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• I need to recover an instance of an activity

  - by Bilthon

  Well.. the title is pretty descriptive, I have a bunch of tab activities (which I implemented myself, didn't want to use the tabviews with activities inside them), so It's basically 5 activities calling each other every time the user clicks on the tabs displayed as a row of LinearLayouts at the bottom of the screen. The thing is that the way I do it now, everytime the user jumps from one activity to another, a new activity is created and launched. Of course, I can see I'm wasting resources this way. So what I would like to do is to create every activity only once; and then if the user wants to go back to the previous (or any one that was already created and is probably paused) just check on some kind of list or array to see if the activity can be recovered and only in the case it can't; to lauch a new one. My question is, how can I check this? should I save the intents? and how to recover the activities afterwards? I'm kind of new with java. Greetings Nelson R. Perez

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• Creating multiple instances of a generic database

  - by sagekilla

  Hi all, currently I'm trying to have a setup where a generic database is distributed to students. They would develop an application using this database (Say a shopping cart application), submit their project onto our server, and then it would be graded automatically. These databases are being run in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. We're using user instances to instantiate each database, and multiple requests could be serviced at once. But, the problem is when more than one student submitted a project to be graded, the first database to be instantiated would be the only one and would overwrite all other copies that were currently open. So if stu1 modified his database and stu2 and stu3 had their projects being graded concurrently, at the end of the grading stu1, stu2, and stu3 would have identical DB's at the end. Is there any way I can have multiple independent copies of a generic database, each of which I can load concurrently and modify without having any changes made to any one affecting the others? I did a little reading, and thought it might be possible to do something along the lines of: Student submits project Attach the database with unique db name (specified by student) Do all necessary operations Detach the database I'm unsure if this would fix our problem or be possible, so any help would be much appreciated!

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• In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

  - by Ryan Thompson

  I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

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• Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a class template instantiation?

  - by John

  There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal. I'm assuming someone must have done this in the past, possibly creating custom versions of macros, but I can't find it by searching, since 'template' has other meanings.

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• LINQ to SQL - Insert yielding strange behavior.

  - by Isaac

  Hi, I'm trying to insert several newly created items to the database. I have a LINQ2SQL generated class called "Order". Inside order, there's a property called "OrderItems" which is also generated by LINQ2SQL and represents the Items of that Order. So far so good. The problem I'm having right now, is when I try to add more than one newly created OrderItem inside Order. I.E: Order o = orderWorker.GetById( 10 ); for( int i=0; i < 5; ++i ) { OrderItem oi =new OrderItem { Order = order, Price = 100, ShippingPrice = 100, ShippingMethod = ... }; o.OrderItems.Add( oi ); } context.SubmitChanges(); Unfortunately, only a single entity is being added. Yes, I checked the generated SQL by adding Context.Log = Console.Out, and yes, only one statement was created. Any clues? By the way I know I'm not using InsertOnSubmit, by the documentation says: You can explicitly request Inserts by using InsertOnSubmit. Alternatively, LINQ to SQL can infer Inserts by finding objects connected to one of the known objects that must be updated. For example, if you add an Untracked object to an EntitySet(TEntity) or set an EntityRef(TEntity) to an Untracked object, you make the Untracked object reachable by way of tracked objects in the graph. While processing SubmitChanges, LINQ to SQL traverses the tracked objects and discovers any reachable persistent objects that are not tracked. Such objects are candidates for insertion into the database. Thank you very much for your time.

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• Rails Functional Test Failing Due to Association

  - by Koby

  I have an accounts model that holds some basic account info (account name, website, etc). I then have a user model that has the following in the app/models/user.rb belongs_to :account I also have the following in my routes.rb map.resources :account, :has_many => [:users, :othermodel] the problem I'm facing is that the following test is failing: test "should create user" do assert_difference('User.count') do post :create, :user => { } #this is the line it's actually failing on end assert_redirected_to user_path(assigns(:user)) #it doesn't get here yet end The error it gives is "Can't find Account without ID" so I kind of understand WHY it's failing, because of the fact that it doesn't have the account object (or account_id as it were) to know under what account to create the user. I have tried variations of the following but I am completely lost: post :create, :user => { accounts(:one) } #I have the 'fixtures :accounts' syntax at the top of the test class post :create, [accounts(:one), :user] => { } post :create, :user => { accounts(:one), #other params for :user } and like I said, just about every variation I could think of. I can't find much documentation on doing this and this might be why people have moved to Factories for doing test data, but I want to understand things that come standard in Rails before moving onto other things. Can anyone help me get this working?

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• Conditional references in .NET project, possible to get rid of warning?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have two references to a SQLite assembly, one for 32-bit and one for 64-bit, which looks like this (this is a test project to try to get rid of the warning, don't get hung up on the paths): <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x64' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.61.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=AMD64"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\64-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x86' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=x86"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\32-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> This produces the following warning: Warning 1 The referenced component 'System.Data.SQLite' could not be found. Is it possible for me to get rid of this warning? One way I've looked at it to just configure my project to be 32-bit when I develop, and let the build machine fix the reference when building for 64-bit, but this seems a bit awkward and probably prone to errors. Any other options? The reason I want to get rid of it is that the warning is apparently being picked up by TeamCity and periodically flagged as something I need to look into, so I'd like to get completely rid of it.

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• C++ iterator and const_iterator problem for own container class

  - by BaCh

  Hi there, I'm writing an own container class and have run into a problem I can't get my head around. Here's the bare-bone sample that shows the problem. It consists of a container class and two test classes: one test class using a std:vector which compiles nicely and the second test class which tries to use my own container class in exact the same way but fails miserably to compile. #include <vector> #include <algorithm> #include <iterator> using namespace std; template <typename T> class MyContainer { public: class iterator { public: typedef iterator self_type; inline iterator() { } }; class const_iterator { public: typedef const_iterator self_type; inline const_iterator() { } }; iterator begin() { return iterator(); } const_iterator begin() const { return const_iterator(); } }; // This one compiles ok, using std::vector class TestClassVector { public: void test() { vector<int>::const_iterator I=myc.begin(); } private: vector<int> myc; }; // this one fails to compile. Why? class TestClassMyContainer { public: void test(){ MyContainer<int>::const_iterator I=myc.begin(); } private: MyContainer<int> myc; }; int main(int argc, char ** argv) { return 0; } gcc tells me: test2.C: In member function ‘void TestClassMyContainer::test()’: test2.C:51: error: conversion from ‘MyContainer::iterator’ to non-scalar type ‘MyContainer::const_iterator’ requested I'm not sure where and why the compiler wants to convert an iterator to a const_iterator for my own class but not for the STL vector class. What am I doing wrong?

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• Indirect property notification

  - by Carlo

  Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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• paypal_adaptive gem in Rails: Dynamic Receiver "Population" (Chained Payments)

  - by Jmlevick

  Note: I didn't find a better title for this O.o Hello, Humm... Look, what I want to do is to have a Rails app where a visitor can click a button/link to make a "special" chained payment using Paypal; Currently I have a Users registration form that has one field for the user to enter his/her paypal account email, and as I saw here: http://marker.to/XGg9MR it is possible to specify the primary reciever and the secondary ones by adding such info in a controller action when using the paypal_adaptive gem in a rails app. The thing is, I don't want to hard code the secondary reciever as I need to specify a different secondary reciever from time to time, (being specific my primary reciever will always be the same, but depending on what button/link the visitor clicks, the secondary one is going to change) and I want that secondary reciever email to be the paypal e-mail account from one of the registered users when the visitor clicks on their specific button/link... My question is: Is it possible to create such enviroment functionality in my app using the current implementation of the paypal_adaptive gem? Could someone point me in the right direction on how to accomplish such thing? I'm still learning rails and also I'm really new in the paypal handling universe with this framework! XD P.S. Thanks! :)

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• Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

  - by fuzzygoat

  I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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• Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

  - by Mick

  I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

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• Why do I need to close fds when reading and writing to the pipe?

  - by valentimsousa

  However, what if one of my processes needs to continuously write to the pipe while the other pipe needs to read? This example seems to work only for one write and one read. I need multi read and write void executarComandoURJTAG(int newSock) { int input[2], output[2], estado, d; pid_t pid; char buffer[256]; char linha[1024]; pipe(input); pipe(output); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) {// child close(0); close(1); close(2); dup2(input[0], 0); dup2(output[1], 1); dup2(output[1], 2); close(input[1]); close(output[0]); execlp("jtag", "jtag", NULL); } else { // parent close(input[0]); close(output[1]); do { read(newSock, linha, 1024); /* Escreve o buffer no pipe */ write(input[1], linha, strlen(linha)); close(input[1]); while ((d = read(output[0], buffer, 255))) { //buffer[d] = '\0'; write(newSock, buffer, strlen(buffer)); puts(buffer); } write(newSock, "END", 4); } while (strcmp(linha, "quit") != 0); } }

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• Maven (EJB) project with client and server artifacts

  - by Cornel Masson

  Here's my variation on the "multiple artifacts from Maven build" question: I'm porting from Ant to Maven. My application is an EJB server that is packaged as an EAR, but it also exposes a client JAR for use by other client apps. This jar contains the EJB interfaces, facade class and some helpers. I know that the Maven way is to have one artifact per project (POM); however, both artifacts (server EAR and client JAR) need to be built from the same source tree - server and client share, for example, the EJB and 'home' interfaces. How do I do this in Maven? Do I have one project containing two POMs, say server-pom.xml & client-pom.xml? I was thinking I could also have a parent POM (pom.xml) that can be used to build both client and server with one foul swoop? However, the lifecycles diverge after the 'package' phase, since the server has to go through assembly (tar/gzip), while the client is done after 'package' and can simply be installed into the repository. Any advice/experience on the best way to approach this?

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• VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

  - by MSD

  Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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• Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

  - by Tiago Alves

  As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• allowing bb code but not java script

  - by user1405062

  Hello im trying to get the hang of using bb codes onto my normal php site ( not forum or anything just a normal site ) I have seen a few posts like this one http://www.pixel2life.com/forums/index.php?/topic/10659-php-bbcode-parser/ which says i need a bb parser. I was just wondering can anyone show me how i would use one ? I have a status box were users can update there status but i would like to allow bb codes but not java script. So when im doing my inserting into the db i strip the status like so.. $status= mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['status']); $status2= strip_tags($status); And that stops the java script and tags from getting though but i need the bb code tags to come though but carry on blocking the java script code is there anyway to do this ? Also then i just echo it out echo $status2 ; But just plain text shows so was just wondering if anyone knows how to let though bb code and stop java script and could some one show me how to use the bb parasher ? also need to know how to echo out the bb coding...

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• transferring binary files between systems

  - by tim

  Hi guys I'm trying to transfer my files between 2 UNIX clusters, the data is pure numeric (vectors of double) in binary form. Unfortunately one of the systems is IBM ppc997 and the other is AMD Opteron, It seems the format of binary numbers in these systems are different. I have tried 3 ways till now: 1- Changed my files to ASCII format (i.e. saved a number at each line in a text file), sent them to the destination and changed them again to binary on the target system (they both are UNIX, no end of line character difference??!) 2- Sent pure binaries to the destination 3- used uuencode sent them to the destination and decoded them Unfortunately any of these methods does not work (my code in the destination system generates garbage, while it works on the first system, I'm 100% sure the code itself is portable). I don't know what else I can do? Do you have any idea? I'm not a professional, please don't use computer scientists terminology! And: my codes are in C, so by binary I mean a one to one mapping between memory and hard disk. Thanks

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• Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

  - by Ahmed

  Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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• Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

  - by Matt Rowles

  I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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• Problem with inheritance and List<>

  - by Jagd

  I have an abstract class called Grouping. I have a subclass called GroupingNNA. public class GroupingNNA : Grouping { // blah blah blah } I have a List that contains items of type GroupingNNA, but is actually declared to contain items of type Grouping. List<Grouping> lstGroupings = new List<Grouping>(); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Joe" }); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Jane" }); The Problem: The following LINQ query blows up on me because of the fact that lstGroupings is declared as List< Grouping and fName is a property of GroupingNNA, not Grouping. var results = from g in lstGroupings where r.fName == "Jane" select r; Oh, and this is a compiler error, not a runtime error. Thanks in advance for any help on this one! More Info: Here is the actual method that won't compile. The OfType() fixed the LINQ query, but the compiler doesn't like the fact that I'm trying to return the anonymous type as a List< Grouping. private List<Grouping> ApplyFilterSens(List<Grouping> lstGroupings, string fSens) { // This works now! Thanks @Lasse var filtered = from r in lstGroupings.OfType<GroupingNNA>() where r.QASensitivity == fSens select r; if (filtered != null) { **// Compiler doesn't like this now** return filtered.ToList<Grouping>(); } else return new List<Grouping>(); }

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• Where should test classes be stored in the project?

  - by limc

  I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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• How to identify multiple identical pairs in two vectors

  - by Sacha Epskamp

  In my graph-package (as in graph theory, nodes connected by edges) I have a vector indicating for each edge the node of origin from, a vector indicating for each edge the node of destination to and a vector indicating the curve of each edge curve. By default I want edges to have a curve of 0 if there is only one edge between two nodes and curve of 0.2 if there are two edges between two nodes. The code that I use now is a for-loop, and it is kinda slow: curve <- rep(0,5) from<-c(1,2,3,3,2) to<-c(2,3,4,2,1) for (i in 1:length(from)) { if (any(from==to[i] & to==from[i])) { curve[i]=0.2 } } So basically I look for each edge (one index in from and one in to) if there is any other pair in from and to that use the same nodes (numbers). What I am looking for are two things: A way to identify if there is any pair of nodes that have two edges between them (so I can omit the loop if not) A way to speed up this loop # EDIT: To make this abit clearer, another example: from <- c(4L, 6L, 7L, 8L, 1L, 9L, 5L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 10L, 2L, 6L, 7L, 10L, 4L, 9L) to <- c(1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 7L, 8L, 8L, 8L, 8L, 10L, 10L) cbind(from,to) from to [1,] 4 1 [2,] 6 1 [3,] 7 1 [4,] 8 2 [5,] 1 3 [6,] 9 3 [7,] 5 4 [8,] 1 5 [9,] 2 6 [10,] 1 7 [11,] 10 7 [12,] 2 8 [13,] 6 8 [14,] 7 8 [15,] 10 8 [16,] 4 10 [17,] 9 10 In these two vectors, pair 3 is identical to pair 10 (both 1 and 7 in different orders) and pairs 4 and 12 are identical (both 2 and 8). So I would want curve to become: [1,] 0.0 [2,] 0.0 [3,] 0.2 [4,] 0.2 [5,] 0.0 [6,] 0.0 [7,] 0.0 [8,] 0.0 [9,] 0.0 [10,] 0.2 [11,] 0.0 [12,] 0.2 [13,] 0.0 [14,] 0.0 [15,] 0.0 [16,] 0.0 [17,] 0.0 (as I vector, I transposed twice to get row numbers).

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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