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  • animated swap position of two buttons

    - by Jagat
    I am trying to swap the position of two buttons. my swapping code looks as below. private void exchangeButtons(Button btn1, Button btn2) { // Create the animation set AnimationSet exchangeAnimation = new AnimationSet(true); TranslateAnimation translate = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getRight(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getRight() ); translate.setDuration(500); exchangeAnimation.addAnimation(translate); // int fromX = btn1.getLeft(); // int fromY = btn1.getRight(); // int toX = btn2.getLeft(); // int toY = btn2.getRight(); Log.d("ArrangeMe", "view1 pos:" + btn1.getLeft() + ", " +btn1.getRight() + "view2 pos:" + btn2.getLeft() + ", " + btn2.getRight()); AnimationSet exchangeAnimation1 = new AnimationSet(true); TranslateAnimation translate1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getRight(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getRight() ); translate1.setDuration(500); exchangeAnimation1.addAnimation(translate1); // EXECUTE btn1.startAnimation(exchangeAnimation); btn2.startAnimation(exchangeAnimation1); } I call the code as below exchangeButtons(button1, button2); my layout looks as below what happens when i execute the code is, instead of the buttons exchanging their positions, they just disappear for sometime[may be 500 ms] and reappear as they were originally. how to resolve this problem ? will it work properly in device ? regards

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  • How to update non-scalar entity properties in EF 4.0?

    - by Mike
    At first I was using this as an extension method to update my detached entities... Public Sub AttachUpdated(ByVal obj As ObjectContext, ByVal objectDetached As EntityObject) If objectDetached.EntityState = EntityState.Detached Then Dim original As Object = Nothing If obj.TryGetObjectByKey(objectDetached.EntityKey, original) Then obj.ApplyCurrentValues(objectDetached.EntityKey.EntitySetName, objectDetached) Else Throw New ObjectNotFoundException() End If End If End Sub Everything has been working great until I had to update non-scalar properties. Correct me if I am wrong but that is because "ApplyCurrentValues" only supports scalars. To get around this I was just saving the FK_ID field instead of the entity object relation. Now I am faced with a many to many relationship so its not that simple. I would like to do something like this... Dim Resource = RelatedResource.GetByID(item.Value) Condition.RelatedResources.Add(Resource) But when I call SaveChanges the added Resources aren't saved. I started to play around with self-tracking entities (not sure if they will help solve my prob) but it seems they cannot be serialized to ViewState and this is a requirement for me. I guess one solution would be to add the xRef table as an entity and add the fks myself but I would rather it just work how I expect it too. I am open to any suggestions on how to either save my many to many relationships or serialize self-tracking entities (if self-trackingwould even solve my problem). Thanks!

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  • how to intercept processing when Session.IsNewSession is true

    - by Cen
    I have a small 4-page application for my customers to work through. They fill out information. If they let it sit too long, and the Session timeout out, I want to pop up a javascript alert that their session has expired, and that they need to start over. At that point, then redirected to the beginning page of the application. I'm getting some strange behavior. I'm stepping through code, forcing my Sessioni.IsNewSession to be true. At this point, I write out a call to Javascript to a Literal Control placed at the bottom of the . The javascript is called, and the redirection occurs. However, what is happening is.. I am pressing a button which is more or less a "Next Page" button and triggering this code. The next page is being displayed, and then the Alert and redirection occurs. The result I was expecting was to stay on the same page I received the "Timeout", with the alert to pop-up over it, then redirection. I'm checking for Session.IsNewSession in a BaseClass for these pages, overriding the OnInit event. Any ideas why I am getting this behavior? Thanks!

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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  • Querying a 3rd party website's database from my website

    - by Mong134
    The Goal: To retrieve information from a 3rd party database based off of a user's query on my ASP.NET website The Details: I need to be able to search 3rd-party websites for information relating to pharmaceutical drugs. Basically, here's what I've been tasked with: a user starts entering the name of a drug they're using in their experiments, and while they're typing a 3rd party website (e.g., here or here) is queried and suggestions are made based based off of what they've typed. Once they've made a selection, certain properties (molecular weight, chemical structure, etc) are retrieved from the 3rd party database and stored in our database. PharmaGKB.org's search bar is pretty much what I need to implement, but I need to access a 3rd party db. The site that I'm working on is ASP.NET/C#. The Problem: I don't really know where to start with this. There's a downloadable Perl example at the bottom of the page here, but it didn't really help me all that much. I'm at a loss as to how to implement this, or even find information about how to do it. The AJAX toolkit was suggested, but I'm not sure if that will solve the issue. JavaScript is also being considered, but again, I'm not sure if that will be sufficient, either. Perl Example Connection As a mentioned, here is a snippet from the Perl example given on the Pharmgkb.org site: my $call = SOAP::Lite -> readable (1) -> uri('SearchService') -> proxy('http://www.pharmgkb.org/services/SearchService') -> search ($ARGV[0]); However, I'm not sure how to implement this is C#/ASP.NET/JavaScript. There's a question on Stack Overflow about embedding Perl in C#, but it require a C wrapper as well, and I don't think that three languages is necessary or wise to solve this issue.

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  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

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  • PHP: Best solution for links breaking in a mod_rewrite app

    - by psil
    I'm using mod rewrite to redirect all requests targeting non-existent files/directories to index.php?url=* This is surely the most common thing you do with mod_rewrite yet I have a problem: Naturally, if the page url is "mydomain.com/blog/view/1", the browser will look for images, stylesheets and relative links in the "virtual" directory "mydomain.com/blog/view/". Problem 1: Is using the base tag the best solution? I see that none of the PHP frameworks out there use the base tag, though. I'm currently having a regex replace all the relative links to point to the right path before output. Is that "okay"? Problem 2: It is possible that the server doesn't support mod_rewrite. However, all public files like images, stylesheets and the requests collector index.php are located in the directory /myapp/public. Normally mod_rewrite points all request to /public so it seems as if public was actually the root directory too all users. However if there is no mod_rewrite, I then have to point the users to /public from the root directory with a header() call. That means, however that all links are broken again because suddenly all images, etc. have to be called via /public/myimage.jpg Additional info: When there is no mod_rewrite the above request would look like this: mydomain.com/public/index.php/blog/view/1 What would be the best solutions for both problems?

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  • Iframe/Popup redirecting opener window

    - by Bara
    Hello all, I have a page located at x.com. On this page is a button that, when clicked, will launch a new window (using javascript's window.open() method) to a page that is located at z.com. The popup does a few things, then redirects the original window (the opener, x.com) to a different page based on some parameters defined in the popup. This works fine in Firefox/Chrome, but not in IE. In IE (8 specifically, but I believe 7 also has this problem) the original window (the opener) is not redirected. Instead, a new window comes up and THAT window is redirected. I've tried many different methods to try and get this to work, including changing the popup to an iframe loaded on the page and having a function on the opener that the popup/iframe call. The problem seems to be that IE refuses to allow cross-domain sites to talk to each other via javascript. Is there a way around this? How can I get the parent window to redirect to a page based on parameters in a popup or iframe? Bara

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  • C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

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  • NSTimer to smooth out playback position

    - by Michael
    I have an audio player and I want to show the current time of the the playback. I'm using a custom play class. The app downloads the mp3 to a file then plays from the file when 5% has been downloaded. I have a progress view update as the file plays and update a label on each call to the progress view. However, this is jerky... sometimes even going backward a digit or two. I was considering using an NSTimer to smooth things out. I would be fired every second to a method and pass the percentage played figure to the method then update the label. First, does this seem reasonable? Second, how do I pass the percentage (a float) over to the target of the timer. Right now I am putting the percent played into a dictionary but this seems less than optimal. This is what is called update the progress bar: -(void)updateAudioProgress:(Percentage)percent { audio = percent; if (!seekChanging) slider.value = percent; NSMutableDictionary *myDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [myDictionary setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:percent] forKey:@"myPercent"]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5 target:self selector:@selector(myTimerMethod:) userInfo:myDictionary repeats:YES]; [myDictionary release]; } This is called first after 5 seconds but then updates each time the method is called. As always, comments and pointers appreciated.

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  • Does adding to a method group count as using a variable?

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following code example taken from the code of a Form: protected void SomeMethod() { SomeOtherMethod(this.OnPaint); } private void SomeOtherMethod(Action<PaintEventArgs> onPaint) { onPaint += MyPaint; } protected void MyPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { // paint some stuff } The second method (SomeOtherMethod) has resharper complaining at me. It says of onPaint that "Value assigned is not used in any execution path". To my mind it was used because I added a method to the list of methods called when a paint was done. But usually when resharper tells me something like this it is because I am not understanding some part of C#. Like maybe when the param goes out of goes out of scope the item I added to the list gets removed (or something like that). I thought I would ask here to see if any one knows what resharper is trying to tell me. (Side Note: I usually just override OnPaint. But I am trying to get OnPaint to call a method in another class. I don't want to expose that method publicly so I thought I would pass in the OnPaint group and add to it.)

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • PHP File Upload, using the FILES superglobal array

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I just have a quick question. Let's say that I'm setting up an upload feature for a project. I'm using PHP5, and I was wondering if by using the $_FILES superglobal array, I could have access to the "tmp_name" array key , which is the temporary path and name of the file being uploaded to display a preview of the image, before moving it to the "uploads" folder in the server. What I had in mind is something like this: Use jQuery to detect when the "file" input filed changes (when the user selects an image file), then place an ajax call to upload the the file, which will move it to the temp folder even before I use "move_uploaded_file". If I can somehow access the "tmp_name" array key, I could probably put it into and "img" tag to display a preview. Later move the file to it's final location when the submit button is clicked. I'm not asking for any code examples or anything, since I'd be thrilled to accomplish this on my own, I just want to find out if there is access to that array key in any way. Thanks in advance.

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  • Rails: Getting rid of "X is invalid" validation errors

    - by DJTripleThreat
    I have a sign-up form that has nested associations/attributes whatever you want to call them. My Hierarchy is this: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic belongs_to :user_role, :polymorphic => true end class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end class Employee < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end I have some validation stuff in these classes as well. My problem is that if I try to create and Customer (or Employee etc) with a blank form I get all of the validation errors I should get plus some Generic ones like "User is invalid" and "Customer is invalid" If I iterate through the errors I get something like: user.login can't be blank User is invalid customer.whatever is blah blah blah...etc customer.some_other_error etc etc Since there is at least one invalid field in the nested User model, an extra "X is invalid" message is added to the list of errors. This gets confusing to my client and so I'm wondering if there is a quick way to do this instead of having to filer through the errors myself.

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  • C#/LINQ: How to define generically a keySelector for a templated class before calling OrderBy

    - by PierrOz
    Hi Folks, I have the following class defined in C# class myClass<T,U> { public T PropertyOne { get; set; } public U PropertyTwo { get; set; } } I need to write a function that reorder a list of myClass objects and takes two other parameters which define how I do this reorder: does my reordering depend on PropertyOne or PropertyTwo and is it ascending or descending. Let's say this two parameters are boolean. With my current knowledge in LINQ, I would write: public IList<myClass<T,U>> ReOrder(IList<myClass<T,U>> myList, bool usePropertyOne, bool ascending) { if (usePropertyOne) { if (ascending) { return myList.OrderBy(o => o.PropertyOne).ToList(); } else { return myList.OrderByDescending(o => o.PropertyOne).ToList(); } } else { if (ascending) { return myList.OrderBy(o => o.PropertyTwo).ToList(); } else { return myList.OrderByDescending(o => o.PropertyTwo).ToList(); } } } What could be a more efficient/elegant way to do that ? How can I declare the Func,TResult keySelector object to reuse when I call either OrderBy or OrderByDescending? I'm interesting in the answer since in my real life, I can have more than two properties.

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  • Reload jQuery when returning partial view from a controller?

    - by mattruma
    I am making the following call in my web page: <div id="comments"> <fieldset> <h4> Post your comment</h4> <% using (this.Ajax.BeginForm("CreateStoryComment", "Story", new { id = story.StoryId }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "comments", OnSuccess = "OnStoryCommentAdded" })) { %> <%= this.Html.TextArea("Body", string.Empty)%> <input type="submit" value="Add Comment" /> <% } %> </fieldset> </div> There's other code, but that's the gist of it. The controller returns a partial view that "refreshes" everying in the comments div. My problem is that the following jQuery is not being applied: $(".comment .delete").click(function () { if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this record?") == true) { $.post(this.href); $(this).parents(".comment").fadeOut("normal"); } return false; }); I'm assuming it's not being attached because the jQuery loads after the inital page load. If my assumption is correct, how do I get this jQuery to "refresh". Hopefully that makes some sense! :)

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  • Images in Applet not showing in web page

    - by Leanne C
    I am trying to display a JPEG image and a moving dot on a Java applet which I am using on a web based application. However, when I run the applet it works fine, but when I display the applet from the JSP page, I get the moving dot but not the JPEG image. Is there a specific folder where the JPEG needs to be? These are the 2 methods i use for drawing the picture and the moving dot on the screen. public class mapplet extends Applet implements Runnable { int x_pos = 10; int y_pos = 100; int radius = 20; Image img, img2; Graphics gr; URL base; MediaTracker m; @Override public void init() { mt = new MediaTracker(this); try { //getDocumentbase gets the applet path. base = getCodeBase(); img = getImage(base, "picture.jpg"); m.addImage(img, 1); m.waitForAll(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(movement.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } public void paint (Graphics g) { g.drawImage(img, 0, 0, this); // set color g.setColor (Color.red); // paint a filled colored circle g.fillOval (x_pos - radius, y_pos - radius, 2 * radius, 2 * radius); } The code one below is the call from the jsp page <applet archive="mapplet.jar" code="myapplets/mapplet.class" width=350 height=200> </applet> The jar file and the picture are in the same folder as the jsp page, and there is also a folder containing the contents of the class and image of the applet in the web section of the application. The applet loads fine however the picture doesn't display. I think it's not the code but the location of the picture that is causing a problem. Thanks

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  • JavaScript onchange, onblur, and focus weirdness in Firefox

    - by typoknig
    On my form I have a discount field that accepts a dollar amount to be taken off of the total bill (HTML generated in PHP): echo "<input id=\"discount\" class=\"text\" type=\"text\" name=\"discount\" onkeypress=\"return currency(this, event)\" onchange=\"currency_format(this)\" onfocus=\"on_focus(this)\" onblur=\"on_blur(this); calculate_bill()\"/><br/><br/>\n"; The JavaScript function calculate_bill calculates the bill and takes off the discount amount as long as the discount amount is less than the total bill: if(discount != ''){ if(discount - 0.01 > total_bill){ window.alert('Discount Cannot Be Greater Than Total Bill'); document.form.discount.focus(); } else{ total_bill -= discount; } } The problem is that even that when the discount is more than the total bill focus is not being returned to the discount field. I have tried calling the calculate_bill function with onchange but neither IE or Firefox will return focus to the discount field when I do it like that. When I call calculate_bill with onblur it works in IE, but still does not work in Firefox. I have attempted to use a confirmation box instead of an alert box as well, but that didn't work either (plus I don't want two buttons, I only an "OK" button). How can I ensure focus is returned to the discount field after a user has left that field by clicking on another field or tabbing IF the discount amount is larger than the total bill?

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  • displaying a saved buffer in OpenGL ES

    - by Adam
    Hi everyone, So basically I have a screenshot that I've saved that I want to later display on the screen. I've saved it with: glReadPixels(0, 0, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); And later I'm trying to write it to the screen with: GLuint RenderedTex; glGenTextures(1, &RenderedTex); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, RenderedTex); glTexImage2D (GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); I'm pretty new to OpenGL so I don't know if I'm doing things right... actually I know I'm not, because nothing shows up. Also not sure how to dispose of the texture when I'm done with it. Anyone know the correct way to do this? Edit: I think I might be having a problem loading the texture because it's not a power of 2, it's 320x480... also, I think this code is just loading the texture, but not drawing it, I'd need a call to glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4) in there somewhere...

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  • Design issue in Iphone Dev - Generic implementation for Game Bonuses

    - by Idan
    So, I thought consulting you guys about my design, cause I sense there might be a better way of doing it. I need to implement game bonuses mechanism in my app. Currently there are 9 bonuses available, each one is based of different param of the MainGame Object. What I had in mind was at app startup to initialize 9 objects of GameBonus while each one will have different SEL (shouldBonus) which will be responsible for checking if the bonus is valid. So, every end of game I will just run over the bonuses array and call the isBonusValid() function with the MainGame object(which is different after every game). How's that sound ? The only issue I have currently, is that I need to make sure that if some bonuses are accepted some other won't (inner stuff)... any advice how to do that and still maintain generic implementation ? @interface GameBonus : NSObject { int bonusId; NSString* name; NSString* description; UIImage* img; SEL shouldBonus; } @implementation GameBonus -(BOOL) isBonusValid(MainGame*)mainGame { [self shouldBonus:mainGame]; } @end

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  • Moving inserted container element if possible

    - by doublep
    I'm trying to achieve the following optimization in my container library: when inserting an lvalue-referenced element, copy it to internal storage; but when inserting rvalue-referenced element, move it if supported. The optimization is supposed to be useful e.g. if contained element type is something like std::vector, where moving if possible would give substantial speedup. However, so far I was unable to devise any working scheme for this. My container is quite complicated, so I can't just duplicate insert() code several times: it is large. I want to keep all "real" code in some inner helper, say do_insert() (may be templated) and various insert()-like functions would just call that with different arguments. My best bet code for this (a prototype, of course, without doing anything real): #include <iostream> #include <utility> struct element { element () { }; element (element&&) { std::cerr << "moving\n"; } }; struct container { void insert (const element& value) { do_insert (value); } void insert (element&& value) { do_insert (std::move (value)); } private: template <typename Arg> void do_insert (Arg arg) { element x (arg); } }; int main () { { // Shouldn't move. container c; element x; c.insert (x); } { // Should move. container c; c.insert (element ()); } } However, this doesn't work at least with GCC 4.4 and 4.5: it never prints "moving" on stderr. Or is what I want impossible to achieve and that's why emplace()-like functions exist in the first place?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • The rules to connect a web service trough the SSL and Certificates

    - by blgnklc
    There is a web service running on tomcat on a server. It is built on Java Servlet. It is listening others to call itself on a SSL enabled http port. so its web service adreess looks like: https://172.29.12.12/axis/services/XYZClient?wsdl On the other hand I want to connect the web service above from a windows application which is built on .NET frame work. Finally, when I want to connect the web service from my computer; I get some specific erros; Firstly I get; Proxy authentication error; then I added some new line to my code; Dim cr As System.Net.NetworkCredential = New System.Net.NetworkCredential("xname", "xsurname", "xdomainname") Dim myProxy As New WebProxy("http://mar.xxxyyy.com", True) myProxy.Credentials = cr Secondly, after this modifications It says that bad request. I did not get over this error. Moreover I did try to connect the web server on the same computer. I copied my executable program to the computer where the web service runs. The error was like; The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for SSL/TLS secure channel PS: When I try to connect to web service by using Internet Explorer; I see firstly some warnings about accepting an unknown certificate and I click take me to web service an I get there clearly. I want to know what are the basic elements to connect a web service, could you please tell me the requirements that I have to use on my windows project. regards bk

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  • How to set an empty value using XPath?

    - by Ricardo
    Using this xml example: <templateitem itemid="5"> <templateitemdata>%ARN%</templateitemdata> </templateitem> <templateitem itemid="6"> <templateitemdata></templateitemdata> </templateitem> I am using XPath to get and set Node values. The code I am using to get the nodes is: private static Node ***getNode***(Document doc, String XPathQuery) throws XPathExpressionException { XPath xpath = XPathFactory.newInstance().newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile(XPathQuery); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; if(nodes != null && nodes.getLength() >0) return nodes.item(0); throw new XPathExpressionException("No node list found for " + XPathQuery); } To get %ARN% value: "//templateitem[@itemid=5]/templateitemdata/text()" and with the getNode method I can get the node, and then call the getNodeValue(). Besides getting that value, I would like to set templateitemdata value for the "templateitem[@itemid=6]" since its empty. But the code I use can't get the node since its empty. The result is null. Do you know a way get the node so I can set the value?

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