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• Tomcat deploy: make included scripts executable

  - by AlexS

  I'm devellopping a WebApplication (for Tomcat) using netbeans on Windows 7. For the Webapplication to run I need to run a insall-script once. This script (*.bat for windows and *.sh for linux is included in my war-file (WEB_INF). Now everytime I deploy the WAR-file and want to run the script on linux I have to call chmod +x install.sh first. Is there a way that this script can be made executable by default? I don't want to have to execute some extra commands after the deploy to make the script executable. For clarification: I'm not new to Linux and I know how to set executable-rights on files. That's not the problem. My problem is: What do I have to do, so that this script is executable right after tomcat deployed my *.war-file (unpacked it). If I would be using Linux for development as well, I would try to set the rights according in my sources (maybe I'll try it when I have a little more spare time). But I am using Windows and netbeans. Are there any attributes I can set to achive my goal, or is it possible to achive this using ant? By the way: Are there security related issues with this approach? The script looks for java executable and calls a javabased GUI-installer...

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• CGContextDrawImage returning bad access

  - by Marcelo

  Hello guys, I've been trying to blend two UIImage for about 2 days now and I've been getting some BAD_ACCESS errors. First of all, I have two images that have the same orientation, basically I'm using the CoreGraphics to do the blending. One curious detail, everytime I modify the code, the first time I compile and run it on device, I get to do everything I want without any sort of trouble. Once I restart the application, I get error and the program shuts down. Can anyone give me a light? I tried accessing the baseImage sizes dynamically, but it gives me bad access too. Here's a snippet of how I'm doing the blending. UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(320, 480)); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, 480); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [baseImage CGImage]); CGContextSetBlendMode(context, kCGBlendModeOverlay); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [tmpImage CGImage]); [transformationView setImage:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext();

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• Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

  - by dantastic

  I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

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• wmd editor, why does it keep showing html instead of just going straight to markup

  - by Ke

  hi, im wondering how wmd is supposed to work, when i type in the textarea the text doesnt have html, but once the text is stored in db it turns to html. wmd also shows all this html when reloading the content? is it supposed to work like this? Do I have to sanitize the text before its put into the db? if so how? I thought wmd doesnt deal with html? except in code blocks. Also there are p tags being added Using the beneath html it gets added directly. I guess this could cause xss attacks? - (1) <a onmouseover="alert(1)" href="#">read this!</a> - (2) <p <script>alert(1)</script>hello - (3) </td <script>alert(1)</script>hello I wonder how is wmd supposed to work? I thought it was supposed to enter everything in its own mark up, store its on mark up and retrieve it etc. instead of storing plain html Chees Ke

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• How to write a flexible modular program with good interaction possibilities between modules?

  - by PeterK

  I went through answers on similar topics here on SO but could't find a satisfying answer. Since i know this is a rather large topic, i will try to be more specific. I want to write a program which processes files. The processing is nontrivial, so the best way is to split different phases into standalone modules which then would be used as necessary (since sometimes i will be only interested in the output of module A, sometimes i would need output of five other modules, etc). The thing is, that i need the modules to cooperate, because the output of one might be the input of another. And i need it to be FAST. Moreover i want to avoid doing certain processing more than once (if module A creates some data which then need to be processed by module B and C, i don't want to run module A twice to create the input for modules B,C ). The information the modules need to share would mostly be blocks of binary data and/or offsets into the processed files. The task of the main program would be quite simple - just parse arguments, run required modules (and perhaps give some output, or should this be the task of the modules?). I don't need the modules to be loaded at runtime. It's perfectly fine to have libs with a .h file and recompile the program every time there is a new module or some module is updated. The idea of modules is here mainly because of code readability, maintaining and to be able to have more people working on different modules without the need to have some predefined interface or whatever (on the other hand, some "guidelines" on how to write the modules would be probably required, i know that). We can assume that the file processing is a read-only operation, the original file is not changed. Could someone point me in a good direction on how to do this in C++ ? Any advice is wellcome (links, tutorials, pdf books...).

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• Java-Eclipse-Spring 3.1 - the fastest way to get familiar with this set

  - by Leron

  I, know almost all of you at some point of your life as a programmer get to the point where you know (more or less) different technologies/languages/IDEs and a times come when you want to get things together and start using them once - more efficient and second - more closely to the real life situation where in fact just knowing Java, or some experience with Eclipse doesn't mean nothing, and what makes you a programmer worth something is the ability to work with the combination of 2 or more combinations. Having this in mind here is my question - what do you think is the optimal way of getting into Java+Eclipse+Spring3.1 world. I've read, and I've read a lot. I started writing real code but almost every step is discovering the wheel again and again, wondering how to do thing you know are some what trivial, but you've missed that one article where this topic was discussed and so on. I don't mind for paying for a good tutorial like for example, after a bit of research I decided that instead of losing a lot of time getting the different parts together I'd rather pay for the videos in http://knpuniversity.com/screencast/starting-in-symfony2-tutorial and save myself a lot of time (I hope) and get as fast as possible to writing a real code instead of wondering what do what and so on. But I find it much more difficult to find such sources of info especially when you want something more specific as me and that's the reason to ask this question. I know a lot of you go through the hard way, and I won't give up if I have to do the same, but to be honest I really hope to get post with good tutorials on the subject (paid or not) because in my situation time is literally money. Thanks Leron

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• Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

  - by ServAce85

  I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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• Getting the ranking of a photo in SQL

  - by Jake Petroules

  I have the following tables: Photos [ PhotoID, CategoryID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID ] Categories [ CategoryID, ... ] PK [ CategoryID ] Votes [ PhotoID, UserID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID, UserID ] A photo belongs to one category. A category may contain many photos. A user may vote once on any photo. A photo can be voted for by many users. I want to select the ranks of a photo (by counting how many votes it has) both overall and within the scope of the category that photo belongs to. The count of SELECT * FROM Votes WHERE PhotoID = @PhotoID being the number of votes a photo has. I want the resulting table to have generated columns for overall rank, and rank within category, so that I may order the results by either. So for example, the resulting table from the query should look like: PhotoID VoteCount RankOverall RankInCategory 1 48 1 7 3 45 2 5 19 33 3 1 2 17 4 3 7 9 5 5 ... ...you get the idea. How can I achieve this? So far I've got the following query to retrieve the vote counts, but I need to generate the ranks as well: SELECT PhotoID, UserID, CategoryID, DateUploaded, (SELECT COUNT(CommentID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.Comments WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS CommentCount, (SELECT COUNT(PhotoID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.PhotoVotes WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS VoteCount, Comments FROM dbo.Photos

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• How do I programatically verify, create, and update SQL table structure?

  - by JYelton

  Scenario: I have an application (C#) that expects a SQL database and login, which are set by a user. Once connected, it checks for the existence of several table and creates them if not found. I'd like to expand on this by having the program be capable of adding columns to those tables if I release a new version of the program which relies upon the new columns. Question: What is the best way to programatically check the structure of an existing SQL table and create or update it to match an expected structure? I am planning to iterate through the list of required columns and alter the existing table whenever it does not contain the new column. I can't help but wonder if there's an approach that is different or better. Criteria: Here are some of my expectations and self-imposed rules: Newer versions of the program might no longer use certain columns, but they would be retained for data logging purposes. In other words, no columns will be removed. Existing data in the table must be preserved, so the table cannot simply be dropped and recreated. In all cases, newly added columns would allow null data, so the population of old records is taken care of by having default null values. Example: Here is a sample table (because visual examples help!): id sensor_name sensor_status x1 x2 x3 x4 1 na019 OK 0.01 0.21 1.41 1.22 Then, in a new version, I may want to add the column x5. The "x-columns" are all data-storage columns that accept null.

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• css: make background repeat-y with growing child content?

  - by mikemikemike

  I Have a three column layout. The center div is a container which holds all of my content. The outer columns is just a .png that fades into the body's background (left and right respectively). I want the .png to repeat-y to grow with the center container's content. It will only print the image once, and ignores the repeat-y. If I specify a height to the outside columns, it will print, but only to the specified height. I tried height: 100%, which does not work. Here is my code: #ultra_contain { text-align:left; width:900px; padding: 0px; position:relative; margin:0px auto; margin-top:0px; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientleft { float:left; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_left.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientright { float:right; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_right.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #container { text-align:left; width:700px; position:relative; margin:5px auto; margin-top:0px; background:#fff; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ }

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• word game ???? help please

  - by lolo

  Implement the “Word Decoder” game. This game will present the player with a series of scrambled words (up to 20 words) and challenge him/her to attempt to unscramble them. Each time a new word is displayed, and a text input is provided for the user to write the unscrambled word. Once the player thinks the word has been properly decoded, he clicks on the “Check answer” button. If the player’s answer is correct, his score is increased by one. If his answer is not correct, he is notified and he is then given a different word. For example: The word “tac” is displayed. The user inputs “cat”. The answer is correct, and the user’s score is 1. The word “niol” is then displayed. The user inputs “oinl”. The answer is not correct, the user is alerted, and the score stays the same. The game then displays the next word and so on. After the last word, the final score is given to the player. can you help me please???

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• Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

  - by alku83

  I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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• regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

  - by corroded

  I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

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• Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

  - by drovani

  We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

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• JDBC transaction dead-lock solution required?

  - by user49767

  It's a scenario described my friend and challenged to find solution. He is using Oracle database and JDBC connection with read committed as transaction isolation level. In one of the transaction, he updates a record and executes selects statement and commits the transaction. when everything happening within single thread, things are fine. But when multiple requests are handled, dead-lock happens. Thread-A updates a record. Thread B updates another record. Thread-A issues select statement and waits for Thread-B's transaction to complete the commit operation. Thread-B issues select statement and waits for Thread-A's transaction to complete the commit operation. Now above causes dead-lock. Since they use command pattern, the base framework allows to issue commit only once (at the end of all the db operation), so they are unable to issue commit immediately after select statement. My argument was Thread-A supposed to select all the records which are committed and hence should not be issue. But he said that Thread-A will surely wait till Thread-B commits the record. is that true? What are all the ways, to avoid the above issue? is it possible to change isolation-level? (without changing underlying java framework) Little information about base framework, it is something similar to Struts action, their each and every request handled by one action, transaction begins before execution and commits after execution.

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• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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• Checking if an SSH tunnel is up and running

  - by Jarmund

  I have a perl script which, when destilled a bit, looks like this: my $randport = int(10000 + rand(1000)); # Random port as other scripts like this run at the same time my $localip = '192.168.100.' . ($port - 4000); # Don't ask... backwards compatibility system("ssh -NL $randport:$localip:23 root\@$ip -o ConnectTimeout=60 -i somekey &"); # create the tunnel in the background sleep 10; # Give the tunnel some time to come up # Create the telnet object my $telnet = new Net::Telnet( Timeout => 10, Host => 'localhost', Port => $randport, Telnetmode => 0, Errmode => \&fail, ); # SNIPPED... a bunch of parsing data from $telnet The thing is that the target $ip is on a link with very unpredictable bandwidth, so the tunnel might come up right away, it might take a while, it might not come up at all. So a sleep is necessary to give the tunnel some time to get up and running. So the question is: How can i test if the tunnel is up and running? 10 seconds is a really undesirable delay if the tunnel comes up straight away. Ideally, i would like to check if it's up and continue with creating the telnet object once it is, to a maximum of, say, 30 seconds.

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• Have to click twice to submit the form in IE8

  - by phil

  A very peculiar bug in a simple html form. After changing an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. Button is focused after clicking once, but form is not submitted. It's only this way in IE8 and works fine in Chrome and FF. PAY ATTENTION TO 'g^' right before <select>. It has to be a letter or number followed by a symbol to generate this bug. For example, 'a#','f$','3(' all create the same bug. Otherwise it works fine. BTW, if you don't change option and click button right away,there won't be any bug. Very strange, huh? <form method="post" action="match.php"> g^ <select> <option>Select</option> <option>English</option> <option>French</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Go" /> </form>

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• How add class='active' to html menu with php

  - by meow

  Hello I want to put my html navigation in a separate php file so when I need to edit it, I only have to edit it once. The problem starts when I want to add the class active to the active page. I've got three pages and one common file. common.php : <?php $nav = <<<EOD <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a <? if($page == 'one'): ?> class="active"<? endif ?> href="index.php">Tab1</a>/</li> <li><a href="two.php">Tab2</a></li> <li><a href="three.php">Tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> EOD; ?> index.php : All three pages are identical except their $page is different on each page. <?php $page = 'one'; require_once('common.php'); ?> <html> <head></head> <body> <?php echo $nav; ?> </body> </html> This simply won't work unless I put my nav on each page, but then the whole purpose of separating the nav from all pages is ruined. Is what I want to accomplish even possible? What am I doing wrong? Thanks EDIT: When doing this, the php code inside the li don't seem to run, it's just being printed as if it was html

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• Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

  - by Guenther Jehle

  I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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• NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

  - by rdelmar

  I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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• PHP curl timing mismatch

  - by JonoB

  I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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• django-cms lighttpd redirect domain to url

  - by Robert

  Hello, I am using djano-cms for my site, but instead of language alias /en/ /de/ I need to use another domain. I would like to avoid running multiple django instances, and instead I would like to use lighttpd redirects if possible. I would like requests coming to domain2.com getting data from domain.com/en . The best would be if the user entering: domain2.com/offer got transparently data from domain.com/en/offer Tried many solutions with url.redirect, url.rewrite but none seems to work as desired. Also tried with: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/261904/matching-domains-with-regex-for-lighttpd-mod-evhost-www-domain-com-domain-com but that didn't work. Please help. This is my lighttpd configuration. $HTTP["host"] == "^domain2\.com" { url.redirect = ("^/(.*)" => "http://domain.com/en/$1") } $HTTP["host"] =~ "^domain\.com" { server.document-root = "/var/www/django/projects/domain/" accesslog.filename = "/var/log/lighttpd/domain.log-access.log" server.errorlog = "/var/log/lighttpd/www.domain-error.log" fastcgi.server = ( "/domain-service.fcgi" => ( "main" => ( "socket" => "/tmp/django-domain.sock", "check-local" => "disable", ) ), ) alias.url = ( "/media/" => "/var/www/django/projects/domain/media/", ) url.rewrite-once = ( "^(/site_media.*)$" => "$1", "^(/media.*)$" => "$1", "^/favicon\.ico$" => "/media/favicon.ico", "^(/.*)$" => "/domain-service.fcgi$1", } Thanks

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• Immutable classes in C++

  - by ereOn

  Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

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• PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

  - by Marco Demaio

  When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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