Search Results

Search found 20625 results on 825 pages for 'client'.

Page 737/825 | < Previous Page | 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744  | Next Page >

• Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

  - by abemonkey

  I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

  Read the article

• int.Parse of "8" fails. int.Parse always requires CultureInfo.InvariantCulture?

  - by Henrik Carlsson

  We develop an established software which works fine on all known computers except one. The problem is to parse strings that begin with "8". It seems like "8" in the beginning of a string is a reserved character. Parsing: int.Parse("8") -> Exception message: Input string was not in a correct format. int.Parse("80") -> 0 int.Parse("88") -> 8 int.Parse("8100") -> 100 CurrentCulture: sv-SE CurrentUICulture: en-US The problem is solved using int.Parse("8", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture). However, it would be nice to know the source of the problem. Question: Why do we get this behaviour of "8" if we don't specify invariant culture? Additional information: I did send a small program to my client achieve the result above: private int ParseInt(string s) { int parsedInt = -1000; try { parsedInt = int.Parse(s); textBoxMessage.Text = "Success: " + parsedInt; } catch (Exception ex) { textBoxMessage.Text = string.Format("Error parsing string: '{0}'", s) + Environment.NewLine + "Exception message: " + ex.Message; } textBoxMessage.Text += Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine + "CurrentCulture: " + Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.Name + "\r\n" + "CurrentUICulture: " + Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name + "\r\n"; return parsedInt; }

  Read the article

• How can "today's date" be varied for unit testing purposes?

  - by ck

  I use VS2008 targetting .NET 2.0 Framework, and, just in case, no I can't change this :) I have a DateCalculator class. Its method GetNextExpirationDate attempts to determine the next expiration, internally using DateTime.Today as a baseline date. As I was writing unit tests, I realized that I wanted to test GetNextExpirationDate for different 'today' dates. What's the best way to do this? Here are some alternatives I've considered: Expose a property/overloaded method with argument baselineDate and only use it from the unit test. In actual client code, disregard the property/overloaded method in favour of the method that defaults baselineDate to DateTime.Today. I'm reluctant to do this as it makes the public interface of the DateCalculator class awkward. Create a protected field called baselineDate that is internally set to DateTime.Today. When testing, derive a DateCalculatorForTesting from DateCalculator and set baslineDate via the constructor. It keeps the public interface clean, but still isn't great - baselineDate was made protected and a derived class is required, both solely for testing. Use extension methods. I tried this after adding the ExtensionAttribute, then realized it wouldn't work because extension methods can't access private/protected variables. I initially thought this was really quite an elegant solution. :( I'd be interested in hearing what others think.

  Read the article

• TFS How does merging work?

  - by Johannes Rudolph

  I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

  Read the article

• Change the content type of a pop up window.

  - by Oscar Reyes

  This question brought a new one: I have a html page and I need it to change the content type when the user press "save" button so the browser prompt to save the file to disk I've been doing this in the server side to offer "excel" versions of the page ( which is basically a html table ) <c:if test="${page.asExcelAction}"> <% response.setContentType("application/vnd.ms-excel"); %> What I'm trying to do now is to do the same, but in the client side with javacript but I can't manage to do it so. This is what I've got so far: <html> <head> <script> function saveAs(){ var sMarkup = document.getElementById('content').innerHTML; //var oNewDoc = document.open('application/vnd.ms-excel'); var oNewDoc = document.open('text/html'); oNewDoc.write( sMarkup ); oNewDoc.close(); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='content'> <table> <tr> <td>Stack</td> <td>Overflow</td> </tr> </table> </div> <input type="button" value="Save as" onClick="saveAs()"/> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• .NET Remoting Connecting to Wrong Host

  - by Dark Falcon

  I have an application I wrote which has been running well for 4 years. Yesterday they moved all their servers around and installed about 60 pending Windows updates, and now it is broken. The application makes use of remoting to update some information on another server (10.0.5.230), but when I try to create my remote object, I get the following exception: Note that it is trying to connect to 127.0.0.1, not the proper server. The server (10.0.5.230) is listening on port 9091 as it should. This same error is happening on all three terminal servers where this application is installed. Here is the code which registers the remoted object: public static void RegisterClient() { string lServer; RegistryKey lKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Shoreline Teleworks\\ShoreWare Client"); if (lKey == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Could not find Shoretel Call Manager"); object lVal = lKey.GetValue("Server"); if (lVal == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Shoretel Call Manager did not specify a server name"); lServer = lVal.ToString(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = 0; string s = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); props["name"] = s; ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(new TcpClientChannel(props, null), false); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(UpdateClient), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(Playback), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); } Here is the code which calls the remoted object: UpdateClient lUpdater = new UpdateClient(Settings.CurrentSettings.Extension.ToString()); lUpdater.SetAgentState(false); I have verified that the following URI is passed to RegisterActivatedClientType: "tcp://10.0.5.230:9091/" Why does this application try to connect to the wrong server?

  Read the article

• Reducing moire when downsampling halftone comic images.

  - by drawnonward

  How can I reduce moire effects when downsampling halftone comic book images during live zoom on an iPhone or iPad? I am writing a comic book viewer. It would be nice to provide higher resolution images and allow the user to zoom in while reading the comic book. However, my client is averse to moire effects and will not allow this feature if there are noticeable moire artifacts while zooming, which of course there are. Modifying the images to be less susceptible to moire would only work if the modifications were not perceptible. Blur was specifically prohibited, as is anything that removes the beloved halftone dots. The images are black and white halftone and line art. The originals are 600 dpi but what we ship with the application will be half that at best, so probably 2500 pixels or less tall. So what are my options? If I write a custom downsampling algorithm would it be fast enough for real time on these devices? Are there other tricks I can do? Would it work to just avoid the size ratios that have the most visual moire effects? As you zoom in an out, there are definitely peaks where the moire effects are worst. Is there a way to calculate what those points are and just zoom to a nearby scale that is not as bad? Any suggestions are welcome. I have very little experience with image and signal processing, but am enjoying the opportunity to learn. I know nothing of wavelets and acutance and other jargon, so please be verbose.

  Read the article

• Ajax long polling (comet) + php on lighttpd v1.4.22 multiple instances problem.

  - by fibonacci

  Hi, I am new to this site, so I really hope I will provide all the necessary information regarding my question. I've been trying to create a "new message arrived notification" using long polling. Currently I am initiating the polling request by window.onLoad event of each page in my site. On the server side I have an infinite loop: while(1){ if(NewMessageArrived($current_user))break; sleep(10); } echo $newMessageCount; On the client side I have the following (simplified) ajax functions: poll_new_messages(){ xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); //... xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=got_new_message_count; //... xmlhttp.send(); } got_new_message_count(){ if (xmlhttp.readyState==4){ updateMessageCount(xmlhttp.responseText); //... poll_new_messages(); } } The problem is that with each page load, the above loop starts again. The result is multiple infinite loops for each user that eventually make my server hang. *The NewMessageArived() function queries MySQL DB for new unread messages. *At the beginning of the php script I run start_session() in order to obtain the $current_user value. I am currently the only user of this site so it is easy for me to debug this behavior by writing time() to a file inside this loop. What I see is that the file is being written more often than once in 10 seconds, but it starts only when I go from page to page. Please let me know if any additional information might help. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Image URL not changing in Update panel

  - by Chiefy

  Ok this is probably really simple but I have been staring at it for too long now. I have an AJAX AsyncFileUpload control that when a file is selected I want the Image next to it to change. I tried it in Javascript and it did nothing, i have since tried it server-side and still nothing. here is the client side. <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="upnlConfidential"> <ContentTemplate> <td> <asp:AsyncFileUpload ID="_flupCV" runat="server" OnUploadedComplete="AdminFileUpload" /> </td> <td> <asp:Image ID="imgCV" runat="server" Height="25px" Width="25px" ImageUrl="~/Images/Exclamation.png"/> </td> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and here is the server side protected void AdminFileUpload(object sender, AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs e) { AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload upload = (AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload)sender; if (upload.PostedFile != null) { switch (upload.ID) { case "_flupCV": ImageCheckMark(imgCV); break; //etc... } } } private void ImageCheckMark(Image image) { image.Visible = true; image.ImageUrl = "~/Images/CheckMark.png"; } When the server side is called it sets the URL just fine but then nothing happens to the image, when I call the code again the URL is still the previous Exclamation image. its almost like its forgotten. Can anybody help me on this please. Thanks in advance to all who contribute!

  Read the article

• Python and a "time value of money" problem.

  - by jamieb

  (I asked this question earlier today, but I did a poor job of explaining myself. Let me try again) I have a client who is an industrial maintenance company. They sell service agreements that are prepaid 20 hour blocks of a technician's time. Some of their larger customers might burn through that agreement in two weeks while customers with fewer problems might go eight months on that same contract. I would like to use Python to help model projected sales revenue and determine how many billable hours per month that they'll be on the hook for. If each customer only ever bought a single service contract (never renewed) it would be easy to figure sales as monthly_revenue = contract_value * qty_contracts_sold. Billable hours would also be easy: billable_hrs = hrs_per_contract * qty_contracts_sold. However, how do I account for renewals? Assuming that 90% (or some other arbitrary amount) of customers renew, then their monthly revenue ought to grow geometrically. Another important variable is how long the average customer burns through a contract. How do I determine what the revenue and billable hours will be 3, 6, or 12 months from now, based on various renewal and burn rates? I assume that I'd use some type of recursive function but math was never one of my strong points. Any suggestions please? Edit: I'm thinking that the best way to approach this is to think of it as a "time value of money" problem. I've retitled the question as such. The problem is probably a lot more common if you think of "monthly sales" as something similar to annuity payments.

  Read the article

• MySQL query pulling from two tables, display in correct fields

  - by Matt Nathanson

  I'm trying to select all fields in two separate tables as long as they're sharing a common ID. //mysql query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM project, links WHERE project.id = links.id and project.id = $clientID") //displaying the link if ($row['url'] != null){ echo "<div class='clientsection' id='links'>Links</div>"; echo "<a class='clientlink' id='link1' href='" . $row['url'] . "'>" . $row['name'] . "</a>"; } else { echo "<a class='clientlink' id='link1' href='" . $row['url'] . "' style='display:none;'>" . $row['name'] . "</a>"; }; As you can see, my tables are "projects", and "links" Each is sharing a common field "id" for reference. It looks as though where both links.id and project.id are equal, it outputs anything, but when there is no links.id associated with a given $clientID the container relative to the $clientID doesn't display at all. Essentially I'm using this to add links dynamically to a specific client in this CMS and if there are no links, I want the container to show up anyway. Hopefully I've expressed myself clearly, any pointers in the right direction are appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Is nested synchronized block necessary?

  - by Dan

  I am writing a multithreaded program and I have a method that has a nested synchronized blocks and I was wondering if I need the inner sync or if just the outer sync is good enough. public class Tester { private BlockingQueue<Ticket> q = new LinkedBlockingQueue<>(); private ArrayList<Long> list = new ArrayList<>(); public void acceptTicket(Ticket p) { try { synchronized (q) { q.put(p); synchronized (list) { if (list.size() < 5) { list.add(p.getSize()); } else { list.remove(0); list.add(p.getSize()); } } } } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(Consumer.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } EDIT: This isn't a complete class as I am still working on it. But essentially I am trying to emulate a ticket machine. The ticket machine maintains a list of tickets in the BlockingQueue q. Whenever a client adds a ticket to the machine, the machine also keeps track of the price of the last 5 tickets (ArrayList list)

  Read the article

• Entity Framework Validation & usage

  - by kmsellers

  I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

  Read the article

• Foreign/accented characters in sql query

  - by FromCanada

  I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

  Read the article

• Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

  - by Egahn

  I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

  Read the article

• Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

  - by Robert Cabri

  I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

  Read the article

• How to debug PHP?

  - by NutMotion

  Anyone's been trying himself at object oriented programming ? Most probably every developer I guess:D I for one have never studied OO design patterns thoroughly, and trying to put it all together now does prove at times thrilling, and many times frustrating also. Even more so when trying to do it in : PHP! All-in-all, my boss asked me to add some Database persistence functions to her server, but most of all, she asked me to translate her already working procedural code into a working Object Oriented code. Here I am, still standing on my PHP OO project. I'm (already) fed up with this "file logging only" PHP capability. I believe there must be some (free or not too much expansive) PHP debugging utility ? I've heard about Zend Studio and PHPEd so far, which didn't quite do the trick for whatever reasons. WIRCW("Which I don't Remember Correctly Why" lol) What say yé? on debugging PHP ? Is there a tool that provides a good debug mode? what's more, don't forget I'm not speaking about the classical web Request/response model. Talking about a debugging facility which can enable you to trigger a web service (aka client request) and go into debug mode on the SOAP web service side. Thks for any input.

  Read the article

• pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

  - by janesconference

  Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

  Read the article

• Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

  - by kanchirk

  Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

  Read the article

• TFS Folders - Getting them to work like Subversion "Trunk/Tags/Branches"

  - by Sam Schutte

  I recently started using Team Foundation Server, and am having some trouble getting it to work the way I want it to. I've used Subversion for a couple years now, and love the way it works. I always set up three folders under each project, Trunk, Tags, and Branches. When I'm working on a project, all my code lives under a folder called "C:\dev\projectname". This "projectname" folder can be made to point to either trunk, or any of the branches or tags using Subversion (with the switch command). Now that I'm using TFS (my client's system), I'd like things to work the same way. I created a "Trunk" folder with my project in it, and mapped "Project/Trunk/Website" to "c:\dev\Website". Now, I want to make a release under the "tags" folder (located in "Project/Tags/Version 1.0/Website", and TFS is giving me the following error when I execute the branch command: "No appropriate mapping exists for $Project/tags/Version 1.0/Website" From what I can find on the internet, TFS expects you to have a mapping to your hard drive at the root of the project (the "Project" folder in my case), and then have all the source code that lives in trunk, tags and branches all pulled down to your hard drive. This sucks because it requires way too much stuff on your hard drive, and even worse, when you are working in a solution in Visual Studio, you won't be able to pull down "Version 2.0" and have all your project references to other projects work, because they'll all be pointing to "trunk" folders under the main folder, not just the main folder itself. What I want to do is have the root "Project/Website" folder on my hard drive, and be able to have it point to (mapped to) either tags, branches, or trunk, depending on what i'm doing, without having to screw around with fixing Visual Studio project references. Ideas?

  Read the article

• In facebook connect, how can I check if a user is a fan of my facebook page? Is it possible to track

  - by Tony

  I am trying to determine if a user is a facebook fan. I load the facebook JS library and initialize: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US"></script> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML","Connect","Api"], function() { FB.init("my_api_key","xd_receiver.htm") }); FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan(my_profile_id,"some_UID",callback); }); However when I call the API client with FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan, I get a JS error - FB.ApiClient is undefined I am also using the FBML fan tag to display the "become a fan" button: <fb:fan profile_id="my_profile_id" stream="0" connections="10" logobar="1" width="300"></fb:fan> And would like to be notified when either the "become a fan" button is clicked or a user has successfully become a fan. The business logic is pretty simple - If they become a fan, track it in my database. Then if they try to become a fan again, check with the library if they are a fan and say "You are already a fan" if they are a fan, show the widget if not.

  Read the article

• ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node remains in heap after remove()

  - by action8

  I have a multithreaded app writing and reading a ConcurrentLinkedQueue, which is conceptually used to back entries in a list/table. I originally used a ConcurrentHashMap for this, which worked well. A new requirement required tracking the order entries came in, so they could be removed in oldest first order, depending on some conditions. ConcurrentLinkedQueue appeared to be a good choice, and functionally it works well. A configurable amount of entries are held in memory, and when a new entry is offered when the limit is reached, the queue is searched in oldest-first order for one that can be removed. Certain entries are not to be removed by the system and wait for client interaction. What appears to be happening is I have an entry at the front of the queue that occurred, say 100K entries ago. The queue appears to have the limited number of configured entries (size() == 100), but when profiling, I found that there were ~100K ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node objects in memory. This appears to be by design, just glancing at the source for ConcurrentLinkedQueue, a remove merely removes the reference to the object being stored but leaves the linked list in place for iteration. Finally my question: Is there a "better" lazy way to handle a collection of this nature? I love the speed of the ConcurrentLinkedQueue, I just cant afford the unbounded leak that appears to be possible in this case. If not, it seems like I'd have to create a second structure to track order and may have the same issues, plus a synchronization concern.

  Read the article

• SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

  - by Anthony

  Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

  Read the article

• Ideas on frameworks in .NET that can be used for job processing and notifications

  - by Rajat Mehta

  Scenario: We have one instance of WCF windows service which exposes contracts like: AddNewJob(Job job), GetJobs(JobQuery query) etc. This service is consumed by 70-100 instances of client which is Windows Form based .NET app. Typically the service has 50-100 inward calls/minute to add or query jobs that are stored in a table on Sql Server. The same service is also responsible for processing these jobs in real time. It queries database every 5 seconds picks up the queued jobs and starts processing them. A job has 6 states. Queued, Pre-processing, Processing, Post-processing, Completed, Failed, Locked. Another responsibility on this service is to update all clients on every state change of every job. This means almost 200+ callbacks to clients per second. Question: This whole implementation is done using WCF Duplex bindings and works perfectly fine on small number of parallel jobs. Problem arises when we scale it up to 1000 jobs at a time. The notifications don't work as expected, it leads to memory overflow etc. Is there any standard framework that can provide a clean infrastructure for handling this scenario?? Apologies for the long explanation!

  Read the article

• Handling data update/freshness issue in web-app in general (or GWT specifically)

  - by edwin.nathaniel

  In general, how do you guys handle user update/data freshness interaction with the user (UI issue) in web-apps? For example: Multi-users web-app (like project management) Login to a "virtual" space People can update project names, etc How to handle a situation such that: user-A and user-B load a project with title "Project StackOverflow" user-B updates the title to "Project StackExchange" user-A updates the title after user-B update operation to "Project Basecamp" The question I'm asking is from the user perspective (UI) and not about transactional operation. What do most people do in this situation? What would you do after user-B updates the title in user-A screen/view? What happened when user-A tries to update the title after user-B finished his/her update operation? do you inform user-A that the title has changed and he/she has to reload the page? do you go ahead and change the title and let user-B has old data? Do you do some sort of application-level "locking" mechanism? (if someone is updating, nobody else can?) Or fix the application workflow? (who has the access to be able to change things, etc). What would be the simplest solution, but at the same time not annoy the user with more dialog/warning messages. I've encountered this particular problem frequently in a GWT app specifically where domain models are being passed around and refreshing the whole app/client-side isn't the optimal solution in my mind (since it means the whole "loading"/initialization phase must be executed again in this specific environment). Maybe the answer is to stay away from GWT? :) Love to hear options, solutions, and advises from you guys. Thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744  | Next Page >