dead-lock. Since they use command pattern, the base framework allows to issue commit only once (at the end of all the db operation), so they are unable to issue commit immediately after select statement. My argument was Thread-A supposed to select all the records which are committed and hence should not be issue. But he said that Thread-A will surely wait till Thread-B commits the record. is that true? What are all the ways, to avoid the above issue? is it possible to change isolation-level? (without changing underlying java framework) Little information about base framework, it is something similar to Struts action, their each and every request handled by one action, transaction begins before execution and commits after execution.

    Read the article

  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

    - by NobleK
    Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

    Read the article

  • Immutable classes in C++

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

    Read the article

  • PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

    Read the article

  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • css: make background repeat-y with growing child content?

    - by mikemikemike
    I Have a three column layout. The center div is a container which holds all of my content. The outer columns is just a .png that fades into the body's background (left and right respectively). I want the .png to repeat-y to grow with the center container's content. It will only print the image once, and ignores the repeat-y. If I specify a height to the outside columns, it will print, but only to the specified height. I tried height: 100%, which does not work. Here is my code: #ultra_contain { text-align:left; width:900px; padding: 0px; position:relative; margin:0px auto; margin-top:0px; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientleft { float:left; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_left.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientright { float:right; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_right.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #container { text-align:left; width:700px; position:relative; margin:5px auto; margin-top:0px; background:#fff; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ }

    Read the article

  • What database systems should an startup company consider?

    - by Am
    Right now I'm developing the prototype of a web application that aggregates large number of text entries from a large number of users. This data must be frequently displayed back and often updated. At the moment I store the content inside a MySQL database and use NHibernate ORM layer to interact with the DB. I've got a table defined for users, roles, submissions, tags, notifications and etc. I like this solution because it works well and my code looks nice and sane, but I'm also worried about how MySQL will perform once the size of our database reaches a significant number. I feel that it may struggle performing join operations fast enough. This has made me think about non-relational database system such as MongoDB, CouchDB, Cassandra or Hadoop. Unfortunately I have no experience with either. I've read some good reviews on MongoDB and it looks interesting. I'm happy to spend the time and learn if one turns out to be the way to go. I'd much appreciate any one offering points or issues to consider when going with none relational dbms?

    Read the article

  • Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

    - by drovani
    We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718  | Next Page >