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  • Permutations of Varying Size

    - by waiwai933
    I'm trying to write a function in PHP that gets all permutations of all possible sizes. I think an example would be the best way to start off: $my_array = array(1,1,2,3); Possible permutations of varying size: 1 1 // * See Note 2 3 1,1 1,2 1,3 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 2 1,1,2 1,1,3 1,2,1 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 3 1,1,2,3 1,1,3,2 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 4 Note: I don't care if there's a duplicate or not. For the purposes of this example, all future duplicates have been omitted. What I have so far in PHP: function getPermutations($my_array){ $permutation_length = 1; $keep_going = true; while($keep_going){ while($there_are_still_permutations_with_this_length){ // Generate the next permutation and return it into an array // Of course, the actual important part of the code is what I'm having trouble with. } $permutation_length++; if($permutation_length>count($my_array)){ $keep_going = false; } else{ $keep_going = true; } } return $return_array; } The closest thing I can think of is shuffling the array, picking the first n elements, seeing if it's already in the results array, and if it's not, add it in, and then stop when there are mathematically no more possible permutations for that length. But it's ugly and resource-inefficient. Any pseudocode algorithms would be greatly appreciated. Also, for super-duper (worthless) bonus points, is there a way to get just 1 permutation with the function but make it so that it doesn't have to recalculate all previous permutations to get the next? For example, I pass it a parameter 3, which means it's already done 3 permutations, and it just generates number 4 without redoing the previous 3? (Passing it the parameter is not necessary, it could keep track in a global or static). The reason I ask this is because as the array grows, so does the number of possible combinations. Suffice it to say that one small data set with only a dozen elements grows quickly into the trillions of possible combinations and I don't want to task PHP with holding trillions of permutations in its memory at once.

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  • Loading external pngs into an AS2 swf that is loaded into an AS3 swf wrapper

    - by James Fassett
    I have a Wrapper SWF that loads a series of AS2 movies. Each AS2 movie loads a series of .png files. AS3_wrapper.swf |-> AS2_1.swf |-> image_1.png |-> image_2.png |-> AS2_2.swf |-> image_1.png |-> image_2.png Inside of the AS2 I listen for the load of the pngs using onLoadInit and update my UI. This works fine for the first AS2 swf. But when I load the second AS2 swf the onLoadInit isn't triggered for the pngs. My guess is that the images are in a cache or something like that. I put a random string on the end of the request to try and avoid the cache but that doesn't seem to work. The code in the as2 looks roughly like this: var flagLoader:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); var listener:Object = new Object(); listener.onLoadInit = Delegate.create(this, handleImageLoad); flagLoader.addListener(listener); var row:MovieClip = frame1["row" + (numLoaded + 1)]; flagLoader.loadClip(predictionData[numLoaded].flag + "?r="+Math.random(), row.flag); I'm making sure to load only one image at a time (I've read anecdotal evidence loading more than one thing at a time can confuse the MovieClipLoader). For the first as2 file everything works great. When I load the second as2 file the handleImageLoad never gets called. Update: Even more perplexing is if I reload the first AS2 movie (after the second AS2 movie fails to load the images) the first AS2 movie loads the images again fine. Update 2: After trying to change from using a MovieClipLoader to polling (as was helpfully suggested) I have found some more evidence that is relevant. When I load the first AS2 files and trace from the top level clip it prints out _root. The second AS2 file when loaded traces the same _root. This lead me to check if they were clashing on names and they are. Both have a child called frame. The first one, when I trace it comes out as _root.frame as expected. The second AS2 file traces _level0.instance3.instance118.instance111.frame. I'm guessing this is related to the problem. Flash is keeping the _root of the two files the same but it is changing the locations of their children (for subsequently loaded files that have children with the same names). So either the onLoad is going to the wrong clip or the events about it loading are.

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  • Connected host failed to respond (internal NAT address)

    - by MostRandom
    I'm writing my first C# web application that connects to an XML based service. It requires that I present a certificate and feed the XML stream. It seems to authenticate properly but then it gives the following error: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.1.10.4:3128 The funny thing is that I'm not on a proxy or anything like that. I'm connecting directly to the internet. At one point I we did use a proxy that with internal NAT address. So my question is: Does Visual Studio have some sort of default proxy setting that I need to change? This IP is no longer used for anything, so I know that I don't need to use any proxy authentication code. using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Net; using System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Uri requestURI = new Uri("*site omitted*"); //Create the Request Object HttpWebRequest pageRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestURI); //After installing the cert on the server export a client cert to the working directory as Deluxe.cer string certFile = "*certificate omitted*"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile(certFile); //Pull in your Data, if it is from an external xml as below or create an xml string with variables if a dynamic post is required. string xmlPath = "*XML omitted*"; System.Xml.XmlDocument passXML = new System.Xml.XmlDocument(); passXML.Load(xmlPath); //XML String with the data needed to pass string postData = passXML.OuterXml; //Set the Request Object parameters pageRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; pageRequest.Method = "POST"; pageRequest.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; pageRequest.AllowAutoRedirect = false; pageRequest.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); postData = "xml_data=" + Server.UrlEncode(postData); pageRequest.ContentLength = postData.Length; //Create the Post Stream Object System.IO.StreamWriter postStream = new System.IO.StreamWriter(pageRequest.GetRequestStream()); //Write the data to the post stream postStream.Write(postData); postStream.Flush(); postStream.Close(); //Set the Response Object HttpWebResponse postResponse = (HttpWebResponse)pageRequest.GetResponse();

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  • PHP-based LaTeX parser -- where to begin?

    - by Alex Basson
    The project: I want to build a LaTeX-to-MathML translator in PHP. Why? Because I'm a mathematician, and I want to publish math on my Drupal site. It doesn't have to translate all of LaTeX, since the basic document-level stuff is ably handled by the CMS and wouldn't be written in LaTeX to begin with; it just has to translate math written in LaTeX into math written in MathML. Although I feel as though I've done my due diligence, this doesn't seem to exist already. Maybe I'm wrong---if you know of something that would serve this purpose, by all means let me know, and thank you in advance. But assuming it doesn't exist, I guess I have to go write it myself. Here's the thing, though: I've never done anything this ambitious. I don't really know where to begin. I've used PHP for years, but just to do the standard "build a CMS with PHP and MySQL"-type of stuff. I've never attempted anything as seemingly sophisticated as translation from one language to another. I'm just dumb enough to consider doing it with regex---after all, LaTeX is a much more formal language, and it doesn't allow for nearly the kinds of pathological edge-cases, as say, HTML. But on the other hand, I'm just smart enough to realize this is probably a terrible idea: now I have two problems, and I sure don't want to end up like this guy. So if that's not the way to go (right?), what is? How should I start thinking about this problem? Am I essentially writing a LaTeX compiler in PHP, and if so, what do I need to know to do that (like, should I just go read the Purple Dragon book first?)? I'm both really excited and pretty intimidated by the prospect of this project, but hey, this is how we all learn to be programmers, right? If something we need doesn't exist, we go and build it, necessity is the mother of... you get the point. Tremendous thanks to everyone in advance for any and all guidance you can offer.

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  • ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

    - by John
    I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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  • ASP.NET Dynamically filtering data

    - by Jasper
    For a project I'm working on, we're looking for a way to dynamically add filters to a page which then control the dataoutput in, for instance, a grid. We want to add the filters dynamically because we want the customer to be able to change which properties can be filtered and what filtertype (textbox, dropdown, colourpicker, etc.) should be used. The filter should work as follows: - The customer links a filter to a certain property and specifies the filtertype (for this example: dropdown). - A user control which contains all the filter loads all filters specified - The filters load all values of the specified property as options. The first time the page loads; this would be the values of all items. - Now the user selects a value from one of the filters; the page reloads - Only items which have the specified filter value are retrieved, the user may specify one or more filters at the same time. - Once a user drills down by filtering, only filtervalues of the retrieved items should be used in the other filters. I have the following problems: - When I create the filters runtime, events are lost because the controls get recreated each postback. - I could place the filters in PreInit which should solve this, but then determining which controls should be loaded becomes a problem since loading all environment vars isn't finished yet - I don't know a good way of returning all the filter values to a central point from which I can make a good query. - The query has to be dynamic. I'm using linq which I want to make dynamic so I don't have to select everything everytime. How to make a dynamic select query based on a string stored in the database? - I have to select items based on the filtervalues and then adjust the rest of the filters to the already made selection. That kind of messes up the whole regular databinding sequence. Any help in one of the above would be great! PS: One thing I thought about was passing along filter values in the postback which would have to be recognizable. That way the server could use them for selection and then create the filters and autoselect the previously selected filtervalues. I'm not quite sure how to acheive this though...

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  • Reverse proxy for a REST web service using ADFS/AD and WebApi

    - by Kai Friis
    I need to implement a reverse proxy for a REST webservice behind a firewall. The reverse proxy should authenticate against an enterprise ADFS 2.0 server, preferably using claims in .net 4.5. The clients will be a mix of iOS, Android and web. I’m completely new to this topic; I’ve tried to implement the service as a REST service using WebApi, WIF and the new Identity and Access control in VS 2012, with no luck. I have also tried to look into Brock Allen’s Thinktecture.IdentityModel.45, however then my head was spinning so I didn’t see the difference between it and Windows Identity Foundation with the Identity and Access control. So I think I need to step back and get some advice on how to do this. There are several ways to this, as far as I understand it. In hardware. Set up our Citrix Netscaler as a reverse proxy. I have no idea how to do that, however if it’s a good solution I can always hire someone who knows… Do it in the webserver, like IIS. I haven’t tried it; do not know if it will work. Create a web service to do it. 3.1 Implement it as a SOAP service using WCF. As I understand it ADFS do not support REST so I have to use SOAP. The problem is mobile device do not like SOAP, neither do I… However if it’s the best way, I have to do it. 3.2 Use Azure Access Control Service. It might work, however the timing is not good. Our enterprise is considering several cloud options, and us jumping on the azure wagon on our own might not be the smartest thing to do right now. However if it is the only options, we can do it. I just prefer not to use it right now. Right now I feel there are too many options, and I do not know which one will work. If someone can point me in the right directions, which path to pursue, I would be very grateful.

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  • Changing the itemsSource of a treeview makes it's children invisible, when they were already display

    - by Marnix Kraus
    I found some strange problem in WPF, using the itemsSource of a treeview. I hope I can make this specific problem clear for you. First; a story. There is a treeview. It has a list with treeviewitems as itemsSource. This list is called _roots. There is another list, called _leafs. For as in a treeview, the _roots contain the _leafs in some hierarchical way. For example: <TreeviewItem Header="Jungle"> <TreeviewItem> <SpecialTreeviewItem Header="Monkey"/> <SpecialTreeviewItem Header="Apple"/> </TreeviewItem> </TreeviewItem> Now I am trying to switch between these two lists as itemsSource. It seemed to work fine, but it doesn't: When the Jungle-item is un-expanded, and I change the itemsSource to _leafs, and change it back again to _roots, everything works fine and all items can be expanded and showed. But when the Jungle-item is expanded (and the special items are already visible) and I change it to the _leafs itemsSource, and then change the itemsSource back to _roots, all special items have disappeared!! Also, when I do the same as case 2, but first un-expand the Jungle-item again, the special items also disappear. I did a lot of debugging, before posting this question here and come to the following conclusion: Printing on the event: visibility changed, the visibility is set to false for all items that were already visible (that is, when _roots become visible, the special items become invisible (because they were already visible)) So, IsVisible is false for the items, but Visibility = Visible. Which is a bit strange. The problem seems to depend on the use of the _roots list, which in a certain way contain the _leafs. When I change the itemsSource to different lists with special items in it, everything works fine. The hierarchical structure of the _roots make this thing broken. I hope that this is a complete overview of my problem. Help would be appreciated.

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  • If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

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  • Learning to create beautiful /next-generation GUI

    - by ShaChris23
    I really want to create a stunning-looking GUI desktop application that looks like, for example: Mac OS X interface Picasa desktop client on windows IPhone apps Office 2007 I've mostly been programming GUI using Qt/Swing/WinForm and I'm tired of creating so plain looking GUI, lol. So I was thinking about diving into stuff like: jQuery WPF/C# iPhone SDK Silverlight Adobe Air/Flex Just to get some ideas on how to create really cool looking UI. Does that sound like a good list? Any developers here that could share what platform they use to create very cool looking desktop app? On a sidenote, I really wonder what developers at Apple / Microsoft use to develop their own cool-looking software. EDIT A lot of responses talk about the importance of usability over "cool-looking".. I totally agree that usability and simplicity are the most important aspects of user interface design. I've been doing GUI development for a while now ( 3 years), so that I understand. But using cool-looking UI also improves user experience + it could make big difference on whether or not your software sells. I mean, otherwise why would Microsoft/Apple try to make their OS UI look "cooler" everytime there's a new version? Why would websites like pragprog.com, or versionsapp.com. make their websites look like that? Basically you kill 2 birds with one stone: stunnning-looking UI + super usability (because it looks simple and intuitive). That is what I'm striving for. And as far as I know, I cannot achieve that using Qt/Winform. Most of the books I have read just show you how to make average-looking (read: 1990's) UI. I want to learn how to create cool-looking UI. And the only place I see cool-looking UIs these days are the technology I list above. I'm not enamored with any technology; but I just want to know how things are done in other technology to see if I could apply them to the technology I'm using, or see if I could use those technology in my line of work. An example: if I were to pick between this UI and this UI, I probably would pick the latter, if just based on looks alone. Functionally, they are just the same UI; they both allow you to keep track of your time. They both contain buttons and textboxes, etc. But the fact that they look different, also differentiate them in terms of attractiveness. So in all, I think the "ice on the cake" is very important. I would say it's the thing you strive for after you are certain you have a totally intuitive, usable UI.

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  • Does this MSDN article violate MVVM?

    - by rasx
    This may be old news but back in March 2009, this article, “Model-View-ViewModel In Silverlight 2 Apps,” has a code sample that includes DataServiceEntityBase: // COPIED FROM SILVERLIGHTCONTRIB Project for simplicity /// <summary> /// Base class for DataService Data Contract classes to implement /// base functionality that is needed like INotifyPropertyChanged. /// Add the base class in the partial class to add the implementation. /// </summary> public abstract class DataServiceEntityBase : INotifyPropertyChanged { /// <summary> /// The handler for the registrants of the interface's event /// </summary> PropertyChangedEventHandler _propertyChangedHandler; /// <summary> /// Allow inheritors to fire the event more simply. /// </summary> /// <param name="propertyName"></param> protected void FirePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (_propertyChangedHandler != null) { _propertyChangedHandler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members /// <summary> /// The interface used to notify changes on the entity. /// </summary> event PropertyChangedEventHandler INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged { add { _propertyChangedHandler += value; } remove { _propertyChangedHandler -= value; } } #endregion What this class implies is that the developer intends to bind visuals directly to data (yes, a ViewModel is used but it defines an ObservableCollection of data objects). Is this design diverging too far from the guidance of MVVM? Now I can see some of the reasons Why would we go this way: what we can do with DataServiceEntityBase is this sort of thing (which is intimate with the Entity Framework): // Partial Method to support the INotifyPropertyChanged interface public partial class Game : DataServiceEntityBase { #region Partial Method INotifyPropertyChanged Implementation // Override the Changed partial methods to implement the // INotifyPropertyChanged interface // This helps with the Model implementation to be a mostly // DataBound implementation partial void OnDeveloperChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Developer"); } partial void OnGenreChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Genre"); } partial void OnListPriceChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPrice"); } partial void OnListPriceCurrencyChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPriceCurrency"); } partial void OnPlayerInfoChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("PlayerInfo"); } partial void OnProductDescriptionChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductDescription"); } partial void OnProductIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductID"); } partial void OnProductImageUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductImageUrl"); } partial void OnProductNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductName"); } partial void OnProductTypeIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductTypeID"); } partial void OnPublisherChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Publisher"); } partial void OnRatingChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Rating"); } partial void OnRatingUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("RatingUrl"); } partial void OnReleaseDateChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ReleaseDate"); } partial void OnSystemNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("SystemName"); } #endregion } Of course MSDN code can seen as “toy code” for educational purposes but is anyone doing anything like this in the real world of Silverlight development?

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  • Help choosing authentication method

    - by Dima
    I need to choose an authentication method for an application installed and integrated in customers environment. There are two types of environments - windows and linux/unix. Application is user based, no web stuff, pure Java. The requirement is to authenticate users which will use my application against customer provided user base. Meaning, customer installs my app, but uses his own users to grant or deny access to my app. Typical, right? I have three options to consider and I need to pick up the one which would be a) the most flexible to cover most common modern environments and b) would take least effort while stay robust and standard. Option (1) - Authenticate locally managing user credentials in some local storage, e.g. file. Customer would then add his users to my application and it will then check the passwords. Simple, clumsy but would work. Customers would have to punch every user they want to grant access to my app using some UI we will have to provide. Lots of work for me, headache to the customer. Option (2) - Use LDAP authentication. Customers would tell my app where to look for users and I will walk their directory resolving names into user names and trying to bind with found password. This is better approach IMO, but more fragile because I will have to walk an unknown directory structure and who knows if this will be permitted everywhere. Would be harder to test since there are many LDAP implementation out there, last thing I want is drowning in this voodoo. Option(3) - Use plain Kerberos authentication. Customers would tell my app what realm (domain) and which KDC (key distribution center) to use. In ideal world these two parameters would be all I need to set while customers could use their own administration tools to configure domain and kdc. My application would simply delegate user credentials to this third party (using JAAS or Spring security) and consider success when third party is happy with them. I personally prefer #3, but not sure what surprises I might face. Would this cover windows and *nix systems entirely? Is there another option to consider?

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  • Android Phonegap - TIMEOUT ERROR when trying to set a WebViewClient

    - by Spike777
    I'm working with Android and Phonegap, and at the moment I'm having trouble with one simple thing. I need to setup a webViewClient to the PhoneGap webView in order to capture the URL of a page finished and to work with that. This is the code: public class PhoneGapTest extends DroidGap { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); super.setBooleanProperty("loadInWebView", true); super.clearCache(); super.keepRunning = false; super.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/www/index.html"); super.appView.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient(){ @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } }); } That code doesn't seems to work, the page never loads and I get a TIMEOUT ERROR, but if I remove the "setWebViewClient" part the page loads perfectly. I saw that there is a class CordovaWebViewClient, do I have to use that instead of WebViewClient? I found this way on the web: this.appView.setWebViewClient(new CordovaWebViewClient(this){ @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(final WebView view, String url) { Log.i("BugTest", "shouldOverrideUrlLoading: " + url); return true; } @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } @Override public void doUpdateVisitedHistory(WebView view, String url, boolean isReload){ } }); But that code isn't working either, I still got a TIMEOUT ERROR. I also saw that there is already a webVieClient member, but I don't if I have to use it and how. I'm working with Phonegap version 1.9.0 Thanks for reading Answer to Simon: This doesn't work either, I still receive a TIMEOUT ERROR, there is something wrong? public class MainActivity extends DroidGap { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); super.init(); super.appView.clearCache(true); super.appView.clearHistory(); this.appView.setWebViewClient(new CustomCordovaWebViewClient(this)); super.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/www/index.html"); } public class CustomCordovaWebViewClient extends CordovaWebViewClient { public CustomCordovaWebViewClient(DroidGap ctx) { super(ctx); } @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } @Override public void doUpdateVisitedHistory(WebView view, String url, boolean isReload){ } @Override public void onReceivedError(WebView view, int errorCode, String description, String failingUrl) { } } }

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  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

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  • Rtti accessing fields and properties in complex data structures

    - by Coco
    As already discussed in Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010 a consistency between the original data and rtti values can be reached by accessing members by using a pair of TRttiField and an instance pointer. This would be very easy in case of a simple class with only basic member types (like e.g. integers or strings). But what if we have structured field types? Here is an example: TIntArray = array [0..1] of Integer; TPointArray = array [0..1] of Point; TExampleClass = class private FPoint : TPoint; FAnotherClass : TAnotherClass; FIntArray : TIntArray; FPointArray : TPointArray; public property Point : TPoint read FPoint write FPoint; //.... and so on end; For an easy access of Members I want to buil a tree of member-nodes, which provides an interface for getting and setting values, getting attributes, serializing/deserializing values and so on. TMemberNode = class private FMember : TRttiMember; FParent : TMemberNode; FInstance : Pointer; public property Value : TValue read GetValue write SetValue; //uses FInstance end; So the most important thing is getting/setting the values, which is done - as stated before - by using the GetValue and SetValue functions of TRttiField. So what is the Instance for FPoint members? Let's say Parent is the Node for TExample class, where the instance is known and the member is a field, then Instance would be: FInstance := Pointer (Integer (Parent.Instance) + TRttiField (FMember).Offset); But what if I want to know the Instance for a record property? There is no offset in this case. So is there a better solution to get a pointer to the data? For the FAnotherClass member, the Instance would be: FInstance := Parent.Value.AsObject; So far the solution works, and data manipulation can be done by using rtti or the original types, without losing information. But things get harder, when working with arrays. Especially the second array of Points. How can I get the instance for the members of points in this case?

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  • SurfaceView for Camera Preview won't get destroyed when pressing Power-Botton

    - by for3st
    I want to implement a camera preview. For that I have a custom View CameraView extends ViewGroup that in the constructor programatically creates an surfaceView. I have the following components (higly simplified for beverity): ScannerFragment.java public View onCreateView(..) { //inflate view and get cameraView } public void onResume() { //open camera -> set rotation -> startPreview (in a thread) -> //set preview callback -> start decoding worker } public void onPause() { // stop decoding worker -> stop Preview -> release camera } CameraView.java extends ViewGroup public void setUpCalledInConstructor(Context context) { //create a surfaceview and add it to this viewgroup -> //get SurfaceHolder and set callback } /* SurfaceHolder.Callback */ public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { camera.setPreviewDisplay(holder); } public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { //NOTHING is done here } public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int w, int h) { camera.getParameters().setPreviewSize(previewSize.width, previewSize.height); } fragment_scanner.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <com.myapp.camera.CameraView android:id="@+id/cameraPreview" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"/> </RelativeLayout> I think I have set the lifecycle correct (getting resources onResume(), releasing it onPause() roughly said) and the following works just fine: pressing home and returning pressing Taskswitcher and returning rotation But one thing doesn't work and that is when I press the power-button on the device and then return to the camera-preview. The result is: the preview is stuck with the image that was last captured before button was pressed. If I rotate it works fine again, since it will get through the lifecycle. After some research I found out that this is probably due to the fact that surfaceView won't get destroyed when the power-button is pressed, i.e. SurfaceHolder.Callback.surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) won't be called. And in fact when I compare the (very verbose) log output of the home-button-case and the power-button-case it's the same except that 'surfaceDestroyed' won't get called. So far I found no solution whatsoever to work around it. I purposely avoid any resource cleaning code in my surfaceDestroyed(), but this does not help. My idea was to manually destroy the surfaceView like asked in this question but this seems not possible. I also tested other applications with surfaceViews/cameras and they don't seem to have this issue. So I would appreciate any hints or tips on that.

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  • Add inner-marging to a 4 columns CSS

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I am not a CSS expert (mainly because I haven’t had the need to use much HTML/CSS stuff lately), so I came up with the following style/divs to create a 4 column layout: <style type="text/css"> <!-- .columns:after { content: "."; display: block; height: 0; clear: both; visibility: hidden; } * html .columns {height: 1%;} .columns{ display:inline-block; } .columns{ display:block; } .columns .column{ float:left; overflow:hidden; display:inline; } .columns .last{ float:right; } .col4 .first{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .second{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .third{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .last{ left: auto;width:25%; } --> </style> note: most of this stuff comes from this google result, I just adapted it to 4 columns. The HTML then looks like this: <div class="columns col4"> <div class="column first”> SOME TEXT </div><!-- /.first -—> <div class="column second”> MORE TEXT</div><!—- /.second -—> <div class="column third”> SOME MORE TEXT </div><!—- /.third --> <div class="column last”> SOME LAST TEXT </div><!-- /.last -—> </div><!-- /.columns --> Ok, I’ve simplified that a bit (there’s a small image and some < h2 text in there too) but the thing is that I’d like to add some space between the columns. Here’s how it looks now: Do you have any idea what CSS property should I touch? note: If I add margin or padding, one column shifts down because (as I understand it) it doesn’t fit. There might be other CSSs as well, since this came in a template (I have been asked for this change, but I didn’t do any of this, as usual). Thanks for any insight.

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  • Problem inserting JavaScript into a CKEditor Instance running inside a jQuery-UI Dialog Box

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello Overflowers! Here's what's going on: I'm building an app (using PHP, jQuery, etc), part of which lets users edit various bits of a web page (Header, Footer, Main Content, Sidebar) using CKEditor. It's set up so that each editable bit has an "Edit Content" button in the upper right that, on click, launches an instance of CKEditor inside a jQuery-UI Dialog box. After the user is done editing, they can click an 'Update Changes' button that passes the edited content back off to the main page and closes the Dialog/CKeditor. It's all working magnificently, save for one thing. If someone inserts any JavaScript code, wrapped in 'script' tags, using either the Insert HTML Plugin for CKEditor or by going to 'Source' in CKEditor and placing the code in the source, everything seems okay until they click the 'Update Changes' button. The JavaScript appears to be inserting properly, but when 'Update Changes' is clicked, instead of the Dialog closing and passing the script back into the div where it belongs, what I get instead is an all-white screen with just the output of the JavaScript. For example, a simple 'Hello World' script results in a white screen with the string 'Hello World' in the upper left corner; for more intricate scripts, like an API call to, say Aweber, that generates a newsletter signup form, I get an all-white screen with the resulting form from the Aweber API call perfectly rendered in the middle of the screen. One of the most confusing parts is that, on these pages, if I click 'View Source', I get absolutely nothing. Blank emptiness. Here's all my code that handles the launching of the CKEditor instance inside the jQuery-UI Dialog, and the passing of the edited data back into its associated div on click of the 'Update Changes' button: $(function() { $('.foobar_edit_button') .button() .click(function() { var beingEdited = $(this).nextAll('.foobar_editable').attr('id'); var content = $(this).nextAll('.foobar_editable').html(); $('#foobar_editor').html(content); $('#foobar_editor').dialog( { open:function() { $(this).ckeditor(function() { CKFinder.SetupCKEditor( this, '<?php echo '/foobar/lib/editor/ckfinder/'; ?>' ); }); }, close:function() { $(this).ckeditorGet().destroy(); }, autoOpen: false, width: 840, modal: true, buttons: { 'Update Changes': function() { // TODO: submit changes to server via ajax once its completed: for ( instance in CKEDITOR.instances ) CKEDITOR.instances[instance].updateElement(); var edited_content = $('#foobar_editor').html(); $('#' + beingEdited).html(edited_content); $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $('#foobar_editor').dialog('open'); }); }); I'm all sorts of confused. If anyone can point me in the right direction, it will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • FormView templates break when refactored to Master/Content

    - by ZaijiaN
    Let's say I have an abstract class IA, with subclasses A1, A2, A3. For each subclass, I had a page with a FormView to insert/edit/view, with code specific to that class. The templates for insert/edit/view are all very similar, so it was mostly cut & paste, and the compiler had no problem that there were controls with the same IDs in the different templates. Something like this: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> Much of the code/markup ended up being redundant across the pages, so I refactored it to use a master/content format, with the master page having content placeholders for the insert/edit/view templates. Master page: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="InsertItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="EditItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> And content page: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="InsertItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="EditItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> In the content page templates, I'm doing the exact same thing I was doing before I refactored, but now the compiler is blowing up with the error BC30260: 'Label1' is already declared as 'Protected WithEvents Label1 As System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label' in this class. For some reason, it's not separating the controls in the content blocks the same way it did when they were in the templates, even though the content placeholders are in the individual templates. Is there a way around this, other than to rename all my controls?

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  • Java: Reading a pdf file from URL into Byte array/ByteBuffer in an applet.

    - by Pol
    I'm trying to figure out why this particular snippet of code isn't working for me. I've got an applet which is supposed to read a .pdf and display it with a pdf-renderer library, but for some reason when I read in the .pdf files which sit on my server, they end up as being corrupt. I've tested it by writing the files back out again. I've tried viewing the applet in both IE and Firefox and the corrupt files occur. Funny thing is, when I trying viewing the applet in Safari (for Windows), the file is actually fine! I understand the JVM might be different, but I am still lost. I've compiled in Java 1.5. JVMs are 1.6. The snippet which reads the file is below. public static ByteBuffer getAsByteArray(URL url) throws IOException { ByteArrayOutputStream tmpOut = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); URLConnection connection = url.openConnection(); int contentLength = connection.getContentLength(); InputStream in = url.openStream(); byte[] buf = new byte[512]; int len; while (true) { len = in.read(buf); if (len == -1) { break; } tmpOut.write(buf, 0, len); } tmpOut.close(); ByteBuffer bb = ByteBuffer.wrap(tmpOut.toByteArray(), 0, tmpOut.size()); //Lines below used to test if file is corrupt //FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream("C:\\abc.pdf"); //fos.write(tmpOut.toByteArray()); return bb; } I must be missing something, and I've been banging my head trying to figure it out. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks. Edit: To further clarify my situation, the difference in the file before I read then with the snippet and after, is that the ones I output after reading are significantly smaller than they originally are. When opening them, they are not recognized as .pdf files. There are no exceptions being thrown that I ignore, and I have tried flushing to no avail. This snippet works in Safari, meaning the files are read in it's entirety, with no difference in size, and can be opened with any .pdf reader. In IE and Firefox, the files always end up being corrupted, consistently the same smaller size. I monitored the len variable (when reading a 59kb file), hoping to see how many bytes get read in at each loop. In IE and Firefox, at 18kb, the in.read(buf) returns a -1 as if the file has ended. Safari does not do this. I'll keep at it, and I appreciate all the suggestions so far.

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  • Jquery: How do i not select a specific colum

    - by Poku
    Hey I have a table, where i have a click event on the tr: <tr id="<%= candidate.AnsogerID %>" class="newCandidatesTableTr"> , this click event: $(".newCandidatesTableTr").click(function(e) { works just fine, but in the row i also have a click event on a td: $(".insertCandidate").live("click", (function(e) { and this conflicts eachother. I want to do one thing if the tr is clicked and other when this specific td in the tr is clicked. So how do i in my tr.click() event defined that the event shall not happend when i click the specific td? Here is the code: // Lists a table with old candidates who migth be the same person as the new candidate $(".newCandidatesTableTr").click(function(e) { alert(this.id); GetCandidateName(this.id); }); // Show insert candidate dialog $(".insertCandidate").live("click", (function(e) { var tempCanName = $(".suggentionCandidatesTableTitle").text(); var tempCanNameSub = tempCanName.substr(0, tempCanName.length - 1); var canName = $(".suggentionCandidateName_" + canID + "").text(); $("#mergeCandidateDialog").empty(); $.blockUI({ message: $("#mergeCandidateDialog").append( "<div>" + tempCanNameSub + "'s ansøgning vil blive lagt under den eksiterende ansøger " + canName + "'s data.<br /><br /> Ønsker du at fortsætte?<br /><br /></div>" + "<div id=\"content\">" + "<input type=\"button\" id=\"" + this.id + "\" class=\"insertCandidateYes\" value=\"Ja\" />" + "<input type=\"button\" id=\"insertCandidateNo\" value=\"Nej\" /></div>"), css: { cursor: 'default', fontWeight: 'normal', padding: '7px', textAlign: 'left' } }); })); <% foreach (var candidate in Model.Ansogninger) { %> <tr id="<%= candidate.AnsogerID %>" class="newCandidatesTableTr"> <td><div id="candidateID""><label title="<%= candidate.Navn %>"><%= candidate.AnsogerID %></label></div></td> <td><div id="<%= "candidateName_" + candidate.AnsogerID %>" class="candidateNameTD"><%= candidate.Navn %></div></td> <td><div id="candidateEmail"><%= candidate.Email %></div></td> <td><div id="candidateRundeName"><%= Model.RundeName %></div></td> <td id="testTD"> <div id="<%= "acceptCandidateButton_" + candidate.AnsogerID %>" class="acceptb">Godkend</div> </td> </tr> <% } %> /Thanks

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  • Is there any "modern" text editor with command-line/minibuffer?

    - by Pedro Morte Rolo
    A command line in a text editor is a wonderful feature. It allows the user to explore the editor's functionality and learn it's shortcuts in a textual way. It's much faster than using the mouse, and it is much easier to memorise "shortcuts" this way. Emacs and VI provide this, though, emacs and vi are not "modern". By "modern", I mean one that is original built to cope with the modern de-facto standards of selecting, copying, pasting, cutting, undoing, redoing and auto-completing. Cream/vi or Emacs/CUA are not valid options, since there are loads of things built over them that conflict with the mentioned stuff. It would be nice if there was an editor that would cope with the modern de-facto standards out-off-the-box, but still provide a command-line/minibuffer to perform/explore the commands and learn its shortcuts. Is there such a thing? I do not intend to use the "modern" term as derrogatory. I love both Emacs and VI, but I hate their keyboard-shortcut historical baggage. When I reffer to de-facto standards, I am not talking about Windows vs Whatever. Kate, gedit, Eclipse, Intelij or Textmate also follow the norm I am talking about and are not Windows editors. Please do not advertise Vim and Emacs, that's not answering the question. I am asking for alternatives. Why don't I like emacs and vi: Emacs: Despite CUA mode, emacs has loads of modes that conflict with this (e.g. slime, ruby-mode, etc...) It would be nice to have something that would work out-off-the-box. VI: I do not like that it is Visual/Insert-based. I do not know how to browse the text-editor's commands. I do not like that it is so much tought for the terminal. I believe that it has the same problem that I mentioned for emacs. This question is starting to look like requirement analysis.. As de-facto standards I mean: Ctrol-XCV for cut-copy-paste Ctrol-A for select-all Contrl-Z for Undo Ctrol-Y for Redo Control-F for Searching Contrl-Space for auto-complete Shift-arrow for selection Control-arrow for word-navigation Alt-Arrow for moving

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  • NHibernate (3.1.0.4000) NullReferenceException using Query<> and NHibernate Facility

    - by TigerShark
    I have a problem with NHibernate, I can't seem to find any solution for. In my project I have a simple entity (Batch), but whenever I try and run the following test, I get an exception. I've triede a couple of different ways to perform a similar query, but almost identical exception for all (it differs in which LINQ method being executed). The first test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .FirstOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.FirstOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) The second test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch2() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed) .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.SingleOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) However, this one is passing (using QueryOver<): [Test] public void QueryOverLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.QueryOver<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed).Asc .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); Assert.That(batch.Executed, Is.LessThan(DateTime.Now)); } } Using the QueryOver< API is not bad at all, but I'm just kind of baffled that the Query< API isn't working, which is kind of sad, since the First() operation is very concise, and our developers really enjoy LINQ. I really hope there is a solution to this, as it seems strange if these methods are failing such a simple test. EDIT I'm using Oracle 11g, my mappings are done with FluentNHibernate registered through Castle Windsor with the NHibernate Facility. As I wrote, the odd thing is that the query works perfectly with the QueryOver< API, but not through LINQ.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Custom Error Pages with Magical Unicorn

    - by FLClover
    my question is regarding Pure.Kromes answer to this post. I tried implementing my pages' custom error messages using his method, yet there are some problems I can't quite explain. a) When I provoke a 404 Error by entering in invalid URL such as localhost:3001/NonexistantPage, it defaults to the ServerError() Action of my error controller even though it should go to NotFound(). Here is my ErrorController: public class ErrorController : Controller { public ActionResult NotFound() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.NotFound; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } public ActionResult ServerError() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } } My error routes in Global.asax.cs: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("{*favicon}", new { favicon = @"(.*/)?favicon.ico(/.*)?" }); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 404", url: "NotFound", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "NotFound" } ); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 500", url: "ServerError", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "ServerError" } ); And my web.config settings: <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" redirectMode="ResponseRewrite" defaultRedirect="/ServerError"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="/NotFound" /> </customErrors> ... </system.web> <system.webServer> <httpErrors errorMode="Custom" existingResponse="Replace"> <remove statusCode="404" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="404" path="/NotFound" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> <remove statusCode="500" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="500" path="/ServerError" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> </httpErrors> ... The Error views are located in /Views/Error/ as NotFound.cshtml and ServerError.cshtml. b) One funny thing is, When a server error occurs, it does in fact display the Server Error view I defined, however it also outputs a default error message as well saying that the Error page could not be found. Here's how it looks like: Do you have any advice how I could fix these two problems? I really like Pure.Kromes approach to implementing these error messages, but if there are better ways of achieving this don't hestitate to tell me. Thanks! *EDIT : * I can directly navigate to my views through the ErrorController by accessing /Error/NotFound or Error/ServerError. The views themselves only contain some text, no markup or anything. As I said, it actually works in some way, just not the way I intended it to work. There seems to be an issue with the redirect in the web.config, but I haven't been able to figure it out.

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