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• RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

  - by AaronS

  I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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• How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

  - by user298145

  Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

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• Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

  - by sonofpirate

  I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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• Apply CSS style to anchor problem

  - by Jake

  Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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• Group vs role (Any real difference?)

  - by Ondrej

  Can anyone tell me, what's the real difference between group and role? Ive been trying to figure this out for some time now and the more information I read, the more I get the sence, that this is brought up just to confuse people and there is no proper difference in this. Both can do the other one's job. Ive always used a group to manage users and their access rights. Recently, I've come accross an administration software, where is a bunch of users. Each user can have assigned a module (whole system is split into a few parts called modules ie. Administration module, Survey module, Orders module, Customer module). On top of it, each module have a list of functionalities, that can be allowed or denied for each user. So let's say, a user John Smith can access module Orders and can edit any order, but havent given a right to delete any of them. If there was more users with the same competency, I would use a group to manage that. I would aggregate such users into the same group and assign access rights to modules and their functions to the group. All users in the same group would have the same access rights. Why call it a group and not role? I don't know, I just feel it that way. It seems to me, that simply it just doesnt really matter :] But I still would like to know the real difference. What about you guys? Any suggestions why this should be rather called role than group or the other way round? Thanks to everyone.

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• Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

  - by Igor Ganapolsky

  Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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• Access 2007 DAO VBA Error 3381 causes objects in calling methods to "break".

  - by MT

  ---AFTER FURTHER INVESTIGATION--- "tblABC" in the below example must be a linked table (to another Access database). If "tblABC" is in the same database as the code then the problem does not occur. Hi, We have recently upgraded to Office 2007. We have a method in which we have an open recordset (DAO). We then call another sub (UpdatingSub below) that executes SQL. This method has its own error handler. If error 3381 is encountered then the recordset in the calling method becomes "unset" and we get error 3420 'Object invalid or no longer set'. Other errors in UpdatingSub do not cause the same problem. This code works fine in Access 2003. Private Sub Whatonearth() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount UpdatingSub "ALTER TABLE tblTest DROP Column ColumnNotThere" 'Error 3240 occurs on the below line even though err 3381 is trapped in the calling procedure 'This appears to be because error 3381 is encountered when calling UpdatingSub above Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub WhatonearthThatWorks() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount 'Change the update to generate a different error UpdatingSub "NONSENSE SQL STATEMENT" 'Error is trapped in UpdatingSub. Next line works fine. Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub UpdatingSub(strSQL As String) On Error GoTo ErrHandler: CurrentDb.Execute strSQL ErrHandler: 'LogError' End Sub Any thoughts? We are running Office Access 2007 (12.0.6211.1000) SP1 MSO (12.0.6425.1000). Perhaps see if SP2 can be distributed? Sorry about formatting - not sure how to fix that.

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• Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

  - by Joe White

  Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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• MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

  - by giveme5minutes

  I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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• Pointer initialization

  - by SoulBeaver

  Sorry if this question has been asked before. On my search through SO I didn't find one that asked what I wanted to know. Basically, when I have this: typedef struct node { int data; node *node; } *head; and do node *newItem = new node; I am under the impression that I am declaring and reserving space, but not defining, a pointer to struct node, is that correct? So when I do newItem->data = 100 and newItem->next = 0 I get confused. newItem = 0would declare what exactly? Both data and next? The object as a whole? I'm especially confused when I use typedef. Which part is the macro? I assume node because that's how I call it, but why do I need it? Finally, what happens when I do: node *temp; temp = new node; temp = head->next; head->next = newItem; newItem->next = temp; I mean, head-next is a pointer pointing to object newItem, so I assume not to newItem.data or next themselves. So how can I use an uninitialized pointer that I described above safely like here? is head now not pointing to an uninitialized pointer?

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• (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

  - by Ben Packard

  Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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• Life Scope of Temporary Variable

  - by Yan Cheng CHEOK

  #include <cstdio> #include <string> void fun(const char* c) { printf("--> %s\n", c); } std::string get() { std::string str = "Hello World"; return str; } int main() { const char *cc = get().c_str(); // cc is not valid at this point. As it is pointing to // temporary string internal buffer, and the temporary string // has already been destroyed at this point. fun(cc); // But I am surprise this call will yield valid result. // It seems that the returned temporary string is valid within // scope (...) // What my understanding is, scope means {...} // Is this valid behavior guarantee by C++ standard? Or it depends // on your compiler vendor implementations? fun(get().c_str()); getchar(); } The output is : --> --> Hello World Hello, may I know the correct behavior is guarantee by C++ standard, or it depends on your compiler vendor implementations? I have tested this under VC2008 and VC6. Works fine for both.

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• Can't decrypt after encrypting with blowfish Java

  - by user2030599

  Hello i'm new to Java and i have the following problem: i'm trying to encrypt the password of a user using the blowfish algorithm, but when i try to decrypt it back to check the authentication it fails to decrypt it for some reason. public static String encryptBlowFish(String to_encrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_encrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while encrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } public static String decryptBlowFish(String to_decrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_decrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while decrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } When i call the decrypt function it gives me the following error: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Parameters missing Any ideas? Thank you

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• Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

  - by SelectDistinct

  I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

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• Javascript: prototypeal inheritance and the prototype property

  - by JanD

  Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function?

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• Delete ONE SPECIFIC table of a database - leave the rest intact

  - by Jayomat

  Hi, I have a database where I store two different kinds of data. One table is for favorite routes, the other stores the retrieved routes from a server. I can retrieve the routes etc just fine. But after retrieving the first Route, pressing back or HOME, and then retrieving another route, the routes table is filled with all the old routes plus the new ones. So my question: how do I delete ONLY the routes table and not the whole database because I don't want to delete the added favorites....?! I found the following function in the android docs: public int delete (String table, String whereClause, String[] whereArgs) and I tried to implement it, but I must pass a SQLiteDataBase as an argument. But how? I implemented: public void deleteTableRoutes(SQLiteDataBase db){ db.delete("routes", null, null); } But I want to call this function from a different class where I have no reference to the database.. so what do I have to pass as an argument? Or how do I get a reference to my database? I build my database upon the code example of the NotePadExample from the dev docs. How to solve this problem? thanks

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• Canceling a WSK I/O operation when driver is unloading

  - by eaducac

  I've been learning how to write drivers with the Windows DDK recently. After creating a few test drivers experimenting with system threads and synchronization, I decided to step it up a notch and write a driver that actually does something, albeit something useless. Currently, my driver connects to my other computer using Winsock Kernel and just loops and echoes back whatever I send to it until it gets the command "exit", which causes it to break out of the loop. In my loop, after I call WskReceive() to get some data from the other computer, I use KeWaitForMultipleObjects() to wait for either of two SynchronizationEvents. BlockEvent gets set by my IRP's CompletionRoutine() to let my thread know that it's received some data from the socket. EndEvent gets set by my DriverUnload() routine to tell the thread that it's being unloaded and it needs to terminate. When I send the "exit" command, the thread terminates with no problems, and I can safely unload the driver afterward. If I try to stop the driver while it's still waiting on data from the other computer, however, it blue screens with the error DRIVER_UNLOADED_WITHOUT_CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS. After I get the EndEvent but before I exit the loop, I've tried canceling the IRP with IoCancelIrp() and completing it with IoCompleteRequest(), but both of those give me DRIVER_IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL errors. I then tried calling WskDisconnect(), hoping that would cause the receive operation to complete, but that took me back to the CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS error. How do I cancel my pending I/O operation from my WSK socket at the IRQL I'm running at when the driver is unloaded?

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• Classify data (cell array) based on years in MATLAB

  - by user2991243

  Suppose that we have this cell array of data : a={43 432 2006; 254 12 2008; 65 35 2000; 64 34 2000; 23 23 2006; 64 2 2010; 32 5 2006; 22 2 2010} Last column of this cell array is years. I want classify data(rows) based on years like this : a_2006 = {43 432 2006; 32 5 2006; 32 5 2006} a_2008 = {254 12 2008}; a_2000 = {65 35 2000; 64 34 2000} a_2010 = {64 2 2010; 22 2 2010} I have different years in column three in every cell array (this cell array is a sample) so I want an automatic method to determine the years and classify them to a_yearA , a_yearB etc. or other naming that I can distinguish years and call data years easily. How can I do this? Thanks.da

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• Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

  - by Charsee

  We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

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• Dynamically class creating by using Java Reflection, java.lang.ClassNotFoundException

  - by rubby

  Hi all; i want to use reflection in java, i want to do that third class will read the name of the class as String from console. Upon reading the name of the class, it will automatically and dynamically (!) generate that class and call its writeout method. If that class is not read from input, it will not be initialized. I wrote that codes but i am always taking to "java.lang.Class.Not.Found.Exception", and i don't know how i can fix it. Can anyone help me? class class3 { public Object dynamicsinif(String className, String fieldName, String value) throws Exception { Class cls = Class.forName(className,true,null); Object obj = cls.newInstance(); Field fld = cls.getField(fieldName); fld.set(obj, value); return obj; } public void writeout3() { System.out.println("class3"); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("enter the class name : "); BufferedReader reader= new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in)); String line=reader.readLine(); String x="Text1"; try{ class3 trycls=new class3(); Object gelen=trycls.dynamicsinif(line, x, "rubby"); Class yeni=(Class)gelen; System.out.println(yeni); }catch(ClassNotFoundException ex){ System.out.print(ex.toString()); } } }

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• Anchor tags are blank

  - by ryanday

  I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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• qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

  - by Tim Sylvester

  I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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• Bash script to insert code from one file at a specific location in another file?

  - by Kurtosis

  I have a fileA with a snippet of code, and I need a script to insert that snippet into fileB on the line after a specific pattern. I'm trying to make the accepted answer in this thread work, but it's not, and is not giving an error so not sure why not: sed -e '/pattern/r text2insert' filewithpattern Any suggestions? pattern (insert snippet on line after): def boot { also tried escaped pattern but no luck: def\ boot\ { def\ boot\ \{ fileA snippet: LiftRules.htmlProperties.default.set((r: Req) => new Html5Properties(r.userAgent)) fileB (Boot.scala): package bootstrap.liftweb import net.liftweb._ import util._ import Helpers._ import common._ import http._ import sitemap._ import Loc._ /** * A class that's instantiated early and run. It allows the application * to modify lift's environment */ class Boot { def boot { // where to search snippet LiftRules.addToPackages("code") // Build SiteMap val entries = List( Menu.i("Home") / "index", // the simple way to declare a menu // more complex because this menu allows anything in the // /static path to be visible Menu(Loc("Static", Link(List("static"), true, "/static/index"), "Static Content"))) // set the sitemap. Note if you don't want access control for // each page, just comment this line out. LiftRules.setSiteMap(SiteMap(entries:_*)) // Use jQuery 1.4 LiftRules.jsArtifacts = net.liftweb.http.js.jquery.JQuery14Artifacts //Show the spinny image when an Ajax call starts LiftRules.ajaxStart = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.show("ajax-loader").cmd) // Make the spinny image go away when it ends LiftRules.ajaxEnd = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.hide("ajax-loader").cmd) // Force the request to be UTF-8 LiftRules.early.append(_.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8")) } }

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• Blackberry invalidate field not causing a repaint

  - by Michaela

  I'm writing a Blackberry app. I have a custom list field where I can select an item in the list which pushes the edit screen onto the stack. I edit the item and save, and when I pop that screen off so I am back on my list screen, I want to view the update I just made reflected in the list. I have done this on other screens which just had LabelFields and it worked fine. However, with the list screen, calling invalidate() seems to do nothing. I know the value has saved correctly through print lines, and I see the paint() method in the listfield is getting called. But the only way I can get the list field to update is to delete it from the screen and re-add it. That seems wrong. What am I doing wrong? public class ListTasksScreen extends MainScreen{ private TaskList tasks; private CustomListField taskListField; public ListTasksScreen (TaskList tasks){ super(); this.tasks = tasks; Vector incompleteTasks = tasks.getIncompleteTasks(); taskListField = new CustomListField(incompleteTasks, tasks); add(taskListField); } public void updateTaskList(TaskList t) { Vector incompleteTasks = t.getIncompleteTasks(); taskListField= new TaskListField(incompletetTasks, t); //I just want to call taskListField.invalidate() here. //the only thing that seems to work is deleting taskListField //and re-adding this.delete(taskListField); add(taskListField); } }

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• Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

  - by Samik R.

  I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

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