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• Getting Preferred, Varied Products -- Tough Pseudocode Question

  - by Volomike

  I have a Dallas client who has given me a tough process to work out. I'm seeking your advice. I use PHP, but the language doesn't matter. We can work this out in pseudocode. In a nutshell, this involves showing products on a page based on matching keyword phrases, and using a preferred product provider, but varying this up so that I try to show products from each provider as much as possible when I can. He has 3 product companies: Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. I already have worked out with the API to get products back in an array via a function. He wants to give the user the preference of which one to use primarily -- so a priority number on each. He wants to display anywhere from 1 to 6 products on a page from them. Let's go with 6 for now in this example to start with. Let's assume Amazon first, then eBay, then Overstock as far as priority. He wants me to attempt to take a keyword phrase and find relevant products (all the keywords found in product title) from Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. If we find 1 product from each provider, he wants me to only display one product from each. But if we run out of a particular provider with a matching product, I start over again and grab another product from another provider until we reach 6 products. If there just aren't 6 relevant products, then I do the best I can -- even if I only display one product. If no relevant products, then I don't display anything.

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• dynamical binding or switch/case?

  - by kingkai

  A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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• Regular expression, excluding .. in suffix of email addy

  - by user1754700

  This is homework, I've been working on it for a while, I've done lots of reading and feel I have gotten pretty familiar with regex for a beginner. I am trying to find a regular expression for validating/invalidating a list of emails. There are two addresses which are giving me problems, I can't get them both to validate the correct way at the same time. I've gone through a dozen different expressions that work for all the other emails on the list but I can't get those two at the same time. First, the addresses. [email protected] - invalid [email protected] - valid The part of my expression which validates the suffix I originally started with @.+\\.[[a-z]0-9]+ And had a second pattern for checking some more invalid addresses and checked the email against both patterns, one checked for validity the other invalidity but my professor said he wanted it all in on expression. @[[\\w]+\\.[\\w]+]+ or @[\\w]+\\.[\\w]+ I've tried it written many, many different ways but I'm pretty sure I was just using different syntax to express these two expressions. I know what I want it to do, I want it to match a character class of "character+"."character+"+ The plus sign being at least one. It works for the invalid class when I only allow the character class to repeat one time(and obviously the ip doesn't get matched), but when I allow the character class to repeat itself it matches the second period even thought it isn't preceded by a character. I don't understand why.

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• Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

  - by ReynierPM

  I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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• Best practices for withstanding launch day traffic burst

  - by Sam McAfee

  We are working on a website for a client that (for once) is expected to get a fair amount of traffic on day one. There are press releases, people are blogging about it, etc. I am a little concerned that we're going to fall flat on our face on day one. What are the main things you would look at to ensure (in advance without real traffic data) that you can stay standing after a big launch. Details: This is a L/A/M/PHP stack, using an internally developed MVC framework. This is currently being launched on one server, with Apache and MySQL both on it, but we can break that up if need be. We are already installing memcached and doing as much PHP-level caching as we can think of. Some of the pages are rather query intensive, and we are using Smarty as our template engine. Keep in mind there is no time to change any of these major aspects--this is the just the setup. What sorts of things should we watch out for?

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• Overloading generic implicit conversions

  - by raichoo

  Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

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• Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

  - by Dean

  I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

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• slideDown() Makes Everything in Wrapper Shift

  - by Ben

  Hello everyone, I am currently creating a simple menu where there are several names of services and a user can click on one and jQuery will show it's corresponding paragraph describing it below it. My jQuery code is fine and does exactly what I want, however, I have one bug I have yet to iron out. Whenever I click one of these headings and it's description displays, everything in the wrapper for the page shifts to the left about 7 pixels in Firefox, it does the same thing is Google Chrome however I have not measured the amout but I am sure it is irrelevant. Anyways, I am using the slideToggle() command to show the hidden parragraph. I assume this is occuring because when the slideDown occurs it is somehow changing the width of everything and the "margin: 0 auto;" setting for the wrapper rule in my css is compensating for this change. Does anyone have any way I can remedy this problem? I have tried several other fixes I've found around the internet but to no avail. Here is what my code looks like, I put it on jsFiddle to make it easier to view: http://jsfiddle.net/vcH7m/ Feel free to edit it there if you like, or post what needs to be fixed here. Whatever is more convenient. Thank you very much for the help!

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• Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

  - by typeof

  I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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• Something about Stream

  - by sforester

  I've been working on something that make use of streams and I found myself not clear about some stream concepts( you can also view another question posted by me at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2933923/about-redirected-stdout-in-system-diagnostics-process ). 1.how do you indicate that you have finished writing a stream, writing something like a EOF? 2.follow the previous question, if I have written a EOF(or something like that) to a stream but didn't close the stream, then I want to write something else to the same stream, can I just start writing to it and no more set up required? 3.if a procedure tries to read a stream(like the stdin ) that no one has written anything to it, the reading procedure will be blocked,finally some data arrives and the procedure will just read till the writing is done,which is indicated by getting a return of 0 count of bytes read rather than being blocked, and now if the procedure issues another read to the same stream, it will still get a 0 count and return immediately while I was expecting it will be blocked since no one is writing to the stream now. So does the stream holds different states when the stream is opened but no one has written to it yet and when someone has finished a writing session? I'm using Windows the .net framework if there will by any thing platform specific. Thanks a lot!

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• convert old repository to mercurial

  - by nedlud

  I've been playing around with different versioning systems to find one I'm comfortable with. I started with SVN (lets call this version of the project "f1"), then changed over to GIT. But I didn't know how to convert the old SVN repo to GIT, so I just copied the folder, deleted the .svn stuff, and turned it into a GIT repo (lets call this copied version "f2"). Now I'm playing around with Mercurial and was very pleased to find that it has a Tortoise client for Windows. I was also please to find how easy it was to convert the GIT repo into Mercurial, so I preserved the history (I still cloned it first, just in case. So I'm calling this hg version "f3"). But now what I'm wondering is: what do I do with the old SVN repo that still holds my history from before I played with GIT? I guess I can convert the old SVN repo to Mercurial, but can I then merge those two histories into the one repository so I have a complete set of histories in one place? In other words, can I prepend f1 to f3?

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• Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

  - by IgorK

  I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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• Updating entity fields in app engine development server

  - by Joey

  I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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• How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

  - by user564226

  Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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• Hibernate collection mapping Problem

  - by Geln Yang

  Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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• Queries within queries: Is there a better way?

  - by mririgo

  As I build bigger, more advanced web applications, I'm finding myself writing extremely long and complex queries. I tend to write queries within queries a lot because I feel making one call to the database from PHP is better than making several and correlating the data. However, anyone who knows anything about SQL knows about JOINs. Personally, I've used a JOIN or two before, but quickly stopped when I discovered using subqueries because it felt easier and quicker for me to write and maintain. Commonly, I'll do subqueries that may contain one or more subqueries from relative tables. Consider this example: SELECT (SELECT username FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS username, (SELECT last_name||', '||first_name FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS name, in_timestamp, out_timestamp FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp Rarely, I'll do subqueries after the WHERE clause. Consider this example: SELECT user_id, (SELECT name FROM organizations WHERE (SELECT organization FROM locations WHERE records.location = location_id) = organization_id) AS organization_name FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp In these two cases, would I see any sort of improvement if I decided to rewrite the queries using a JOIN? As more of a blanket question, what are the advantages/disadvantages of using subqueries or a JOIN? Is one way more correct or accepted than the other?

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• Undefined Web.config error in VS 2008

  - by user1066050

  I'm working on a web app using VS 2008, .Net 3.5 and C#. Most of the projects in the solution are either classic asp.net pages with some MVC 1 in the mix, the rest is shared libraries. The solution is one that is some 5 years old and has gone through a variety of developers working on it and clearly has some performance and architectural issues. Previously, I've been working on the project using VS 2008 on a Win XP machine, but have just transitioned over to a new box using Win 7 Ultimate. To do so, I've installed VS 2008, asp.net 3.5. To support future work on the solution I've also installed VS 2010 and asp.net 4.0. Opening the solution on the new box with VS 2008 works fine, and it builds without error. However, when I attempt to run it with the debugger, I get the following message: "There is an error in web.config. Please correct before proceeding. (You might rename the current web.config and add a new one.)" I think it's clear that there is some sort of environmental issue regarding web.config on the new machine, but the error message is not "helpful". Adding a new web.config is not an option as the existing one is quite long and involved (too much to post here). I'm hoping someone has a suggestion or two about where I might look for missing elements or changed configurations that might produce such an error message. Lacking that, I'll revisit this post and provide the web.config in the hope that will elicit further help. Thanks to all in advance for taking a look at this. The StackOverflow community has helped me many times in the past with pertinent answers although this is my first posting. Jeff

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• How to access child div elements under a given condition with javascript?

  - by hlovdal

  My main question is to calculate the last alert message, but any other information is also welcome. I am trying to learn javascript (to use with greasemonkey later), but I am struggling a bit to grasp the DOM and how to process it. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function my_test() { var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("div"); // prints "found [object HTMLCollection] with length 8" alert("found " + elements + " with length " + elements.length); // prints "0:[object HTMLDivElement]" alert("0:" + elements[0]); // how to calculate the following? alert("for intereting one is AAAA and three is CCCC"); } </script> </head> <body> <div class="interesing"> <div class="one">AAAA</div> <div class="two">BBBB</div> <div class="three">CCCC</div> </div> <div class="boring"> <div class="one">1111</div> <div class="two">2222</div> <div class="three">3333</div> </div> <input type="button" onclick="my_test()" value="my test" </body> </html> So elements is now an array of elements and I can access each of them individually. But where can I find what methods/properties these elements have?

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• Update a list of things without hitting every entry

  - by bobobobo

  I have a list in a database that the user should be able to order. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- salad | 1 mango | 2 orange | 3 apples | 4 On load from the database, I simply order by order_value. By drag 'n drop, he should be able to move apples so that it appears at the top of the list.. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- apples | 4 salad | 1 mango | 2 orange | 3 Ok. So now internally I have to update EVERY LIST ITEM! If the list has 20 or 100 items, that's a lot of updates for a simple drag operation. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- apples | 1 salad | 2 mango | 3 orange | 4 I'd rather do it with only one update. One way I thought of is if "internal Order" is a double value. itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- salad | 1.0 mango | 2.0 orange | 3.0 apples | 4.0 SO after the drag n' drop operation, I assign apples has a value that is less than the item it is to appear in front of: itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- apples | 0.5 salad | 1.0 mango | 2.0 orange | 3.0 .. and if an item is dragged into the middle somewhere, its order_value is bigger than the one it appears after .. here I moved orange to be between salad and mango: itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- apples | 0.5 salad | 1.0 orange | 1.5 mango | 2.0 Any thoughts on better ways to do this?

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• active record relations – who needs it?

  - by M2_

  Well, I`m confused about rails queries. For example: Affiche belongs_to :place Place has_many :affiches We can do this now: @affiches = Affiche.all( :joins => :place ) or @affiches = Affiche.all( :include => :place ) and we will get a lot of extra SELECTs, if there are many affiches: Place Load (0.2ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 3 LIMIT 1 Place Load (0.3ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 3 LIMIT 1 Place Load (0.8ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 444 LIMIT 1 Place Load (1.0ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE "places"."id" = 222 LIMIT 1 ...and so on... And (sic!) with :joins used every SELECT is doubled! Technically we cloud just write like this: @affiches = Affiche.all( ) and the result is totally the same! (Because we have relations declared). The wayout of keeping all data in one query is removing the relations and writing a big string with "LEFT OUTER JOIN", but still there is a problem of grouping data in multy-dimentional array and a problem of similar column names, such as id. What is done wrong? Or what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, i have that string Place Load (2.5ms) SELECT "places".* FROM "places" WHERE ("places"."id" IN (3,444,222,57,663,32,154,20)) and a list of selects one by one id. Strange, but I get these separate selects when I`m doing this in each scope: <%= link_to a.place.name, **a.place**( :id => a.place.friendly_id ) %> the marked a.place is the spot, that produces these extra queries.

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• Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

  - by JaJ

  When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

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• Mysql Performance Question - Essentially about normalizing efficiency

  - by freqmode

  Hi there. Just a quick question about database performance. I'll outline my site purpose below as background. I'm creating a dictionary site that saves the words users define to a database. What I'm wondering is whether or not to create a words table for each user or to keep one massive words table. This site will be used for entire schools so the single words table would be massive! The database structure is as follows: A user table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Username First Last Password Email Country Research Standings SendInfo Donated JoinedOn LastLogin Logins Correct Attempts Admin Active And one word table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Word Vocab Spell Defined DefinedAttempted Spelled SpelledAttempted Sentenced SentencedAttempted So what I'm asking is , performance-wise, should I create a new table for each user when they join the site - each user could have hundreds or thousands of words over time? Or is it better to have one massive table with thousands and thousands of records and filter by User_ID. I don't think I'll perform many table joins. My gut feeling is to create a new table for each user, but I thought I'd ask for expert advice! Thanks in advance.

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• Which database I can used and relationship in it ??

  - by mimo-hamad

  My projece make me confused which I didn't find clear things that make me understand the required database and the relationships in it So, would a super one help me to solve it ?!! ;D this is required: 1) Model the data stored in the database (Identify the entities, roles, relationships, constraints, etc.) 2) Write the Oracle commands to create the database, find appropriate data, and populate the database 3) Write five different queries on your database, using the SELECT/FROM/WHERE construct provided in SQL. Your five queries should illustrate several different aspects of database querying, such as: a. Queries over more than one relation (by listing more than one relation in the FROM clause) b. Queries involving aggregate functions, such as SUM, COUNT, and AVG c. Queries involving complicated selects and joins d. Queries involving GROUP BY, HAVING or other similar functions. e. Queries that require the use of the DISTINCT keyword. And this the condition that we need to determine it to solve the required Q's above : 5) It is desired to develop an Internet membership club to buy products at special prices online. To join, new members must be referred by another existing member of the club. The system will keep the following information for each member: The member ID, referring member, birth date, member name, address, phone, mobile, credit card type, number and expiration date. The items are always shipped to the member's address noted in the membership application. The shipping fees will differ for each order.For each item to be requested, the member will select an item from a long list of possible items. For each item in the database, we store an item ID, an item name, description, and list price. The list price will be different from the actual sale price. The available quantity and the back-ordered quantity (the back-ordered quantity is the quantity on-order by the club from its suppliers) is also noted

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• how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

  - by user151841

  I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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