Search Results

Search found 67158 results on 2687 pages for 'work life'.

Page 784/2687 | < Previous Page | 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791  | Next Page >

  • Hide struct definition in static library.

    - by BobMcLaury
    Hi, I need to provide a C static library to the client and need to be able to make a struct definition unavailable. On top of that I need to be able to execute code before the main at library initialization using a global variable. Here's my code: private.h #ifndef PRIVATE_H #define PRIVATE_H typedef struct TEST test; #endif private.c (this should end up in a static library) #include "private.h" #include <stdio.h> struct TEST { TEST() { printf("Execute before main and have to be unavailable to the user.\n"); } int a; // Can be modified by the user int b; // Can be modified by the user int c; // Can be modified by the user } TEST; main.c test t; int main( void ) { t.a = 0; t.b = 0; t.c = 0; return 0; } Obviously this code doesn't work... but show what I need to do... Anybody knows how to make this work? I google quite a bit but can't find an answer, any help would be greatly appreciated. TIA!

    Read the article

  • Counting in R data.table

    - by Simon Z.
    I have the following data.table set.seed(1) DT <- data.table(VAL = sample(c(1, 2, 3), 10, replace = TRUE)) VAL 1: 1 2: 2 3: 2 4: 3 5: 1 6: 3 7: 3 8: 2 9: 2 10: 1 Now I want to to perform two tasks: Count the occurrences of numbers in VAL. Count within all rows with the same value VAL (first, second, third occurrence) At the end I want the result VAL COUNT IDX 1: 1 3 1 2: 2 4 1 3: 2 4 2 4: 3 3 1 5: 1 3 2 6: 3 3 2 7: 3 3 3 8: 2 4 3 9: 2 4 4 10: 1 3 3 where COUNT defines task 1. and IDX task 2. I tried to work with which and length using .I: dt[, list(COUNT = length(VAL == VAL[.I]), IDX = which(which(VAL == VAL[.I]) == .I))] but this does not work as .I refers to a vector with the index, so I guess one must use .I[]. Though inside .I[] I again face the problem, that I do not have the row index and I do know (from reading data.table FAQ and following the posts here) that looping through rows should be avoided if possible. So, what's the data.table way?

    Read the article

  • How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

    - by Matt
    I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

    - by user1352530
    HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Desktop-like UI implementations for Java web applications?

    - by localshred
    At work we're discussing upgrading our view layer for our web application. We're currently running an old and "modified" version of FreeMarker Classic, which is a pain to work with. One of our developers suggested using a Component UI style architecture similar to desktop style environments. Essentially, this would mean that you would build custom HTML components as Java Classes that the controller would render into the Document view. This would completely take away the need to write HTML into a view layer. The Components would generate the view layer for you. For instance, the following rendered HTML: <h1>I am a title</h1> <p>I am a paragraph.</p> Would be generated by doing something like: String titleString = "I am a title"; html.elements.Heading heading = new html.elements.Heading(Heading.H1, titleString); String paraString = "I am a paragraph."; html.elements.Paragraph paragraph = new html.elements.Paragraph(paraString); PrintWriter somePrintWriter = new PrintWriter(); Document document = new Document(); document.addElement(heading); document.addElement(paragraph); document.compose(somePrintWriter); The above code is just an example, don't critique the names or style, I just wrote it for a quick demonstration of what we may be trying to accomplish. I'm trying to determine if this has been done before in Java, and if so if there are any links I can be pointed to. I've been researching it as much as I can, but haven't found any implementations that completely remove the template layer (such as JSP or JSF). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to have an iCalendar (RFC 2445) repeat YEARLY with duration

    - by Todd Brooks
    I have been unsuccessful in formulating a RRULE that would allow an event as shown below: Repeats YEARLY, from first Sunday of April to last day of May, occuring on Monday, Wednesday and Friday, until forever. FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=4;BYDAY=SU (gives me the first Sunday of April repeating yearly) and FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 (gives me the last day of May repeating yearly) But I can't figure out how to have the event repeat yearly between those dates for Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Suggestions? Update: Comments don't have enough space to respond to Chris' answer, so I am editing the question with further information. Unfortunately, no. I don't know if it is the DDay.iCal library I'm using, or what, but that doesn't work either. I've found that the date start can't be an ordinal date (first Sunday, etc.)..it has to be a specific date, which makes it difficult for my requirements. Even using multiple RRULE's it doesn't seem to work: BEGIN:VCALENDAR VERSION:2.0 PRODID:-//DDay.iCal//NONSGML ddaysoftware.com//EN BEGIN:VEVENT CREATED:20090717T033307Z DTSTAMP:20090717T033307Z DTSTART:20090101T000000 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=MO,WE,FR;BYMONTH=4,5 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=1SU;BYMONTH=4 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 SEQUENCE:0 UID:352ed9d4-04d0-4f06-a094-fab7165e5c74 END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR That looks right on the face (I'm even starting the event on 1/1/2009), but when I start testing whether certain days are valid, I get incorrect results. For example, 4/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 4/6/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 4/7/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 4/8/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/2/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 5/29/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/31/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 6/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = False I'm using Douglas Day's DDay.iCal software, but I don't think it is a bug in that library. I think this might be a limitation in iCalendar (RFC 2445). Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Chrome extension:Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null

    - by T_t
    Hi,i am beginner with chrome extension.There is simple problem. There is the code in my extension,but it do not work.I don't know how to figure it out. In my extension, i used a xml file to stroe some data.There is the code in my background.html,but it do not work,i don't know how to figure it out... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function loadXmlFile(){ var xmlDom = null; var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); if( xmlhttp ){ xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if( xmlhttp.readyState == 4 ){ if( xmlhttp.status == 200 ){ xmlDom = xmlhttp.responseXML; } } } xmlhttp.open( "GET",chrome.extension.getURL("/xml/123.xml"),true); xmlhttp.send( null ); } return xmlDom; } var xmlDom = loadXmlFile(); var s = xmlDom.getElementsByTagName( "to" ); alert( s[0].nodeType ); </script> </body> </html> I used developer tools to debug,but it says " Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null"... who can help me?

    Read the article

  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

    Read the article

  • C++ - passing references to boost::shared_ptr

    - by abigagli
    If I have a function that needs to work with a shared_ptr, wouldn't it be more efficient to pass it a reference to it (so to avoid copying the shared_ptr object)? What are the possible bad side effects? I envision two possible cases: 1) inside the function a copy is made of the argument, like in ClassA::take_copy_of_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) { ... m_sp_member=sp; //This will copy the object, incrementing refcount ... } 2) inside the function the argument is only used, like in Class::only_work_with_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) //Again, no copy here { ... sp->do_something(); ... } I can't see in both cases a good reason to pass the boost::shared_ptr by value instead of by reference. Passing by value would only "temporarily" increment the reference count due to the copying, and then decrement it when exiting the function scope. Am I overlooking something? Andrea. EDIT: Just to clarify, after reading several answers : I perfectly agree on the premature-optimization concerns, and I alwasy try to first-profile-then-work-on-the-hotspots. My question was more from a purely technical code-point-of-view, if you know what I mean.

    Read the article

  • Jquery .wrap and first-child

    - by Johann
    Hi, I'm in a situation in which I need to use .wrap and :first-child. This is what I am doing: <script>$("a").wrap("<div class='category-wrapper'></div>");</script> <script>$("div.category-wrapper:first-child").addClass("first");</script> This should render a div.category-wrapper outside a link and then add a "first" class to every first div.category-wrapper. The output is: <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test</a></div> Which is good! However, I am not able to get the "first-child" to work (it doesn't adds the "first" class). If I use it somewhere else it works so I am sure it's something related to the dynamic rendering of the previous element. Any help is appreciated! Thanks! Sample output would be: <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #1</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #2</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #3</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #4</a></div> Desired output: <div class="category-wrapper first"><a href="#">Test #1</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #2</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #3</a></div> <div class="category-wrapper"><a href="#">Test #4</a></div> However, I am not able to make it work.

    Read the article

  • curl_multi_exec stops if one url is 404, how can I change that?

    - by Rob
    Currently, my cURL multi exec stops if one url it connects to doesn't work, so a few questions: 1: Why does it stop? That doesn't make sense to me. 2: How can I make it continue? EDIT: Here is my code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") ; $mh = curl_multi_init(); $handles = array(); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ //load the urls and send GET data $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 5); curl_multi_add_handle($mh, $ch); $handles[] = $ch; } // Create a status variable so we know when exec is done. $running = null; //execute the handles do { // Call exec. This call is non-blocking, meaning it works in the background. curl_multi_exec($mh,$running); // Sleep while it's executing. You could do other work here, if you have any. sleep(2); // Keep going until it's done. } while ($running > 0); // For loop to remove (close) the regular handles. foreach($handles as $ch) { // Remove the current array handle. curl_multi_remove_handle($mh, $ch); } // Close the multi handle curl_multi_close($mh);

    Read the article

  • HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

    - by Dan Halliday
    I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

    Read the article

  • C++ Check Substring of a String

    - by user69514
    I'm trying to check whether or not the second argument in my program is a substring of the first argument. The problem is that it only work if the substring starts with the same letter of the string. .i.e Michigan - Mich (this works) Michigan - Mi (this works) Michigan - igan (this doesn't work) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <string> using namespace std; bool my_strstr( string str, string sub ) { bool flag = true; int startPosition = -1; char subStart = str.at(0); char strStart; //find starting position for(int i=0; i<str.length(); i++){ if(str.at(i) == subStart){ startPosition = i; break; } } for(int i=0; i<sub.size(); i++){ if(sub.at(i) != str.at(startPosition)){ flag = false; break; } startPosition++; } return flag; } int main(int argc, char **argv){ if (argc != 3) { printf ("Usage: check <string one> <string two>\n"); } string str1 = argv[1]; string str2 = argv[2]; bool result = my_strstr(str1, str2); if(result == 1){ printf("%s is a substring of %s\n", argv[2], argv[1]); } else{ printf("%s is not a substring of %s\n", argv[2], argv[1]); } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Producer consumer with qualifications

    - by tgguy
    I am new to clojure and am trying to understand how to properly use its concurrency features, so any critique/suggestions is appreciated. So I am trying to write a small test program in clojure that works as follows: there 5 producers and 2 consumers a producer waits for a random time and then pushes a number onto a shared queue. a consumer should pull a number off the queue as soon as the queue is nonempty and then sleep for a short time to simulate doing work the consumers should block when the queue is empty producers should block when the queue has more than 4 items in it to prevent it from growing huge Here is my plan for each step above: the producers and consumers will be agents that don't really care for their state (just nil values or something); i just use the agents to send-off a "consumer" or "producer" function to do at some time. Then the shared queue will be (def queue (ref [])). Perhaps this should be an atom though? in the "producer" agent function, simply (Thread/sleep (rand-int 1000)) and then (dosync (alter queue conj (rand-int 100))) to push onto the queue. I am thinking to make the consumer agents watch the queue for changes with add-watcher. Not sure about this though..it will wake up the consumers on any change, even if the change came from a consumer pulling something off (possibly making it empty) . Perhaps checking for this in the watcher function is sufficient. Another problem I see is that if all consumers are busy, then what happens when a producer adds something new to the queue? Does the watched event get queued up on some consumer agent or does it disappear? see above I really don't know how to do this. I heard that clojure's seque may be useful, but I couldn't find enough doc on how to use it and my initial testing didn't seem to work (sorry don't have the code on me anymore)

    Read the article

  • Django choking oddly on some static media

    - by Edan Maor
    My situation: I'm serving static media via Django on my dev machine. On some files that I try and load, I get back this error: Traceback: File "c:\Program Files\Python26\Lib\site-packages\django\core\handlers\base.py" in get_response 92. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\views.py" in userpage 71. so_user = site.user(userid) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\stackexchange.py" in user 476. u, = self.users((nid,), **kw) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\stackexchange.py" in users 481. return self._get(User, ids, 'users', kw) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\stackexchange.py" in _get 471. return self.build(root, typ, coll, kw) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\stackexchange.py" in build 448. json = self._request(url, kw) File "E:\Stack2Blog\src.hg\stack2blog\..\stack2blog\stack2blogapp\stackexchange.py" in _request 422. dump = json.load(data) File "c:\Program Files\Python26\lib\json\__init__.py" in load 264. return loads(fp.read(), Exception Type: AttributeError at /userpage/362498 Exception Value: 'str' object has no attribute 'read' I've traced it to specific files which don't work (by going to their specific urls). Here's the odd part: changing the filename of the files makes them suddenly work. For example, I had a file called 'post.jpg', which gave this error. I renamed it to 'pos.jpg' and it worked. Back to 'post.jpg' and it gives the same error.

    Read the article

  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Filter large amounts of data in a table w/ jQuery

    - by Bry4n
    I work for a transit agency and I have large amounts of data (mostly times), and I need a way to filter the data using two textboxes (To and From). I found jQuery quick search, but it seems to only work with one textbox. If anyone has any ideas via jQuery or some other client side library, that would be fantastic. Ideal example: To: [Textbox] From:[Textbox] <table> <tr> <td>69th street</td><td>5:00pm</td><td>5:06pm</td><td>5:10pm</td><td>5:20pm</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Millbourne</td><td>5:09pm</td><td>5:15pm</td><td>5:20pm</td><td>5:25pm</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Spring Garden</td><td>6:00pm</td><td>6:15pm</td><td>6:20pm</td><td>6:25pm</td> </tr> </table> So If I start typing in one of the stations in the To: textbox it either displays dynamically like the quick search or i have to press a button (either or) and then in the from: textbox. Lastly it shows me to: station and all its times on the left and the from: station and all its times on the right.

    Read the article

  • Getting Preferred, Varied Products -- Tough Pseudocode Question

    - by Volomike
    I have a Dallas client who has given me a tough process to work out. I'm seeking your advice. I use PHP, but the language doesn't matter. We can work this out in pseudocode. In a nutshell, this involves showing products on a page based on matching keyword phrases, and using a preferred product provider, but varying this up so that I try to show products from each provider as much as possible when I can. He has 3 product companies: Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. I already have worked out with the API to get products back in an array via a function. He wants to give the user the preference of which one to use primarily -- so a priority number on each. He wants to display anywhere from 1 to 6 products on a page from them. Let's go with 6 for now in this example to start with. Let's assume Amazon first, then eBay, then Overstock as far as priority. He wants me to attempt to take a keyword phrase and find relevant products (all the keywords found in product title) from Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. If we find 1 product from each provider, he wants me to only display one product from each. But if we run out of a particular provider with a matching product, I start over again and grab another product from another provider until we reach 6 products. If there just aren't 6 relevant products, then I do the best I can -- even if I only display one product. If no relevant products, then I don't display anything.

    Read the article

  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • GUI Agent accepts statuses from Daemon and shows it using progress indicator

    - by Pavel
    Hi to all! My application is a GUI agent, which communicate with daemon through the unix domain socket, wrapped in CFSocket.... So there are main loop and added CFRunLoop source. Daemon sends statuses and agent shows it with a progress indicator. When there are any data on socket, callback function begin to work and at this time I have to immediately show the new window with progress indicator and increase counter. //this function initiate the runloop for listening socket - (int) AcceptDaemonConnection:(ConnectionRef)conn { int err = 0; conn->fSockCF = CFSocketCreateWithNative(NULL, (CFSocketNativeHandle) conn->fSockFD, kCFSocketAcceptCallBack, ConnectionGotData, NULL); if (conn->fSockCF == NULL) err = EINVAL; if (err == 0) { conn->fRunLoopSource = CFSocketCreateRunLoopSource(NULL, conn->fSockCF, 0); if (conn->fRunLoopSource == NULL) err = EINVAL; else CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), conn->fRunLoopSource, kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); CFRelease(conn->fRunLoopSource); } return err; } // callback function void ConnectionGotData(CFSocketRef s, CFSocketCallBackType type, CFDataRef address, const void * data, void * info) { #pragma unused(s) #pragma unused(address) #pragma unused(info) assert(type == kCFSocketAcceptCallBack); assert( (int *) data != NULL ); assert( (*(int *) data) != -1 ); TStatusUpdate status; int nativeSocket = *(int *) data; status = [agg AcceptPacket:nativeSocket]; // [stWindow InitNewWindow] inside [agg SendUpdateStatus:status.percent]; } AcceptPacket function receives packet from the socket and trying to show new window with progress indicator. Corresponding function is called, but nothing happens... I think, that I have to make work the main application loop with interrupting CFSocket loop... Or send a notification? No idea....

    Read the article

  • lightweight/portable VCS for server-hopping DBA?

    - by Aaron
    I'm looking for a VCS that'll help me keep all of my work scripts in-sync. Requirements: Portable (as in flash drive, not code-level) Run on Windows XP and Server 2003+ No installation dependencies (Cygwin, perl, Python) I use Mercurial on my work machine for version control of the various T-SQL, ksh, perl, and CMD/BAT scripts that I maintain as a MS SQL Server DBA and Unix sysadmin. So far, hg has worked for my AIX boxes- I mount my home directory as I login, and deal with the repo as if it were local. I haven't been able to find a similar solution for the Windows machines I use. Most of them I do not have Local Admin rights; even if I did, I'd rather not install (and maintain) Python + Mercurial on all of them. I can't get to my home directory on them remotely, which leaves a client running on each machine as the only option. Bonus points for an answer that would let me use a single repo for both the Windows and Unix machines. :) I'm running WinXP, with heavy use of Cygwin and a CrunchBang VM.

    Read the article

  • are custom classes imported API included in .class files?

    - by kyrogue
    i have a question, i have a custom class which imports java.sql.; and i am creating a jsp page, in the jsp page, i did a page import of the custom class , however when i tried to call my custom class database methods it cant work. only when i did a page import of java.sql. did it work. so are custom classes imported API included in .class files? An error occurred at line: 6 in the jsp file: /resetpw.jsp Statement cannot be resolved to a type 3: 4: <% 5: db.connect(); 6: Statement stmt = db.getConnection().createStatement(); 7: ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM created_accounts"); 8: 9: An error occurred at line: 7 in the jsp file: /resetpw.jsp ResultSet cannot be resolved to a type 4: <% 5: db.connect(); 6: Statement stmt = db.getConnection().createStatement(); 7: ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM created_accounts"); 8: 9: 10: Stacktrace: org.apache.jasper.compiler.DefaultErrorHandler.javacError(DefaultErrorHandler.java:93) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ErrorDispatcher.javacError(ErrorDispatcher.java:330) org.apache.jasper.compiler.JDTCompiler.generateClass(JDTCompiler.java:451) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:319) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:298) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:286) org.apache.jasper.JspCompilationContext.compile(JspCompilationContext.java:565) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:309) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:308) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:259) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:729) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.5.31 logs. edited. added what error will come up if i did not do a page import of java.sql.*;

    Read the article

  • Git from localhost to remotehost with a team of three

    - by Mark McDonnell
    Hi, I'm completely new to Git. I've only just worked out how to use Github in a basic way (e.g. push my local file changes to Github - so I've not done 'pulling' down of content from Github and 'merging' it into my localhost version or anything like that). I had a look over at this existing question - Git: localhost remote development remote production - but I think it may have been a bit advanced for me at this stage as I didn't quite understand the terminology that most of the people were using. What I would like to achieve is to have a local server set-up that my team of developers can all 'push' to/'pull' from etc. And then have that local server upload any updated files automatically to our web server so we could see the updates live in the browser. I'm happy to get a server set-up in the office running Mac OSX Server and then installing Git on it and then getting the devs to write a shell script to push to the remote server but only if it was fairly easy for the devs local git to push to this new local server. I'm not a network engineer so I don't know what would need to be set-up for that to work, I know obviously we could set-up the server to be accessible via a local ip address like 192.168.0.xxx but not sure how that works with pushing to a git repository on that server? Would that literally be something like doing this on my local machine: git remote add MyGitFile git://192.168.0.xxx/MyGitFile.git ? Any ideas or advice you can give to a total Git newbie trying to help his team get a better work flow. Kind regards, Mark

    Read the article

  • using libcurl to check if a file exists on a SFTP site

    - by Snazzer
    I'm using C++ with libcurl to do SFTP/FTPS transfers. Before uploading a file, I need to check if the file exists without actually downloading it. If the file doesn't exist, I run into the following problems: //set up curlhandle for the public/private keys and whatever else first. curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_URL, "sftp://user@pass:host/nonexistent-file"); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 1); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_FILETIME, 1); int result = curl_easy_perform(CurlHandle); //result is CURLE_OK, not CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND //using curl_easy_getinfo to get the file time will return -1 for filetime, regardless //if the file is there or not. If I don't use CURLOPT_NOBODY, it works, I get CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND. However, if the file does exist, it gets downloaded, which wastes time for me, since I just want to know if it's there or not. Any other techniques/options I'm missing? Note that it should work for ftps as well. Edit: This error occurs with sftp. With FTPS/FTP I get CURLE_FTP_COULDNT_RETR_FILE, which I can work with.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791  | Next Page >