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  • Problem retrieving HTML5 video duration

    - by drebabels
    UPDATE: Ok so although I haven't solved this problem exactly, but I did figure out a work around that handles my biggest concern... the user experience. First the video doesn't begin loading until after the viewer hits the play button, so I am assuming that the duration information wasn't available to be pulled (I don't know how to fix this particular issue... although I assume that it would involve just loading the video metadata separately from the video, but I don't even know if that is possible). So to get around the fact that there is no duration data, I decided to hide the duration info (and actually the entire control) completely until you hit play. I know... its cheating. But for now it makes me happy :) That said... if anyone knows how to load the video metadata separately from the video file... please share. I think that should completely solve this problem. I am working on building a HTML5 video player with a custom interface, but I am having some problems getting the video duration information to display. My HTML is real simple (see below) <video id="video" poster="image.jpg" controls> <source src="video_path.mp4" type="video/mp4" /> <source src="video_path.ogv" type="video/ogg" /> </video> <ul class="controls"> <li class="time"><p><span id="timer">0</span> of <span id="duration">0</span></p></li> </ul> And the javascript I am using to get and insert the duration is var duration = $('#duration').get(0); var vid_duration = Math.round(video.duration); duration.firstChild.nodeValue = vid_duration; The problem is nothing happens. I know the video file has the duration data because if I just use the default controls, it displays fine. But the real strange thing is if I put alert(duration) in my code like so alert(duration); var vid_duration = Math.round(video.duration); duration.firstChild.nodeValue = vid_duration; then is works fine (minus the annoying alert that pops up). Any ideas what is happening here or how I can fix it?

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  • stdio's remove() not always deleting on time.

    - by Kyte
    For a particular piece of homework, I'm implementing a basic data storage system using sequential files under standard C, which cannot load more than 1 record at a time. So, the basic part is creating a new file where the results of whatever we do with the original records are stored. The previous file's renamed, and a new one under the working name is created. The code's compiled with MinGW 5.1.6 on Windows 7. Problem is, this particular version of the code (I've got nearly-identical versions of this floating around my functions) doesn't always remove the old file, so the rename fails and hence the stored data gets wiped by the fopen(). FILE *archivo, *antiguo; remove("IndiceNecesidades.old"); // This randomly fails to work in time. rename("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "IndiceNecesidades.old"); // So rename() fails. antiguo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.old", "rb"); // But apparently it still gets deleted, since this turns out null (and I never find the .old in my working folder after the program's done). archivo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "wb"); // And here the data gets wiped. Basically, anytime the .old previously exists, there's a chance it's not removed in time for the rename() to take effect successfully. No possible name conflicts both internally and externally. The weird thing's that it's only with this particular file. Identical snippets except with the name changed to Necesidades.dat (which happen in 3 different functions) work perfectly fine. // I'm yet to see this snippet fail. FILE *antiguo, *archivo; remove("Necesidades.old"); rename("Necesidades.dat", "Necesidades.old"); antiguo = fopen("Necesidades.old", "rb"); archivo = fopen("Necesidades.dat", "wb"); Any ideas on why would this happen, and/or how can I ensure the remove() command has taken effect by the time rename() is executed? (I thought of just using a while loop to force call remove() again so long as fopen() returns a non-null pointer, but that sounds like begging for a crash due to overflowing the OS with delete requests or something.)

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  • Convert a PDF to a Transparent PNG with GhostScript

    - by Jonathon Wolfe
    Hi all. I am attempting, unsuccessfully, to use Ghostscript to rasterize PDF files with a transparent background to PNG files with a transparent background. I've searched high and low for questions from others attempting the same thing and none of the posted solutions, which as far as I can tell come down to specifying -sDEVICE=pngalpha, have worked with my test files. At this point I would really appreciate any advice or tips a more experienced hand could provide. My test PDF is located here: http://www.kolossus.com/files/test.pdf It could be that the issue is with this file, but I doubt it. As far as I can tell, it has no specified background, and when I open the file with a transparency-aware app like Photoshop or Illustrator, sure enough it displays with a transparent background. However, when opened with an application like Adobe Reader the file is rendered with a white background. I believe that this has more to do with the application rendering the PDF than with the PDF itself -- apps like Adobe Reader assume you want to see what a printed document will look like and therefore always show a white canvas behind the artwork -- but I can't be sure. The gs command I'm using is: gs -dNOPAUSE -dBATCH -sDEVICE=pngalpha -r72 -sOutputFile=test.png test.pdf This produces a PNG that has transparent pixels outside of the bounding box of the artwork in the file, but all pixels that are inside the artwork's bounding box are rasterized against a white background. This is a problem for me, as my artwork has drop shadows and antialiased edges that need to be preserved in the final output, and can't just be postprocessed out with ImageMagick. A sample of my PNG output is at the same location as the pdf above, with .png at the end (stackoverflow won't let me include more than one url in my post). Interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dBackgroundColor flag, even if I set it to something non-white like -dBackgroundColor=16#ff0000. Perhaps my understanding of the syntax of this flag is wrong. Also interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dTextAlphaBits=4 -dGraphicsAlphaBits=4 flags to try to enable subpixel antialiasing. I would also appreciate any advice on how to enable subpixel antialiasing, especially on text. Finally, I'm using GPL Ghostscript 8.64 on Mac OS 10.5.7, and the rendering workflow I'm trying to get set up is to generate transparent PNG images from PDFs output by PrinceXML. I'm calling Ghostscript directly for the rasterization instead of using ImageMagick because ImageMagick delegates to Ghostscript for PDF rasterization and I should be able to control the rasterization better by calling GS directly. Thanks for your help. -Jon Wolfe

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  • Connection Refused running multiple environments on Selenium Grid 1.04 via Ubuntu 9.04

    - by ReadyWater
    Hello, I'm writing a selenium grid test suite which is going to be run on a series of different machines. I wrote most of it on my macbook but have recently transfered it over to my work machine, which is running ubuntu 9.04. That's actually my first experience with a linux machine, so I may be missing something very simple (I have disabled the firewall though). I haven't been able to get the multienvironment thing working at all, and I've been trying and manual reviewing for a while. Any recommendations and help would be greatly, greatly appreciated! The error I'm getting when I run the test is: [java] FAILED CONFIGURATION: @BeforeMethod startFirstEnvironment("localhost", 4444, "*safari", "http://remoteURL:8080/tutor") [java] java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not start Selenium session: ERROR: Connection refused I thought it might be the mac refusing the connection, but using wireshark I determined that no connection attempt was made on the mac . Here's the code for setting up the session, which is where it seems to be dying @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "firstEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startFirstEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String firstEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, firstEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "secondEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startSecondEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String secondEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, secondEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } and the accompanying build script used to run the test <target name="runMulti" depends="compile" description="Run Selenium tests in parallel (20 threads)"> <echo>${seleniumHost}</echo> <java classpathref="runtime.classpath" classname="org.testng.TestNG" failonerror="true"> <sysproperty key="java.security.policy" file="${rootdir}/lib/testng.policy"/> <sysproperty key="webSite" value="${webSite}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumHost" value="${seleniumHost}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumPort" value="${seleniumPort}" /> <sysproperty key="firstEnvironment" value="${firstEnvironment}" /> <sysproperty key="secondEnvironment" value="${secondEnvironment}" /> <arg value="-d" /> <arg value="${basedir}/target/reports" /> <arg value="-suitename" /> <arg value="Selenium Grid Java Sample Test Suite" /> <arg value="-parallel"/> <arg value="methods"/> <arg value="-threadcount"/> <arg value="15"/> <arg value="testng.xml"/> </java>

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  • Problems with CGI wrapper for PHP

    - by user205878
    I'm having a bugger of a time with a CGI wrapper for PHP. I know very little about CGI and PHP as CGI. Here's what I know about the system: Solaris 10 on a 386 Suhosin PHP normally running as CGI, with cgiwrap (http://cgiwrap.sourceforge.net/). I am not able to find an example wrapper.cgi on the server to look at. Shared hosting (virtual host), so I don't have access to Apache config. But the admins are not helpful. Switching hosts is not an option. Options directive cannot be overridden in .htaccess (ExecCGI, for example). .htaccess: AddHandler php-handler .php Action php-handler "/bin/test.cgi" ~/public_html/bin/test.cgi: #!/usr/bin/sh # Without these 2 lines, I get an Internal Server Error echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to/php-cgi" 'foo.php'; /bin/foo.php: <?php echo "this is foo.php!"; Output of http://mysite.com/bin/test.cgi: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; Output of http:/ /mysite.com/anypage.php: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; The things I note are: PHP is being executed, as noted by the X-Powered-By ... header. The source of /bin/test.cgi is output in the results. No matter what I put as the second argument of exec, it isn't passed to the php binary. I've tried '-i' to get phpinfo, '-v' to get the version... When I execute test.cgi via the shell, I get the expected results (the argument is passed to php, and it is reflected in the output). Any ideas about how to get this to work? UPDATE It appears that the reason the source of the test.cgi was appearing was due to errors. Anytime fatal error occurred, either within the cgi itself or with the command being executed by exec, it would cause the source of the cgi to appear. Within test.cgi, I can get the proper output with exec "/path/to/php-cgi" -h (I get the same thing as I would from CLI).

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  • Soon to be PhD in Computer Science - Which Path to Follow?

    - by mttr
    I am going to submit my PhD thesis within the next six months. My PhD is on managing the availabiity of large-scale distributed systems, so I have some experience actually building non-trivial systems (+ I have four years experience working as a programmer). I am now trying to figure out what I should do following the PhD. I enjoy research (a quick definition: identify problem, come up with solution, ask interesting questions, find ways to answer them, build system, experiment, contribute some new knowledge and publish). I also like teaching and supervising students. It would seem that a career in academia is the ideal thing to do (can work on non-trivial problems and contribute something of use to some or more people). However, a career in academia has two significant drawbacks. First, it can be difficult to gain access to real systems with real users which then display real problems. This creates the danger that you do work that seems important (to you and maybe to some of your colleagues), but is not really relevant to anything or anyone. Second, the pay is pretty sad. Apparently, you have to sacrifice this for the privilege of doing research. I enjoy programming, but don't just want to hack some web-based system for the rest of my life. That is, working in IT for a bank is not a future I see myself enjoying. I want to work on interesting problms (that's difficult to define clearly): things where you don't know how to start, that take some time to figure out and attack, that require a rigorous approach to demonstrate that the problem has been solved, and problems that need a solution in the real world. Give the experience of people on stackoverflow, what do you think suitable options are and why (or alternatively, what gaps in my thinking does the above reveal)? Is industrial research (aka IBM Research, Microsoft Research) the only alternative avenue to a career in academia? What other areas, companies, occupations, etc. could provide me with stimulating, inspiring work? Which regions, countries am I most likely to find such work? Please share your experience.

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  • Adding Icons next to items in Navigation Drawer

    - by DunriteJW
    I have been trying to figure this out for quite some time right now. I've looked all over this site and many others, and can't find anything that works. I simply want icons next to each item in my navigation drawer. I am currently using the method that Google's navigation drawer sample app uses. in the MainActivity.java I have the following: mColorTitles = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.colors_array); mDrawerLayout = (DrawerLayout) findViewById(R.id.drawer_layout); mDrawerList = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.left_drawer); mColorIcons = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.color_icons); adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.drawer_list_item, mColorTitles); // set a custom shadow that overlays the main content when the drawer opens mDrawerLayout.setDrawerShadow(R.drawable.drawer_shadow, GravityCompat.START); // set up the drawer's list view with items and click listener mDrawerList.setAdapter(adapter); mDrawerList.setOnItemClickListener(new DrawerItemClickListener()); my drawer_list_item.xml: <TextView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/text1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceListItemSmall" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dp" android:paddingRight="16dp" android:textColor="#000" android:background="?android:attr/activatedBackgroundIndicator" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeightSmall"/> it currently just makes the navigation drawer display the color titles from the array. I have the icons that I want in another array, and they follow the exact same order as I want them associated with the colors. I just have no idea how to even begin inserting the icons from that array into the navigation items if it helps, here's what my arrays look like in my strings.xml (not full code) <string-array name="colors_array"> <item>Home</item> <item>Cherry</item> <item>Crimson</item> ... <array name="color_icons"> <item>@drawable/homeicon</item> <item>@drawable/cherryicon</item> <item>@drawable/crimsonicon</item> ... I've tried putting a drawable in the drawer_list_item, which works, but (of course) it always puts the same one in there. I could not think of a way to change it according to the color. I am relatively new to android programming, so if I am missing something simple, I'm sorry. If you could help me out, I would greatly appreciate it, as this is basically the last thing I need to do before I publish my application to the Play Store. Thanks in advance!

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  • Reading xml within xml as String in flex/AS3

    - by duder
    I'm getting XML input that looks like this <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <data1>this is data 1</data1> <data2>this is data 2</data2> <data3> <3a>this is data 3a</3a> <3b>this is data 3b</3b> <3c> <TextFlow xmlns="http://ns.adobe.com/textLayout/2008"> <p direction="ltr" > <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> <p direction="ltr"> <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> </TextFlow> </3c> </data3> I can read <data1> with event.result.data1 which outputs a string this is data1 But when I do the same thing to event.result.data3.3c, it prints object [object] so I guess it's trying to dig deeper into the tree. But I need the actual string text (not xml tree) starting from and including <TextFlow></TextFlow> to be stored and printed as a string. Any idea what's the syntax for this? The string I'm looking for would look like this: <TextFlow xmlns="http://ns.adobe.com/textLayout/2008"> <p direction="ltr" > <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> <p direction="ltr"> <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> </TextFlow>

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  • J: Self-reference in bubble sort tacit implementation

    - by Yasir Arsanukaev
    Hello people! Since I'm beginner in J I've decided to solve a simple task using this language, in particular implementing the bubblesort algorithm. I know it's not idiomatically to solve such kind of problem in functional languages, because it's naturally solved using array element transposition in imperative languages like C, rather than constructing modified list in declarative languages. However this is the code I've written: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # Let's apply it to an array: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 The thing that confuses me is $: referring to the statement within the outermost parentheses. Help says that: $: denotes the longest verb that contains it. The other book (~ 300 KiB) says: 3+4 7 5*20 100 Symbols like + and * for plus and times in the above phrases are called verbs and represent functions. You may have more than one verb in a J phrase, in which case it is constructed like a sentence in simple English by reading from left to right, that is 4+6%2 means 4 added to whatever follows, namely 6 divided by 2. Let's rewrite my code snippet omitting outermost ()s: ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 Reuslts are the same. I couldn't explain myself why this works, why only ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is treated as the longest verb for $: but not the whole expression ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # and not just (<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.), because if ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is a verb, it should also form another verb after conjunction with #, i. e. one might treat the whole sentence (first snippet) as a verb. Probably there's some limit for the verb length limited by one conjunction. Look at the following code (from here): factorial =: (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<) factorial 4 24 factorial within expression refers to the whole function, i. e. (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<). Following this example I've used a function name instead of $:: bubblesort =: (((<./@(2&{.)), bubblesort@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # bubblesort 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 I expected bubblesort to refer to the whole function, but it doesn't seem true for me since the result is correct. Also I'd like to see other implementations if you have ones, even slightly refactored. Thanks.

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  • Android Market: Application not visible on some Devices

    - by Andreas
    Hello, i have written an application that needs to process outgoing calls. Everything works fine, the application has already a few hundred downloads, but now i get feedback from people who would like to download it, yet cannot find it. I have done some tests and have found that the permission "PROCESS_OUTGOING_CALLS" seems to be responsible for this. If i include it in an app, people with branded phones (at least in Germany) cannot find it, as soon as i remove this permission, everything is fine (when i re-insert it again, the app vanishes again) The weird thing is, that those users can see other apps which use this permission in the market. I have compared my manifest file to outputs from other manifest files and cannot understand why it doesn't work. Here is the manifest file for a test application i wrote to test the problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.eventkontor.marketavailabilitytest" android:versionName="1.2" android:versionCode="3" android:installLocation="auto"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".showMain" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" android:targetSdkVersion="4" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.PROCESS_OUTGOING_CALLS"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_CONTACTS"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.VIBRATE"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_WIFI_STATE"></uses-permission> <supports-screens android:normalScreens="true" android:resizeable="true" android:largeScreens="true" android:smallScreens="false"></supports-screens> </manifest> Does anyone have an idea what i'm doing wrong?

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  • 404 in ASP.NET MVC with Integrated Pipeline mode

    - by David Martines
    IIS 7.0 (Shared Hosting) ASP.NET 2.0 Integrated Pipeline mode MVC 1.0 I get a 404 on every url except /default.aspx. I have this in my web.config: <system.webServer> <defaultDocument enabled="true"> <files> <clear /> <add value="Default.aspx" /> </files> </defaultDocument> <directoryBrowse enabled="false" /> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <handlers> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory_asmx" verb="*" path="*.asmx" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory_axd" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResourceHandler" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="MvcHttpHandler" verb="*" path="*.mvc" type="System.Web.Mvc.MvcHttpHandler, System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ErrorLogPageFactory" verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> </handlers> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <remove name="ErrorLog" /> <remove name="UnitOfWorkModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule, System.Web.Routing, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="UnitOfWorkModule" type="MusicCompany.Infrastructure.UnitOfWorkModule, MusicCompany.Infrastructure" /> <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah" /> </modules> The only unusual thing to me is the defaultDocument. It seems I need it because of the way the host (shared hosting) is set up (?) Any clues? Thanks

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  • Outlook Marking Email as Junk Email

    - by robertabead
    I know. I sound like a spammer but these emails are completely legitimate email confirmations for people that have signed up for an account on this website we developed. These emails all make it through to various mail providers (gmail, yahoo, aol, hotmail/live) but they always get directed into the Outlook Junk Email folder. I am have tried using Zend Framework mail, PEAR Mail and phpMailer. All of those methods result in the same thing happening. This seemed to start happening after Microsoft released their update to the Outlook Junk Email filter in January of this year. Following is the code in question: include_once('Mail.php'); include_once('Mail/mime.php'); $hdrs = array( 'From' => "Membership <[email protected]>", 'Subject' => 'Test Email', 'Reply-To'=> "[email protected]", 'Message-ID'=> "<" . str_pad(rand(0,12345678),8,'0',STR_PAD_LEFT) . "@mail.example.com>", 'Date'=> date("D, j M Y H:i:s O",time()), 'To'=> '[email protected]' ); $params = array('host'=>'mail.example.com','auth'=>false,'localhost' => 'www.example.com','debug'=>false); $crlf = "\n"; $mime = new Mail_mime($crlf); $mime->setTXTBody("TEST"); $mime->setHTMLBody("<html>\n<body>\nTest\n</body>\n</html>"); $body = $mime->get(); $hdrs = $mime->headers($hdrs); $mail =& Mail::factory('smtp',$params); $t=$mail->send('[email protected]', $hdrs, $body); As you can see we are using the PEAR Mail functionality in this test. This is the most basic test we could run and the above generated email gets dumped into the Outlook Junk Email folder. We have reverse DNS on the mail server and it matches the forward DNS, SPF and DKIM are set up and there is nothing "spammy" with the above content. Can anybody see something with the above code that could cause Outlook to mark it as Junk? Thanks!

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  • Loop through multi-dimensional array and remove certain keys

    - by Webkungen
    Hi! I've got a nested tree structure which is based on the array below: Array ( [1] = Array ( [id] = 1 [parent] = 0 [name] = Startpage [uri] = 125 [basename] = index.php [child] = ) [23] = Array ( [id] = 23 [parent] = 0 [name] = Events [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = Array ( [24] = Array ( [id] = 24 [parent] = 23 [name] = Public news [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = Array ( [27] = Array ( [id] = 27 [parent] = 24 [name] = Add [uri] = 100 [basename] = news.public.add.php [child] = ) [28] = Array ( [id] = 28 [parent] = 24 [name] = Overview [uri] = 101 [basename] = news.public.overview.php [child] = ) ) ) [25] = Array ( [id] = 25 [parent] = 23 [name] = Private news [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = Array ( [29] = Array ( [id] = 29 [parent] = 25 [name] = Add [uri] = 67 [basename] = news.private.add.php [child] = ) [30] = Array ( [id] = 30 [parent] = 25 [name] = Overview [uri] = 68 [basename] = news.private.overview.php [child] = ) ) ) [26] = Array ( [id] = 26 [parent] = 23 [name] = Calendar [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = Array ( [31] = Array ( [id] = 31 [parent] = 26 [name] = Add [uri] = 69 [basename] = news.event.add.php [child] = ) [32] = Array ( [id] = 32 [parent] = 26 [name] = Overview [uri] = 70 [basename] = news.event.overview.php [child] = ) ) ) ) ) ) I'm looking for a function to loop (recursive?) through the array and remove some keys. I my system I can allow users to certain functions/pages and if I deny access to the whole "block" "Events", the array will look like this: Array ( [1] = Array ( [id] = 1 [parent] = 0 [name] = Startpage [uri] = 125 [basename] = index.php [child] = ) [23] = Array ( [id] = 23 [parent] = 0 [name] = Events [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = Array ( [24] = Array ( [id] = 24 [parent] = 23 [name] = Public news [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = ) [25] = Array ( [id] = 25 [parent] = 23 [name] = Private news [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = ) [26] = Array ( [id] = 26 [parent] = 23 [name] = Calendar [uri] = 0 [basename] = [child] = ) ) ) ) As you can see above, the whole "block" "Events" is useless right now, becuase there is no page associated with each option. So I need to find all "keys" where "basename" is null AND where child is not an array or where the array is empty and remove them. I found this function when searching the site: function searchAndDestroy(&$a, $key, $val){ foreach($a as $k = &$v){ if(is_array($v)){ $r = searchAndDestroy($v, $key, $val); if($r){ unset($a[$k]); } }elseif($key == $k && $val == $v){ return true; } } return false; } It can be used to remove a key any where in the array, but only based in one thing, for example remove all keys where "parent" equals "23". But I need to find and remove (unset) all keys where "basename" is null AND where child isn't an array or where the array is empty. Can anyone help me out and possibly tweak the function above? Thank you,

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  • Any software for pattern-matching and -rewriting source code?

    - by Steven A. Lowe
    I have some old software (in a language that's not dead but is dead to me ;-)) that implements a basic pattern-matching and -rewriting system for source code. I am considering resurrecting this code, translating it into a modern language, and open-sourcing the project as a refactoring power-tool. Before I go much further, I want to know if anything like this exists already (my google-fu is fanning air on this tonight). Here's how it works: the pattern-matching part matches source-code patterns spanning multiple lines of code using a template with binding variables, the pattern-rewriting part uses a template to rewrite the matched code, inserting the contents of the bound variables from the matching template matching and rewriting templates are associated (1:1) by a simple (unconditional) rewrite rule the software operates on the abstract syntax tree (AST) of the input application, and outputs a modified AST which can then be regenerated into new source code for example, suppose we find a bunch of while-loops that really should be for-loops. The following template will match the while-loop pattern: Template oldLoopPtrn int @cnt@ = 0; while (@cnt@ < @max@) { … @body@ ++@cnt@; } End_Template while the following template will specify the output rewrite pattern: Template newLoopPtrn for(int @cnt@ = 0; @cnt@ < @max@; @cnt@++) { @body@ } End_Template and a simple rule to associate them Rule oldLoopPtrn --> newLoopPtrn so code that looks like this int i=0; while(i<arrlen) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); ++i; } gets automatically rewritten to look like this for(int i = 0; i < arrlen; i++) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); } The closest thing I've seen like this is some of the code-refactoring tools, but they seem to be geared towards interactive rewriting of selected snippets, not wholesale automated changes. I believe that this kind of tool could supercharge refactoring, and would work on multiple languages (even HTML/CSS). I also believe that converting and polishing the code base would be a huge project that I simply cannot do alone in any reasonable amount of time. So, anything like this out there already? If not, any obvious features (besides rewrite-rule conditions) to consider? EDIT: The one feature of this system that I like very much is that the template patterns are fairly obvious and easy to read because they're written in the same language as the target source code, not in some esoteric mutated regex/BNF format.

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  • [Android] For-Loop Performance Oddity

    - by Jack Holt
    I just noticed something concerning for-loop performance that seems to fly in the face of the recommendations given by the Google Android team. Look at the following code: package com.jackcholt; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; public class Main extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); loopTest(); finish(); } private void loopTest() { final long loopCount = 1228800; final int[] image = new int[8 * 320 * 480]; long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < (8 * 320 * 480); i++) { image[i] = i; } for (int i = 0; i < (8 * 320 * 480); i++) { image[i] = i; } Log.i("loopTest", "Elapsed time (recompute loop limit): " + (System.currentTimeMillis() - start)); start = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < 1228800; i++) { image[i] = i; } for (int i = 0; i < 1228800; i++) { image[i] = i; } Log.i("loopTest", "Elapsed time (literal loop limit): " + (System.currentTimeMillis() - start)); start = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < loopCount; i++) { image[i] = i; } for (int i = 0; i < loopCount; i++) { image[i] = i; } Log.i("loopTest", "Elapsed time (precompute loop limit): " + (System.currentTimeMillis() - start)); } } When I run this code I get the following output in logcat: I/loopTest( 726): Elapsed time (recompute loop limit): 759 I/loopTest( 726): Elapsed time (literal loop limit): 755 I/loopTest( 726): Elapsed time (precompute loop limit): 1317 As you can see the code that seems to recompute the loop limit value on every iteration of the loop compares very well to the code that uses a literal value for the loop limit. However, the code that uses a variable which contains the precomputed value for the loop limit is significantly slower than either of the others. I'm not surprised that accessing a variable should be slower that using a literal but why does code that looks like it should be using two multiply instructions on every iteration of the loop so comparable in performance to a literal? Could it be that because literals are the only thing being multiplied, the Java compiler is optimizing out the multiplication and using a precomputed literal?

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  • jQuery Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    I'm using the jQuery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that I have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The jQuery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an example for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how I call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file I call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course I call the Spry CSS and JavaScript files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When I just use the jQuery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesn't work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can I add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. I hope I was clear explaining my problem.

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  • How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

    - by Richard Poole
    I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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  • iPhone UIImage upload to web service

    - by user347635
    Hi all, I worked on this for several hours today and I'm pretty close to a solution but clearly need some help from someone who's pulled this off. I'm trying to post an image to a web service from the iPhone. I'll post the code first then explain everything I've tried: NSData *imageData = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(barCodePic, .9); NSString *soapMsg = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?><soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\"><soap:Body><WriteImage xmlns=\"http://myserver/imagewebservice/\"><ImgIn>%@</ImgIn></WriteImage></soap:Body></soap:Envelope>", [NSData dataWithData:imageData] ]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/service1.asmx"]; NSMutableURLRequest *req = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMsg length]]; [req addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [req addValue:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/WriteImage" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [req addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [req setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [req setHTTPBody: [soapMsg dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if (conn) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } First thing, this code works fine for anything but an image. The web service is running on my local network and I can change the source code at will and if I change the "ImgIn" parameter to a string and pass a string in, everything works fine, I get a return value no problem. So there are no connectivity issues at all, I'm able to call and get data from this web service on this server no problems. But I need to upload an image to this web service via the ImgIn parameter, so the above code is my best shot so far. I also have didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError, etc all being handled. The above code fires off didRecieveResponse every time. However didReceiveData is never fired and it's like the web service itself never even runs. When I debug the web service itself, it runs and debugs fine when I use a string parameter, but with the image parameter, it never even debugs when I call it. It's almost like the ImgIn parameter is too long (it's huge when I output it to the screen) and the web service just chokes on it. I've read about having to encode to Base64 when using this method, but I can't find any good links on how that's done. If that's what I'm doing wrong, can you PLEASE provide code as to how to do this, not just "you need to use Base64", I'd really appreciate it as I can find almost nothing on how to implement this with an example. Other than that, I'm kind of lost, it seems like I'm doing everything else right. Please help! Thanks

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  • PHP fopen returning null on files that work fine with include and get_file_contents

    - by brad allred
    Hi, I have XAMPP installed on a windows 2000 server. everything is working great except the PHP fopen function. I can neither create nor open files with it. the strange thing is that i can include/require/file_get_contents/other file related functions; also fopen does not generate any errors or notices it just returns NULL. I have gone as far as to grant full control of the file and all enclosing folders to everybody but i still get NULL instead of a file pointer. I have tried this on php 5.2.9, 5.2.13, and 5.3.1 with the same effect. i have gone through the php.ini file looking for something that is breaking it; i have even tried deleting and using the basic ini file from a linux box where fopen is working and still nothing. I know i have to restart apache after changing my ini and all that and have been (I have even restarted the server) so thats not it. I am at this poing assuming it is an apache configuration issue somehow, tomorrow im going to run a test through php-cli to make sure. I really don't want to bruise my head anymore over this can some apache/php wizard come to my aid? Hi guys, thanks for the responses. you are right is is not any config problem. the problem has to be with one of my dlls or one of my included files. I just tried the same code that isn't working in a new file without any include and i disabled my custom libraries and it worked. for the record here is what I was doing that wasn't working: $test_file = 'c:\\test.csv';//everybody has full control. is very large. if(file_exists($test_file) && is_readable($test_file)){ $fp = fopen($test_file, 'r'); echo var_export($fp, true);//outputs NULL. on my linux box this is a number. if($fp !== false){ //do the work fread($fp, 10);//throws the error that $fp is not a valid file handle } } something that i am including must be breaking fopen somehow. works as expected in new file with no includes.

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  • What is a good dumbed-down, safe template system for PHP?

    - by Wilhelm
    (Summary: My users need to be able to edit the structure of their dynamically generated web pages without being able to do any damage.) Greetings, ladies and gentlemen. I am currently working on a service where customers from a specific demographic can create a specific type of web site and fill it with their own content. The system is written in PHP. Many of the users of this system wish to edit how their particular web site looks, or, more commonly, have a designer do it for them. Editing the CSS is fine and dandy, but sometimes that's not enough. Sometimes they want to shuffle the entire page structure around by editing the raw HTML of the dynamically created web pages. The templating system used by WordPress is, as far as I can see, perfect for my use. Except for one thing which is critically important. In addition to being able to edit how comments are displayed or where the menu goes, someone editing a template can have that template execute arbitrary PHP code. As the same codebase runs all these different sites, with all content in the same databse, allowing my users to run arbitrary code is clearly out of the question. So what I need, is a dumbed-down, idiot-proof templating system where my users can edit most of the page structure on their own, pulling in the dynamic sections wherever, without being able to even echo 1+1;. Observe the following psuedocode: <!DOCTYPE html> <title><!-- $title --></title> <!-- header() --> <!-- menu() --> <div>Some random custom crap added by the user.</div> <!-- page_content() --> That's the degree of power I'd like to grant my users. They don't need to do their own loops or calculations or anything. Just include my variables and functions and leave the rest to me. I'm sure I'm not the only person on the planet that needs something like this. Do you know of any ready-made templating systems I could use? Thanks in advance for your reply.

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  • Update tile notifcation with XML returned by web service

    - by tempid
    I have a Metro app in C# & XAML. The tile is updated periodically and I've used WebAPI to serve the tile notification XML. So far so good. I was then told that I cannot use WebAPI as the server that I was planning to host it on does not have .NET 4.5. No plans to install it anytime soon either. I had to change the WebAPI to a plain old Web service (.NET 3.5) which does the same thing - return tile notification XML. I've enabled HTTP-GET (I know, security concern) and was able to invoke the webservice like this - http://server/TileNotifications.asmx/[email protected] But ever since I made the switch, the tiles are not being updated. I've checked Fiddler and made sure the app is hitting the webservice and the XML is being returned correctly. But the tiles are not updated. If I replace it with the WebAPI, the tiles are updated. Do I need to do anything special with the web services? like decorating the web method with a custom attribute? Here's my web service code - [WebMethod] public XmlDocument GetTileData(string user) { // snip var xml = new XmlDocument(); xml.LoadXml(string.Format(@"<tile> <visual> <binding template='TileWideSmallImageAndText02'> <image id='1' src='http://server/images/{0}_wide.png'/> <text id='1'>Custom Field : {1}/text> <text id='2'>Custom Field : {2}</text> <text id='3'>Custom Field : {3}</text> </binding> <binding template='TileSquarePeekImageAndText01'> <image id='1' src='http://server/images/{0}_square.png'/> <text id='1'>Custom Field</text> <text id='2'>{1}</text> </binding> </visual> </tile>", value1, value2, value3, value4)); return xml; }

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  • How do gitignore exclusion rules actually work?

    - by meowsqueak
    I'm trying to solve a gitignore problem on a large directory structure, but to simplify my question I have reduced it to the following. I have the following directory structure of two files (foo, bar) in a brand new git repository (no commits so far): a/b/c/foo a/b/c/bar Obviously, a 'git status -u' shows: # Untracked files: ... # a/b/c/bar # a/b/c/foo What I want to do is create a .gitignore file that ignores everything inside a/b/c but does not ignore the file 'foo'. If I create a .gitignore thus: c/ Then a 'git status -u' shows both foo and bar as ignored: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore Which is as I expect. Now if I add an exclusion rule for foo, thus: c/ !foo According to the gitignore manpage, I'd expect this to to work. But it doesn't - it still ignores foo: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore This doesn't work either: c/ !a/b/c/foo Neither does this: c/* !foo Gives: # Untracked files: ... # .gitignore # a/b/c/bar # a/b/c/foo In that case, although foo is no longer ignored, bar is also not ignored. The order of the rules in .gitignore doesn't seem to matter either. This also doesn't do what I'd expect: a/b/c/ !a/b/c/foo That one ignores both foo and bar. One situation that does work is if I create the file a/b/c/.gitignore and put in there: * !foo But the problem with this is that eventually there will be other subdirectories under a/b/c and I don't want to have to put a separate .gitignore into every single one - I was hoping to create 'project-based' .gitignore files that can sit in the top directory of each project, and cover all the 'standard' subdirectory structure. This also seems to be equivalent: a/b/c/* !a/b/c/foo This might be the closest thing to "working" that I can achieve, but the full relative paths and explicit exceptions need to be stated, which is going to be a pain if I have a lot of files of name 'foo' in different levels of the subdirectory tree. Anyway, either I don't quite understand how exclusion rules work, or they don't work at all when directories (rather than wildcards) are ignored - by a rule ending in a / Can anyone please shed some light on this? Is there a way to make gitignore use something sensible like regular expressions instead of this clumsy shell-based syntax? I'm using and observe this with git-1.6.6.1 on Cygwin/bash3 and git-1.7.1 on Ubuntu/bash3.

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  • SqlMetal, Sql Server 2008 database, Table with HierachyID, dal cs file is created sometimes ?

    - by judek.mp
    I have 2 databases with a 2 tables with HierachyID fields. For one database I can get a dal cs file, for the other database I cannot get a dal cs file ? HBus is a database I can get the dal cs for, ... SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:HBus /code:HBusDC.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext This kicks me out a file, ... which works, but excludes the HierarchyID field for the table and includes all other fields for that table. This is OK I do not mind. The above cmd line kicks out an warning but still produces a file, like so SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:HBus /code:HBusDC.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext Microsoft (R) Database Mapping Generator 2008 version 1.00.30729 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework version 3.5 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.HMsg' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.vwHMsg' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). HMsg is a table with a HierarchyID field. I have another database, Elf, almost the same thing but I get a warning and an Error when using sql metal and I do not get a dal cs file ... SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:Elf /code:ElfDataContextDal.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext An error as well as the warning and the cs file fails to appear on my disc, ... :-( SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:Elf /code:ElfDataContextDal.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext Microsoft (R) Database Mapping Generator 2008 version 1.00.30729 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework version 3.5 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.EntityLink' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). Error : Requested value 'ELF.SYS.HIERARCHYID' was not found. The fields are declared the same way in Elf db OrgNode [HierarchyID] null , in HBus db ... OrgNode [HierarchyID] null , Both databases are in the same instance of sql server 2008, so the HierarchyID is an inbuilt type, neither db has HierarchyID udt ,... cheers in advance for any replies ...

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  • Cases of companies taking IP rights of your own personal projects developed outside company time

    - by GSS
    Hi, I have heard of cases where a developer working for a company is also making his own personal projects in his own time, using his own equipment yet the company he works for tries to claim ownership for the project. I really find this annoying, and bang out of order. It should also be illegal. I am in this position (work for a company and working on my own systems - from small class libraries used to practise what I learn in my exam revision to a large commercial-scale system). While I don't know if the company will try to take ownership, all I know is they say they do not want a conflict of interest. Fair enough, my system is developed in my own time using my own equipment. They also say that work time should be for work only, which it is. Funny thing that as work is so boring, easy and slow that I have plenty of free time, which I wish I could spend on something productive - said system. The problem is, my company does not take hiring technical talent seriously. This is my first job, I am a junior coder (but my status/position doesn't really reflect what I can do), but I am the only developer. Likewise with the guy who controls Windows Server. As the contract does not say anything about taking ownership, I would assume they would. They would try to milk my success (I've made a good impression so I am sure they would). How can this be allowed? Are there any examples of this happening to any fellow Stacker here? It really makes my blood boil. What I find funny is that my company hardly has the expertise and resources to even be able to successfully run a project of my size. What I do at work is an ASP.NET application consisting of five pages, and even then there are flaws in the project. If I told them that they would also have to take responsibility for flaws in the project, then they would think twice! It's exactly because of this I save the best code for myself and at work I write rubbish code full of code smells. The company don't really care about error handling, as long as the business functionality works (ie a scheduled email sends, but there is no error handling). They'd think twice when they see the embarassment and business cost of a YSOD...

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  • Streaming webcam video in Flash using MP4 encoding

    - by Herms
    One of the features of the Flash app I'm working on is to be able to stream a webcam to others. We're just using the built-in webcam support in Flash and sending it through FMS. We've had some people ask for higher quality video, but we're already using the highest quality setting we can in Flash (setting quality to 100%). My understanding is that in the newer flash players they added support for MPEG-4 encoding for the videos. I created a simple test Flex app to try and compare the video quality of the MP4 vs FLV encodings. However, I can't seem to get MP4 to work at all. According to the Flex documentation the only thing I need to do to use MP4 instead of FLV is prepend "mp4:" to the name of the stream when calling publish: Specify the stream name as a string with the prefix mp4: with or without the filename extension. The prefix indicates to the server that the file contains H.264-encoded video and AAC-encoded audio within the MPEG-4 Part 14 container format. When I try this nothing happens. I don't get any events raised on the client side, no exceptions thrown, and my logging on the server side doesn't show any streams starting. Here's the relevant code: // These are all defined and created within the class. private var nc:NetConnection; private var sharing:Boolean; private var pubStream:NetStream; private var format:String; private var streamName:String; private var camera:Camera; // called when the user clicks the start button private function startSharing():void { if (!nc.connected) { return; } if (sharing) { return; } if(pubStream == null) { pubStream = new NetStream(nc); pubStream.attachCamera(camera); } startPublish(); sharing = true; } private function startPublish():void { var name:String; if (this.format == "mp4") { name = "mp4:" + streamName; } else { name = streamName; } //pubStream.publish(name, "live"); pubStream.publish(name, "record"); }

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