Search Results

Search found 20625 results on 825 pages for 'client'.

Page 741/825 | < Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >

  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

    Read the article

  • Why is a NullReferenceException thrown when a ToolStrip button is clicked twice with code in the `Click` event handler?

    - by Patrick
    I created a clean WindowsFormsApplication solution, added a ToolStrip to the main form, and placed one button on it. I've added also an OpenFileDialog, so that the Click event of the ToolStripButton looks like the following: private void toolStripButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); } I didn't change any other properties or events. The funny thing is that when I double-click the ToolStripButton (the second click must be quite fast, before the dialog opens), then cancel both dialogs (or choose a file, it doesn't really matter) and then click in the client area of main form, a NullReferenceException crashes the application (error details attached at the end of the post). Please note that the Click event is implemented while DoubleClick is not. What's even more strange that when the OpenFileDialog is replaced by any user-implemented form, the ToolStripButton blocks from being clicked twice. I'm using VS2008 with .NET3.5. I didn't change many options in VS (only fontsize, workspace folder and line numbering). Does anyone know how to solve this? It is 100% replicable on my machine, is it on others too? One solution that I can think of is disabling the button before calling OpenFileDialog.ShowDialog() and then enabling the button back (but it's not nice). Any other ideas? And now the promised error details: System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.WindowClass.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(Form mainForm) at WindowsFormsApplication1.Program.Main() w C:\Users\Marchewek\Desktop\Workspaces\VisualStudio\WindowsFormsApplication1\Program.cs:line 20 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

    Read the article

  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

    Read the article

  • WSDL AXIS Arrays

    - by SKS
    I am trying to create wsdl definition for the below soap response, < reasonCode Required="TRUE" < ValidCodeRR< /ValidCode < ValidCodeRB< /ValidCode < ValidCodeRT< /ValidCode < ValidCodeAR< /ValidCode < /reasonCode Below is the wsdl definition I have, < xsd:complexType < xsd:sequence < xsd:element name="ValidCode" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" / < /xsd:sequence < xsd:attribute name="Required" type="xsd:string" / < /xsd:complexType < /xsd:element I am using Axis 1 to generate the webservices client and for the above wsdl definition, the tool generates the reasonCode as a string array like below. private java.lang.String[] reasonCode It ignores the attribute required. Does anyone know how to write wsdl defintion, such that axis creates reasonCode as an element with an attribute "required". Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, SK

    Read the article

  • jquery post and get request different on local intranet and live server

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, I have been developing an asp.net mvc application where i need to make large amounts of jquery post and get request to call controller methods and get back json result. Everything is working fine. The problem is i had to write different jquery post and get request url on local intranet(deployed by making virtual directory) and live server. the current jquery request url is given as below: $.post("/ProjectsChat/GetMessages", { roomId: 24 },.......... now this format of url for jquery request works fine for live server but not for local intranet. Since on local intranet i have made a virtual directory. It only works when i append the name of the virtual directory like this "$.post("MyProjectVirutalDirName/ProjectsChat..................." I am sure most of you must have come across same problem. now i have made a full project, there are large number of jquery requests made, i want to test the application by deploying on local intranet and fix the bugs. Changing all the jquery requests for local intranet doesn't seem feasible solution to me, i am really in a big problem, i can't deploy the same project on live server just like that and test it there, client will kill me. I need some expert advice. Please help Thanks

    Read the article

  • WCF - Contract Name could not be found in the list of contracts

    - by user208662
    Hello, I am relatively new to WCF. However, I need to create a service that exposes data to both Silverlight and AJAX client applications. In an attempt to accomplish this, I have created the following service to serve as a proof of concept: [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IJsonService { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] List<String> JsonFindNames(); } [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IWsService { [OperationContract(Name="FindNames")] List<String> WsFindNames(); } [ServiceBehavior(Name="myService", Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public class myService : IJsonService, IWsService { public List<String> JsonFindNames() { return FindNames(); } public List<String> WsFindNames() { return FindNames(name); } public List<string> FindNames() { List<string> names = List<string>(); names.Add("Alan"); names.Add("Bill"); return results; } } When I try to access this service, I receive the following error: The contract name 'myService' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service 'myService'. What is the cause of this? How do I fix this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

    Read the article

  • Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

    - by Quentin T.
    1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

    Read the article

  • Understanding the workflow of the messages in a generic server implementation in Erlang

    - by Chiron
    The following code is from "Programming Erlang, 2nd Edition". It is an example of how to implement a generic server in Erlang. -module(server1). -export([start/2, rpc/2]). start(Name, Mod) -> register(Name, spawn(fun() -> loop(Name, Mod, Mod:init()) end)). rpc(Name, Request) -> Name ! {self(), Request}, receive {Name, Response} -> Response end. loop(Name, Mod, State) -> receive {From, Request} -> {Response, State1} = Mod:handle(Request, State), From ! {Name, Response}, loop(Name, Mod, State1) end. -module(name_server). -export([init/0, add/2, find/1, handle/2]). -import(server1, [rpc/2]). %% client routines add(Name, Place) -> rpc(name_server, {add, Name, Place}). find(Name) -> rpc(name_server, {find, Name}). %% callback routines init() -> dict:new(). handle({add, Name, Place}, Dict) -> {ok, dict:store(Name, Place, Dict)}; handle({find, Name}, Dict) -> {dict:find(Name, Dict), Dict}. server1:start(name_server, name_server). name_server:add(joe, "at home"). name_server:find(joe). I tried so hard to understand the workflow of the messages. Would you please help me to understand the workflow of this server implementation during the executing of the functions: server1:start, name_server:add and name_server:find?

    Read the article

  • How to render an HTML attribute from a Razor view.

    - by ProfK
    I would like to use the same partial view for create, edit, and details views, to avoid duplicating the fieldset structure for an entity. Then, depending on which view renders the partial view, I would like to add a class of "read-only" to a div surrounding my fieldset and handle making the actual input fields read-only on the client, using css or jQuery, or whatever. How can I specify from my Razor view that I need this class added to the "item-details" div? <div class="item-details"> <fieldset> <legend>Product Details</legend> @Html.HiddenFor(model => model.DetailItem.ProductId) <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> </div>

    Read the article

  • UIImage - should be loaded with [UIImage imageNamed:@""] or not ?

    - by sagar
    Hello ! every one. I am having number of images with in my application. ( images more than 50 - approximately & it can extend according to client's need ) Each image are very large round about - 1024 x 768 & 150 dpi Now, I have to add all this images in a scroll view & display it. Ok, My question is as follows. According to me there are two options of loading large images imageNamed:@"" load asynchronously when viewDidLoad Called. Which is more preferable ? imgModel.image=[UIImage imageNamed:[dMain valueForKey:@"imgVal"]]; or like this. NSURL *ur=[[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:lblModelName.text ofType:@"png"] isDirectory:NO]; NSURLRequest *req=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:ur cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed timeoutInterval:40]; [ur release]; NSURLConnection *con=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if(con){ myWebData=[[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { [myWebData setLength: 0]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { [myWebData appendData:data]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { [connection release]; } -(void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"ImageView Ref From - %@",imgV); // my image view & set image imgV.image=[UIImage imageWithData:myWebData]; [connection release]; connection=nil; }

    Read the article

  • What type of web service should I put together?

    - by Jake
    I want to write a web service using Visual Studio. The service needs to support some type of authentication, and should be able to receive commands via simple HTTP GET requests. The input would only be a method call with some parameters, and the responses will be simple status/error codes. My instinct would be to go with an ASP.NET Web Service, but this isn't an option in C# 4.0 and it makes me wonder if I should be using something that's more up-to-date. I've looked into WCF, but it seems like this requires a running application on the client-side - is there a way to query a WCF host by just accessing a URL? The authentication is also an important piece. Developing my own little authentication system seems like a bad idea - I've read that it's too easy to mess up. What would be the standard way of authenticating with a web service like this? I'd love to look up all of the specifics on this and learn it myself, but I really don't even know where to begin. Some direction would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

    Read the article

  • How to model a mutually exclusive relationship in sql server

    - by littlechris
    Hi, I have to add functionality to an existing application and I've run into a data situation that I'm not sure how to model. I am being restricted to the creation of new tables and code. If I need to alter the existing structure I think my client may reject the proposal..although if its the only way to get it right this is what I will have to do. I have an Item table that can me link to any number of tables, and these tables may increase over time. The Item can only me linked to one other table, but the record in the other table may have many items linked to it. Examples of the tables/entities being linked to are "Person", "Vehicle", "Building", "Office". These are all separate tables. Example of Items are "Pen", "Stapler", "Cushion", "Tyre", "A4 Paper", "Plastic Bag", "Poster", "Decoration" For instance a "Poster" may be allocated to a "Person" or "Office" or "Building". In the future if they add a "Conference Room" table it may also be added to that. My intital thoughts are: Item { ID, Name } LinkedItem { ItemID, LinkedToTableName, LinkedToID } The LinkedToTableName field will then allow me to identify the correct table to link to in my code. I'm not overly happy with this solution, but I can't quite think of anything else. Please help! :) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How many custom tabs can I add to a Facebook page?

    - by Maxi Ferreira
    I'm building a web application to create custom tabs and add them to the user's Facebook fanpages. I know how the process of "installing" FB apps into FB pages so they show up as Page Tabs works, but the problem is the client wants to allow the user to create unlimited Page Tabs for a single FB Page. So I have basically two questions. 1 - Can I resue a single FB App to be included into the same page several times? If so, is there a way to know what is the "id" of that Page Tab? So, if I have my FB App to look for the Tab content in http://www.mywebapp.com/tab/, I know I get a signed_request with the App ID and the Page ID, but if that same App is installed several times into the same Page, I don't know what's the Tab the user have cliked on. I know it's a little big messy, and I don't think there's a way to do this. So my next question is probably more accurate. 2 - Is there a limit on how many Tabs can I add to a single Facebook page? This way, if there's a limit of, say, 12 Tabs, I can create 12 FB Tab Apps, store the ID's and then I know which Tab of which Page the user is currently viewing. Thanks in advice! Maxi

    Read the article

  • AjaxFileUpload return download panel when data is json

    - by Tr.Crab
    I use AjaxFileUpload (http://www.phpletter.com/Our-Projects/AjaxFileUpload/ ) to upload a file and get json result type response in struts2 ( code.google.struts2jsonresult.JSONResult ) but browser always pop-up download pane, plz give me some suggestions, thanks in advance Here is my config in struts.xml : ...... <result-type name="json" class="code.google.struts2jsonresult.JSONResult"> ............ <action name="doGetList" method="doGetList" class="main.java.GetListAction"> <result type="json"> <param name="target">jsonObject</param> <param name="deepSerialize">true</param> <param name="patterns"> -*.class</param> </result> </action> and js client : function ajaxFileUpload(){ $("#loading").ajaxStart(function(){ $(this).show(); }).ajaxComplete(function(){ $(this).hide(); }); $.ajaxFileUpload ( { url:'doGetList.do', secureuri:false, fileElementId:'uploadfile', dataType: 'json', success: function (data, status) { if(typeof(data.error) != 'undefined') { if(data.error != '') { alert(data.error); } else { alert(data.msg); } } }, error: function (data, status, e) { alert(e); alert(data.records); } } ) return false; }

    Read the article

  • How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

    - by Sarah Weinberger
    How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

    Read the article

  • How to share the credentials between Webform and Winform?

    - by Daniel
    Hi! Question: I want to make a login form at the Clickonce deployment webpage, and only allow the authenticated users to download the application. and I want the downloaded application to use the same credentials entered at the webpage, without prompting the users to enter the credentials again. Details: I have an application(Windows Client) which needs customized settings for different users. the application is deployed through ClickOnce. Currently, the users are given the ClickOnce webpage URL, then download the application from there. after download and running the application, the application prompts users with a login form. If their credentials are authenticated, the application loads the customized settings from the server's database according to the credentials given. The problem is, any unauthenticated users can download the application if they just know the ClickOnce deployement webpage's URL. Unauthenticated users won't be able to run the application anyways, because the application asks for credentials when started, but I want to prevent the unauthenticated users from downloading the application at all. Am I asking the wrong question maybe? Your help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Programmatically downloaded file is larger than it should be

    - by Dan Revell
    I'm trying to download a file from SharePoint. The file itself is an InfoPath template although this is probably inconsequential. If I put the url into internet explorer and save the file to disk, it comes in at 4.47KB and works correctly. If I try to download from the same Url in code the it comes back as 21.9KB and is corrupt. Why it's coming down as corrupt I'm trying to work out. The following are two ways of downloading the file that both produce the corrupt file at 21.9KB: /// web client { WebClient wc = new WebClient(); wc.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; wc.DownloadFile(templateUri, file); byte[] bytes = wc.DownloadData(templateUri); } /// web request { WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(templateUri); request.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; WebResponse responce = request.GetResponse(); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(responce.GetResponseStream()); byte[] bytes = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(sr.ReadToEnd()); } And this is how I write the data to disk using (FileStream fs = new FileStream(file, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write)) { fs.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); }

    Read the article

  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • extension methods with generics - when does caller need to include type parameters?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Is there a rule for knowing when one has to pass the generic type parameters in the client code when calling an extension method? So for example in the Program class why can I (a) not pass type parameters for top.AddNode(node), but where as later for the (b) top.AddRelationship line I have to pass them? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Create Graph var top = new TopologyImp<string>(); // Add Node var node = new StringNode(); node.Name = "asdf"; var node2 = new StringNode(); node2.Name = "test child"; top.AddNode(node); top.AddNode(node2); top.AddRelationship<string, RelationshipsImp>(node,node2); // *** HERE *** } } public static class TopologyExtns { public static void AddNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> node) { topIf.Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); } public static INode<T> FindNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, T searchKey) { return topIf.Nodes[searchKey]; } public static void AddRelationship<T,R>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> parentNode, INode<T> childNode) where R : IRelationship<T>, new() { var rel = new R(); rel.Child = childNode; rel.Parent = parentNode; } } public class TopologyImp<T> : ITopology<T> { public Dictionary<T, INode<T>> Nodes { get; set; } public TopologyImp() { Nodes = new Dictionary<T, INode<T>>(); } }

    Read the article

  • Questions about serving static files from a servlet

    - by Geo
    I'm very new to servlets. I'd like to serve some static files, some css and some javascript. Here's what I got so far: in web.xml: <servlet> <description></description> <display-name>StaticServlet</display-name> <servlet-name>StaticServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>StaticServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>StaticServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/static/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I'm assuming in the StaticServlet I'd have to work with request.getPathInfo to see what was requested, get a mime type, read the file & write it to the client. If this is not the way to go, or is not a viable way of doing things, please suggest a better way. I'm not really sure where to place the static directory, because if I try to print new File(".") it gives me the directory of my Eclipse installation. Is there a way to find out the project's directory?

    Read the article

  • confused about how to use JSON in C#

    - by Josh
    The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

    Read the article

  • Calculating a date when a date has been chosen by the number of days

    - by Andy
    I have three selection drop downs in a form comprising of day, month, year. Pretty standard. Ive omitted all the individual select options for the purposes of this question. <label for="start_date">Start Date<font class="required">*</font>:</label> <select name="place_booking[day_val]"> <select name="place_booking[month_val]"> <select name="place_booking[year_val]"> Underneath this i have a selection for the number of days the client wishes to stay at the letting. <label for="number_of_days">Number of Days<font class="required">*</font>:</label> <select name="place_booking[number_of_days]"> Underneath there is a space to display the departure date based on there two selections above. <label for="departure_date">Departure Date<font class="required">*</font>:</label> ? - this bit i would like to display the calculated date after the above is selected Any help would be grealty appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

    - by David
    Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >