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  • adding virtual function to the end of the class declaration avoids binary incompatibility?

    - by bob
    Could someone explain to me why adding a virtual function to the end of a class declaration avoids binary incompatibility? If I have: class A { public: virtual ~A(); virtual void someFuncA() = 0; virtual void someFuncB() = 0; virtual void other1() = 0; private: int someVal; }; And later modify this function to: class A { public: virtual ~A(); virtual void someFuncA(); virtual void someFuncB(); virtual void someFuncC(); virtual void other1() = 0; private: int someVal; }; I get a coredump from another .so compiled against the previous declaration. But if I put someFuncC() at the end of the class declaration (after "int someVal"), I don't see coredump anymore. Could someone tell me why this is? And does this trick always work? PS. compiler is gcc, does this work with other compilers?

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  • Binding ComboBoxes to enums... in Silverlight!

    - by Domenic
    So, the web, and StackOverflow, have plenty of nice answers for how to bind a combobox to an enum property in WPF. But Silverlight is missing all of the features that make this possible :(. For example: You can't use a generic EnumDisplayer-style IValueConverter that accepts a type parameter, since Silverlight doesn't support x:Type. You can't use ObjectDataProvider, like in this approach, since it doesn't exist in Silverlight. You can't use a custom markup extension like in the comments on the link from #2, since markup extensions don't exist in Silverlight. You can't do a version of #1 using generics instead of Type properties of the object, since generics aren't supported in XAML (and the hacks to make them work all depend on markup extensions, not supported in Silverlight). Massive fail! As I see it, the only way to make this work is to either Cheat and bind to a string property in my ViewModel, whose setter/getter does the conversion, loading values into the ComboBox using code-behind in the View. Make a custom IValueConverter for every enum I want to bind to. Are there any alternatives that are more generic, i.e. don't involve writing the same code over and over for every enum I want? I suppose I could do solution #2 using a generic class accepting the enum as a type parameter, and then create new classes for every enum I want that are simply class MyEnumConverter : GenericEnumConverter<MyEnum> {} What are your thoughts, guys?

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  • Can't get jQuery to wokr with Prototype - tried everything....

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris

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  • how to make changes to database in WPF?

    - by user353573
    Drag access database into designer xsd, toolkit:datagrid get datacontext from resources correctly show the table content through this binding. Press button in the button column, can show each row correctly. delete row and add row also work in datagrid however, when i press button column to add a new row or delete a row, there is no change in the underlying database, how to commit the changes from datagrid to database in WPF if not using ADO.net ? The following code is what i try do not work private void datagrid2_delete(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Button showButton = (Button)sender; //person p = (person)showButton.DataContext; DataRowView ds = (DataRowView)showButton.DataContext; //DataSet1.customertableRow p = (DataSet1.customertableRow)ds; //ds.BeginEdit(); //ds.Delete(); //ds.EndEdit(); /* DataSourceProvider provider = (DataSourceProvider)this.FindResource("Family"); WpfApplication1.DataSet1.customertableDataTable table = (WpfApplication1.DataSet1.customertableDataTable)provider.Data; table.AddcustomertableRow("hello3", 5, System.DateTime.Today); table.AcceptChanges(); }

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  • Handling duplicate insertion

    - by Francis
    So I've got this piece of code which, logically should work but Entity Framework is behaving unexpectedly. Here: foreach (SomeClass someobject in allObjects) { Supplier supplier = new Supplier(); supplier.primary_key = someobject.id; supplier.name = someobject.displayname; try { sm.Add(supplier); ro.Created++; } catch (Exception ex) { ro.Error++; } } Here's what I have in sm.Add() public Supplier Add(Supplier supplier) { try { _ctx.AddToSupplier(supplier); _ctx.SaveChanges(); return supplier; } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } I can have records in allObjects that have the same id. My piece of code needs to support this and just move on to the next and try to insert it, which I think should work. If this happens, an exception is throw, saying that records with dupe PKs cannot be inserted (of course). The exception mentions the value of the PK, for example 1000. All is well, a new supplier is passed to sm.Add() containing a PK that's never been used before. (1001) Weirdly though, when doing SaveChanges(), EF will whine about not being able to insert records with dupe PKs. The exception still mentions 1000 even though supplier contains 10001 in primary_key. I feel this is me not using _ctx properly. Do I need to call something else to sync it ?

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  • Should I thread this?

    - by Psytronic
    I've got a "Loading Progress" WPF form which I instantiate when I start loading some results into my Main Window, and every time a result is loaded I want the progress bar to fill up by x amount (Based on the amount of results I'm loading). However what happens is that the Progress bar in the window stays blank the entire time, until the results have finished loading, then it will just display the full progress bar. Does this need threading to work properly? Or is it just to do with the way I'm trying to get it to work? //code snippet LoadingProgress lp = new LoadingProgress(feedCount); lp.Show(); foreach (FeedConfigGroup feed in _Feeds) { feed.insertFeeds(lp); } //part of insertFeeds(LoadingProgress lbBox) foreach (Feeds fd in _FeedSource) { lpBox.setText(fd.getName); XmlDocument feedResults = new XmlDocument(); feedResults.PreserveWhitespace = false; try { feedResults.Load(wc.OpenRead(fd.getURL)); } catch (WebException) { lpBox.addError(fd.getName); } foreach (XmlNode item in feedResults.SelectNodes("/rss/channel/item")) { //code for processing the nodes... } lpBox.progressIncrease(); } If more code is needed let me know.

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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  • ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

    - by Metiu
    I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • VS2010 - Using <Import /> to share properties between setup projects?

    - by arex1337
    Why doesn't it work to <Import /> this file, when it works when I replace the statement with just copy-pasting the three properties? ../../Setup.Version.proj <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <InstallerMajorVersion>7</InstallerMajorVersion> <InstallerMinorVersion>7</InstallerMinorVersion> <InstallerBuildNumber>7</InstallerBuildNumber> </PropertyGroup> </Project> Works: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Project ToolsVersion="4.0" DefaultTargets="Build" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <InstallerMajorVersion>7</InstallerMajorVersion> <InstallerMinorVersion>7</InstallerMinorVersion> <InstallerBuildNumber>7</InstallerBuildNumber> <OutputName>asdf-$(InstallerMajorVersion).$(InstallerMinorVersion).$(InstallerBuildNumber)</OutputName> <OutputType>Package</OutputType> Doesn't work: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Project ToolsVersion="4.0" DefaultTargets="Build" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="../../Setup.Version.proj" /> <PropertyGroup> <OutputName>asdf-$(InstallerMajorVersion).$(InstallerMinorVersion).$(InstallerBuildNumber)</OutputName> <OutputType>Package</OutputType> Here the variables just evaulate to empty strings... :( I'm certain the path to the imported project is correct.

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  • How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

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  • Lazy loading is not working for one to many

    - by Shire
    Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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  • SQL: How to Return One DB Row from Two That Have The Same Values In Opposite Columns Using the MAX F

    - by OneSource
    Hi, This is what I'm trying to do. I have three columns in a table - ID, Column1, Column2 - with this example data: ID Column1 Column2 1     1            2 2     2            1 3     4            3 4     3            4 Since, in the first two rows, Column1 and Column2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want my MAX query to return an ID of 2. Same thing with rows 3 and 4 .... since Columns 1 and 2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want MAX(ID) to return 4. Of course, with MAX, you use Group By, but that will not work in my case. In effect, I need a Group By to work across two columns. Is this possible? If not, what's the best way to accomplish getting the IDs of 2 and 4 given the matching values that are in different columns? Thanks!

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  • When using a repository is it possible for a type to return a Func that the repository uses to test for existing entities?

    - by Scott Rickman
    For example given a Factory with a method public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t => t.Name == item.Name)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } how do I create a property of Base (say MustNotAlreadyExist) so that I can change the method above to public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t.MustNotAlreadyExist)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } public class Base { ... public virtual Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name); /* <- this clearly doesn't work */ } } and then how can I override MustNotAlreadyExist in Account : Base public class Account : Base { ... public override Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name && b.AccountCode == accountCode); /* <- this doesn't work */ } ... }

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  • javascript to select text from web page

    - by phil swenson
    I'm trying to write a bookmarklet that grabs any selected text on a web page and sends it to my website. It should (hopefully) work in Chrome, FFX, Safari, and IE. I did a search and found a function, but it doesn't appear to work. Here is the code: <html> <body> <div onClick=getSelText()>Click</div> <div>please select me</div> </body> <script language=javascript> function getSelText(){ var txt = 'nothing'; if (window.getSelection){ txt = "1" + window.getSelection(); } else if (document.getSelection) { txt = "2" + document.getSelection(); } else if (document.selection) { txt = "3" + document.selection.createRange().text; } else return; alert("selected text = " + txt); } </script> </html> when I select the text in the div "please select me" and hit the click div, I just get "selected text = 1" thanks

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  • Which technology should I use to transform my latex documents into html documents

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hey, I want to write a little program that transforms my TeX files into HTML. I want to parse the documents and turn the macros (the build-in and of course my own) into HTML pieces. Here are my requirements: predefined rules (e.g. begin{itemize} \item text \end{itemize} = <br> <p>text </p> <br/>) defining own CSS style ability to convert formulars (extract the formulars, load them in an imagecreator and then save the jpg/png) easy to maintain and concise I know there are several technologies out there, but I don't exactly know which is the best for me. Here are the technologies which flow into my mind Ruby (I/O is easy, formular loading via webrat), XML XSLT (I don't think that I need just overhead) perl (there are many libs out there but I'm not quite familiar with it) bash (I worked with sed and was surprised how easy it was to work with regular expressions) latex2html ... (these converters won't work for me and they don't give me freedom in parsing) Any suggestions, hints and comments are welcome. Thanks for your time, folks.

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  • Spring Integration 1.0 RC2: Streaming file content?

    - by gdm
    I've been trying to find information on this, but due to the immaturity of the Spring Integration framework I haven't had much luck. Here is my desired work flow: New files are placed in an 'Incoming' directory Files are picked up using a file:inbound-channel-adapter The file content is streamed, N lines at a time, to a 'Stage 1' channel, which parses the line into an intermediary (shared) representation. This parsed line is routed to multiple 'Stage 2' channels. Each 'Stage 2' channel does its own processing on the N available lines to convert them to a final representation. This channel must have a queue which ensures no Stage 2 channel is overwhelmed in the event that one channel processes significantly slower than the others. The final representation of the N lines is written to a file. There will be as many output files as there were routing destinations in step 4. *'N' above stands for any reasonable number of lines to read at a time, from [1, whatever I can fit into memory reasonably], but is guaranteed to always be less than the number of lines in the full file. How can I accomplish streaming (steps 3, 4, 5) in Spring Integration? It's fairly easy to do without streaming the files, but my files are large enough that I cannot read the entire file into memory. As a side note, I have a working implementation of this work flow without Spring Integration, but since we're using Spring Integration in other places in our project, I'd like to try it here to see how it performs and how the resulting code compares for length and clarity.

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  • Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

    - by Peter Di Cecco
    I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

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  • setup Qt and PyQt on mac osx so my app can also deployable on windows

    - by hk_programmer
    Hi, I've been coding with Python and C++ and now need to work on building a gui for data visualization purposes. I work on Mac Snow Leopard (intel), python 3.1 using gcc 4.2.1 (from Xcode 3.1) I wanted to first install Qt and then PyQt. And my goals are to be able to: - quickly prototype GUI and the accompanied logic that drives the GUI using PyQt and python - if I decided I need the speed, or if it's fairly easy to translate my GUI into C++ using the Qt tools, I have the options to translate my app into C++ - Be able to deploy my application onto Windows (both the python and c++ version of my app) Give the goals above, what are the correct steps I should take and what issues i should be aware of when setting up Qt and PyQt. Which other deployment tools do I need? From my readings so far, here's what I have: download the Qt source for mac and configure it with -platform macx-g++42 -arch x86_64 -no-framework (i've read somewhere that building as framework causes some trouble in deployment and/or debugging, can't find the article anymore) download latest SIP source and build download latest PyQt and build from source (any special options I should pay attention to?) For deployment, I've read that I would need to use py2exe/cx_freeze for windows, p2app for mac: http://arstechnica.com/open-source/guides/2009/03/how-to-deploying-pyqt-applications-on-windows-and-mac-os-x.ars but seems like what the article describe is deploying an app you build on windows on the windows platform and vice versa. How do you deploy to windows (is it even possible?) if you are writing your Qt app on a mac ? Really appreciate the help

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  • Why I get this error in CXF

    - by Milan
    I want to make dynamic web service invoker in JSF with CXF. But when I load this simple code I get error. The code: JaxWsDynamicClientFactory dcf = JaxWsDynamicClientFactory.newInstance(); Client client = dcf.createClient("http://ws.strikeiron.com/IPLookup2?wsdl"); The error: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException - No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Any Idea how to solve the problem?

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  • How would you implement a hashtable in language x?

    - by mk
    The point of this question is to collect a list of examples of hashtable implementations using arrays in different languages. It would also be nice if someone could throw in a pretty detailed overview of how they work, and what is happening with each example. Edit: Why not just use the built in hash functions in your specific language? Because we should know how hash tables work and be able to implement them. This may not seem like a super important topic, but knowing how one of the most used data structures works seems pretty important to me. If this is to become the wikipedia of programming, then these are some of the types of questions that I will come here for. I'm not looking for a CS book to be written here. I could go pull Intro to Algorithms off the shelf and read up on the chapter on hash tables and get that type of info. More specifically what I am looking for are code examples. Not only for me in particular, but also for others who would maybe one day be searching for similar info and stumble across this page. To be more specific: If you had to implement them, and could not use built-in functions, how would you do it? You don't need to put the code here. Put it in pastebin and just link it.

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  • Multithreaded linked list traversal

    - by Rob Bryce
    Given a (doubly) linked list of objects (C++), I have an operation that I would like multithread, to perform on each object. The cost of the operation is not uniform for each object. The linked list is the preferred storage for this set of objects for a variety of reasons. The 1st element in each object is the pointer to the next object; the 2nd element is the previous object in the list. I have solved the problem by building an array of nodes, and applying OpenMP. This gave decent performance. I then switched to my own threading routines (based off Windows primitives) and by using InterlockedIncrement() (acting on the index into the array), I can achieve higher overall CPU utilization and faster through-put. Essentially, the threads work by "leap-frog'ing" along the elements. My next approach to optimization is to try to eliminate creating/reusing the array of elements in my linked list. However, I'd like to continue with this "leap-frog" approach and somehow use some nonexistent routine that could be called "InterlockedCompareDereference" - to atomically compare against NULL (end of list) and conditionally dereference & store, returning the dereferenced value. I don't think InterlockedCompareExchangePointer() will work since I cannot atomically dereference the pointer and call this Interlocked() method. I've done some reading and others are suggesting critical sections or spin-locks. Critical sections seem heavy-weight here. I'm tempted to try spin-locks but I thought I'd first pose the question here and ask what other people are doing. I'm not convinced that the InterlockedCompareExchangePointer() method itself could be used like a spin-lock. Then one also has to consider acquire/release/fence semantics... Ideas? Thanks!

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