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  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

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  • How to configure C# Typed Datasets when calling OracleDataAdapter.Update() on Oracle Stored Procedur

    - by John_D
    I am writing a C# Windows Forms application which calls Oracle stored procedures. I chose to use typed datasets in the application, these correctly populate various datagrids, but I am having trouble when invoking the UpdateCommand or the InsertCommand. I have manually coded these commands because a) I am using Oracle stored procedures and b) I don't trust CommandBuilder ;) I am using VS2008 and Oracle 9i I don't have trouble executing stored procedures in SQL Server or Oracle when simply calling them from the .ExecuteNonQuery command; neither do I have problems executing SQL statements directly and updating the database. The problems only arise when executing the changed rows with OracleDataAdapter.Update(). I am specifying the correct set of rows (added, changed etc.) The main error I am getting (after a lot of experimentation with increasingly simpler SPs finishing with just one int parameter) is "PLS-00306: wrong number or type of arguments in call to 'PROCNAME'" I have tried prefixing the Oracle parameter both with ':' and without. Suffice to say I am losing the will to live. Has anyone any more ideas I could try next? Thanks

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  • Agile methodologies. Is it a by-product of mind control techniques as NLP / Scientology?

    - by Bobb
    The more I read about contemporary methods combinging scrum, tdd and xp, the more I feel like I already seen the methods. I am not arguing that agile approach is much more progressive than older rigid structures like waterfall, what I am saying is that it seems to me that agile methodologies are ideal to be used as a nest for a brainwashing business. I read few articles which kept referring to authors which I checked afterwards and they call themselves - coaches, trainers (usual thing when NLP specialists are involved) with no apparent software development history. Also I met a guy who is a scrum faciltator (term widly used in relation to scientology) in a high profile company. I talked to him less than 5 min but I got complete feeling that he is either on drugs or he has been programmed by a powerful NLP specialist. The way to talk and his body movements witnessed he is not an average normal person (in terms of normal distribution :))... Please dont get me wrong. I am not a fun of conspiracy theories. But I had an experience with a member of church of scientology tried to invade a commercial firm and actually went half way through to very top in just 3 weeks. I saw his work. For now I have complete impression is that psycho manipulators are now invading IT industry through the convenient door of agile techniques. Anyone has the same feeling/thoughts?

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  • Database.ExecuteNonQuery does not return

    - by dan-waterbly
    I have a very odd issue. When I execute a specific database stored procedure from C# using SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery, my stored procedure is never executed. Furthermore, SQL Profiler does not register the command at all. I do not receive a command timeout, and no exeception is thrown. The weirdest thing is that this code has worked fine over 1,200,000 times, but for this one particular file I am inserting into the database, it just hangs forever. When I kill the application, I receive this error in the event log of the database server: "A fatal error occurued while reading the input stream from the network. The session will be terminated (input error: 64, output error: 0). Which makes me think that the database server is receiving the command, though SQL Profiler says otherwise. I know that the appropiate permissions are set, and that the connection string is right as this piece of code and stored procedure works fine with other files. Below is the code that calls the stored procedure, it may be important to note that the file I am trying to insert is 33.5MB, but I have added more than 10,000 files larger than 500MB, so I do not think the size is the issue: using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TheDatabase"].ConnectionString)) using (SqlCommand command = sqlconn.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "Add_File"; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.CommandTimeout = 30 //should timeout in 30 seconds, but doesn't... command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.BigInt; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BinaryData", byteArr).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarBinary; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FileName", fileName).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; sqlconn.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } There is no firewall between the server making the call and the database server, and the windows firewalls have been disabled to troubleshoot this issue.

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  • Python : How to close a UDP socket while is waiting for data in recv ?

    - by alexroat
    Hello, let's consider this code in python: import socket import threading import sys import select class UDPServer: def __init__(self): self.s=None self.t=None def start(self,port=8888): if not self.s: self.s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) self.s.bind(("",port)) self.t=threading.Thread(target=self.run) self.t.start() def stop(self): if self.s: self.s.close() self.t.join() self.t=None def run(self): while True: try: #receive data data,addr=self.s.recvfrom(1024) self.onPacket(addr,data) except: break self.s=None def onPacket(self,addr,data): print addr,data us=UDPServer() while True: sys.stdout.write("UDP server> ") cmd=sys.stdin.readline() if cmd=="start\n": print "starting server..." us.start(8888) print "done" elif cmd=="stop\n": print "stopping server..." us.stop() print "done" elif cmd=="quit\n": print "Quitting ..." us.stop() break; print "bye bye" It runs an interactive shell with which I can start and stop an UDP server. The server is implemented through a class which launches a thread in which there's a infinite loop of recv/*onPacket* callback inside a try/except block which should detect the error and the exits from the loop. What I expect is that when I type "stop" on the shell the socket is closed and an exception is raised by the recvfrom function because of the invalidation of the file descriptor. Instead, it seems that recvfrom still to block the thread waiting for data even after the close call. Why this strange behavior ? I've always used this patter to implements an UDP server in C++ and JAVA and it always worked. I've tried also with a "select" passing a list with the socket to the xread argument, in order to get an event of file descriptor disruption from select instead that from recvfrom, but select seems to be "insensible" to the close too. I need to have a unique code which maintain the same behavior on Linux and Windows with python 2.5 - 2.6. Thanks.

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  • Sending a list of mails with SmtpClient

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    I use SendCompletedEventHandler of SmtpClient when sending a list of emails. The SendCompletedEventHandler is only called when have already sent all emails in the list. I expexted, that SendCompletedEventHandler is called one an email is send. Is there something wrong in my code? public void SendAllNewsletters(List<string> recipients) { string mailText = "My Tex"; foreach(string recipient in recipients) { //if this loop takes 10min then the first call to //SendCompletedCallback is after 10min SendNewsletter(mailText,recipient); } } public bool SendNewsletter(string mailText , string emailaddress) { SmtpClient sc = new SmtpClient(_smtpServer, _smtpPort); System.Net.NetworkCredential SMTPUserInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(_smtpuser, _smtppassword); sc.Credentials = SMTPUserInfo; sc.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailMessage mm = null; mm = new MailMessage(mailText, emailaddress); mm.IsBodyHtml = true; mm.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; mm.Subject = "Something"; mm.Body = "Something"; mm.SubjectEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; mm.BodyEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; //Mail string userState = emailaddress; sc.SendAsync(mm, userState); return true; } public void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string)e.UserState; if (e.Error != null) { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, false, e.Error.Message); } else { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, true, string.Empty); } }

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  • Custom server control disappears from page when UpdatePanel updates

    - by Sasha
    Hi all. I created a custom asp.net server control. It works fine on a regular asp.net page and as a DOM object inside of the browser. But I've never used the UpdatePanel before and now I'm trying to make sure that this control works there as well. It doesn't. If I add my control to the page outside of an update panel and click some panel's inside button (trigger), everything works fine. But if I place my control inside of update panel and click that button again, the control "disappears" from the page completely. I still can see my control in javascript debugger and the update, meaning that the object itself is still in DOM. It looks like the panel just "hides" the outer div element of my control for some reason. I tried to call panel's Update() method on button click handler, set panel's UpdateMode to both Conditional and Always. All with the same result. How can I fix that? Thank you!

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  • nextSibling difference between IE and FF?

    - by Ahmet Yildirim
    Hi fellows, I just wrote a javascript code for layering in raphaeljs it works perfectly on FF. But it doesn't on IE. The problem is IE returns null for nextSibling for any object. How does one use it correctly, or is there a nextElementSibling call in IE? Here is the code fragment I used to change the order of objects: n = items[selected_item_id].nextSibling.id; if (n != '') { items[selected_item_id].insertAfter(items[n]); } <div id="consarea"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" version="1.1" width="100%" height="100%"> <desc>Created with Raphaël</desc> <defs/> <rect x="188" y="100" width="200" height="200" r="10" rx="10" ry="10" fill="#ee8515" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1"/> <rect x="253" y="158" width="50" height="50" r="0" rx="0" ry="0" fill="#0080ff" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1" id="0"/> <rect x="230" y="140" width="50" height="50" r="0" rx="0" ry="0" fill="#c03022" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1" id="1"/></svg> here it is above. the piece of the html im working on

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  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Facebook Android SDK. Error validating access token

    - by Mj1992
    I am trying to access user information from facebook sdk.But I keep getting this error. {"error":{"message":"Error validating access token: The session has been invalidated because the user has changed the password.","type":"OAuthException","code":190,"error_subcode":460}} Here is the call which returns me the error in the response parameter of the oncomplete function. mAsyncRunner.request("me", new RequestListener() { @Override public void onComplete(String response, Object state) { Log.d("Profile", response); String json = response; //<-- error in response try { JSONObject profile = new JSONObject(json); MainActivity.this.userid = profile.getString("id"); new GetUserProfilePic().execute(); runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Name: " + MainActivity.this.userid, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } }); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("jsonexception",e.getMessage()); facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(MainActivity.this, null); GetUserInfo(); } } @Override public void onIOException(IOException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFileNotFoundException(FileNotFoundException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onMalformedURLException(MalformedURLException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e, Object state) { } }); Sometimes I get the correct response also.I think this is due to the access token expiration if I am right. So can you guys tell me how to extend the access token although I've used this facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(this, null); in the onResume method of the activity. How to solve this?

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  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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  • targeting sprites from a method in the document class - null object reference

    - by Freddyk
    Hi I am trying to code a flash app entirely in the document class. I am using GestureWorks with a touch screen. When a user essentially presses a button it calls a method that should hide a specific graphic but not the graphic they touched. Essentially I need a way to refer to a graphic on the screen using a method besides 'e.target'. //This code works because it can access 'e.target'. private function photo1SpriteFlickHandler(e:GestureEvent):void { var openTween:Tween = new Tween(e.target, "x", Strong.easeOut, 232, 970, 5, true); } //this code gives me a null object reference because I am using 'photo1Sprite' rather than 'e.target' private function photo1SpriteFlickHandler(e:GestureEvent):void { var openTween:Tween = new Tween(photo1Sprite, "x", Strong.easeOut, 232, 970, 5, true); } //photo1Sprite has already been programatically added to the screen as so: var photo1Sprite = new TouchSprite(); var photo1Loader=new Loader(); photo1Loader.load(new URLRequest("media/photos1/photo1.jpg")); photo1Loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,loaderComplete); photo1Sprite.x = 232; photo1Sprite.y = 538; photo1Sprite.scaleX = .3; photo1Sprite.scaleY = .3; photo1Sprite.blobContainerEnabled = true; photo1Sprite.addEventListener(TouchEvent.TOUCH_DOWN, startDrag_Press); photo1Sprite.addEventListener(TouchEvent.TOUCH_UP, stopDrag_Release); photo1Sprite.addChild(photo1Loader); addChild(photo1Sprite); So I can make photo1Sprite react if my method is attached to it directly using 'e.target' but not if I am trying to call it from a method that was called from another element on the screen.

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  • How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

    - by sudo rm -rf
    Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

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  • passing multidimensional arrays to function

    - by Pegah
    hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

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  • What's the best way to transfer a large dataset over a .NET web service?

    - by Malvineous
    I've inherited a C# .NET application which talks to a web service, and the web service talks to an Oracle database. I need to add an export function to the UI, to produce an Excel spreadsheet of some of the data. I have created a web service function to run a database query, load the data into a DataTable and then return it, which works fine for a small number of rows. However there is enough data in the full run that the client application locks up for a few minutes and then returns a timeout error. Obviously this isn't the best way to retrieve such a large dataset. Before I go ahead and come up with some dodgy way of splitting the call, I'm wondering if there is already something in place that can handle this. At the moment I'm thinking of a startExport function then repeatedly calling a next50Rows function until there is no data left, but because web services are stateless this means I'm going to have to keep some sort of ID number around and deal with the associated permissions. It would mean that I don't have to load the entire data set into the web server's memory though, which is one good thing. So if anyone knows a better way to retrieve a large amount of data (in a table format) over a .NET web service, please let me know!

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  • Issue with GCD and too many threads

    - by dariaa
    I have an image loader class which provided with NSURL loads and image from the web and executes completion block. Code is actually quite simple - (void)downloadImageWithURL:(NSString *)URLString completion:(BELoadImageCompletionBlock)completion { dispatch_async(_queue, ^{ // dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0), ^{ UIImage *image = nil; NSURL *URL = [NSURL URLWithString:URLString]; if (URL) { image = [UIImage imageWithData:[NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:URL]]; } dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ completion(image, URLString); }); }); } When I replace dispatch_async(_queue, ^{ with commented out dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0), ^{ Images are loading much faster, wich is quite logical (before that images would be loaded one at a time, now a bunch of them are loading simultaneously). My issue is that I have perhaps 50 images and I call downloadImageWithURL:completion: method for all of them and when I use global queue instead of _queue my app eventually crashes and I see there are 85+ threads. Can the problem be that my calling dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0) 50 times in a row makes GCD create too many threads? I thought that gcd handles all the treading and makes sure the number of threads is not huge, but if it's not the case is there any way I can influence number of threads?

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  • JavaScript onClick() Display

    - by junaidkaps
    I have an array consisting of several objects containing Strings. I am successfully able to display the array by using: <td><p onclick="theMiddle(this)">The Middle</td> As you see from the td tag this is part of a table. Issue is that the browser opens up a new page to display my text. I have been trying to display the array above my table in a p tag. //JavaScript var arrayTheMiddle = new Array (showName.theMiddle, beginingTime.theMiddle, network.abc, duration.thirty, rating.general, description.theMiddle, showImage.theMiddle); function theMiddle(obj){ for(i=0; i < arrayTheMiddle.length; i++) { document.write(arrayTheMiddle[i] + "<br>"); } } //HTML File <p>Would like the array/function displayed here while the user clicks within the table below (entire table has not been listed)</p> <td><p onclick="theMiddle(this)">The Middle</td> Unfortunately I am constantly failing at utilizing get element by id to call my function which consists of an array. I have searched for all sorts of stuff, yet frankly I'm lost. Not even sure if my approach is correct at this point. I'm sure this is one of those simple things that are blowing over my head!

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  • Can this code cause a memory leak (Arduino)

    - by tbraun89
    I have a arduino project and I created this struct: struct Project { boolean status; String name; struct Project* nextProject; }; In my application I parse some data and create Project objects. To have them in a list there is a pointer to the nextProject in each Project object expect the last. This is the code where I add new projects: void RssParser::addProject(boolean tempProjectStatus, String tempData) { if (!startProject) { startProject = true; firstProject.status = tempProjectStatus; firstProject.name = tempData; firstProject.nextProject = NULL; ptrToLastProject = &firstProject; } else { ptrToLastProject->nextProject = new Project(); ptrToLastProject->nextProject->status = tempProjectStatus; ptrToLastProject->nextProject->name = tempData; ptrToLastProject->nextProject->nextProject = NULL; ptrToLastProject = ptrToLastProject->nextProject; } } firstProject is an private instance variable and defined in the header file like this: Project firstProject; So if there actually no project was added, I use firstProject, to add a new one, if firstProject is set I use the nextProject pointer. Also I have a reset() method that deletes the pointer to the projects: void RssParser::reset() { delete ptrToLastProject; delete firstProject.nextProject; startProject = false; } After each parsing run I call reset() the problem is that the memory used is not released. If I comment out the addProject method there are no issues with my memory. Someone can tell me what could cause the memory leak?

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  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

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  • In MySql Stored Procedure updating more than one time

    - by Both FM
    In MySql UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=92 AND `ItemID`=28; It successfully update only one row , where inventoryID = 92 and itemID=28 , the following message displayed. 1 row(s) affected when I put this on stored procedure, as follow CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `Sample`(IN itemId INT, IN itemQnty DOUBLE, IN invID INT) BEGIN DECLARE crntQnty DOUBLE; DECLARE nwQnty DOUBLE; SET crntQnty=(SELECT `QuantityOnHand` FROM `item` WHERE id=itemId); SET nwQnty=itemQnty+crntQnty; UPDATE `item` SET `QuantityOnHand`=nwQnty WHERE `Id`=itemId; UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=invID AND `ItemID`=itemId; END$$ calling stored procedures CALL Sample(28,10,92) It update all the status = 1 in inventoryentry against InventoryID (i.e. 92) ignoring ItemID, instead of updating only one row. The following message displayed! 5 row(s) affected Why Stored procedure ignoring itemID in update statement ? or Why Stored procedure updating more than one time? But without Stored procedure it working fine.

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  • check properties of two objects for changes

    - by k-hoffmann
    Hi, i have to develop a mechanism to check two object properties for changes. All properties which are needed to check are marked with an attribute. Atm i - read all properties from acutal object via linq - read the corresponding property from old object - fill an own object with the two properties (old and new value) In Code the call to the workerclass looks like this public void CreateHistoryMap(BaseEntity actual, BaseEntity old) { CreateHistoryMap(actualEntity, oldEntity) .ForEach(mapEntry => CreateHistoryEntry(mapEntry), mapEntry => IfChangesDetected(mapEntry)); } CreateHistoryMap builds up the HistoryMapEntry which contains the two properties. CreateHistoryEntry build up the object which is saved to database, the IfChangesDetected check the object for changes. I have to handle own special application types to generate history values to database (like concatinating list values and so on). My problem is now, that i have to read the values of the properties twice - for change detection - and for the concreate CreateHistoryEntry How can i eliminate this problem or how can i implement the change tracking scenario with the nice c# 3.5 features? Thanks a lot.

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  • Can I prevent a Linux user space pthread yielding in critical code?

    - by KermitG
    I am working on an user space app for an embedded Linux project using the 2.6.24.3 kernel. My app passes data between two file nodes by creating 2 pthreads that each sleep until a asynchronous IO operation completes at which point it wakes and runs a completion handler. The completion handlers need to keep track of how many transfers are pending and maintain a handful of linked lists that one thread will add to and the other will remove. // sleep here until events arrive or time out expires for(;;) { no_of_events = io_getevents(ctx, 1, num_events, events, &timeout); // Process each aio event that has completed or thrown an error for (i=0; i<no_of_events; i++) { // Get pointer to completion handler io_complete = (io_callback_t) events[i].data; // Get pointer to data object iocb = (struct iocb *) events[i].obj; // Call completion handler and pass it the data object io_complete(ctx, iocb, events[i].res, events[i].res2); } } My question is this... Is there a simple way I can prevent the currently active thread from yielding whilst it runs the completion handler rather than going down the mutex/spin lock route? Or failing that can Linux be configured to prevent yielding a pthread when a mutex/spin lock is held?

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  • SQL connection to database repeating

    - by user175084
    ok now i am using the SQL database to get the values from different tables... so i make the connection and get the values like this: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Machines", connection); SqlDataAdapter sqlDa = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@node", node); sqlDa.Fill(dt); connection.Close(); so this is one query on the page and i am calling many other queries on the page. So do i need to open and close the connection everytime...??? also if not this portion is common in all: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); can i like put it in one function and call it instead.. the code would look cleaner... i tried doing that but i get errors like: Connection does not exist in the current context. any suggestions??? thanks

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  • Spring + iBatis + Hessian caching

    - by ILya
    Hi. I have a Hessian service on Spring + iBatis working on Tomcat. I'm wondering how to cache results... I've made the following config in my sqlmap file: <sqlMap namespace="Account"> <cacheModel id="accountCache" type="MEMORY" readOnly="true" serialize="false"> <flushInterval hours="24"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.addAccount"/> <flushOnExecute statement="Account.deleteAccount"/> <property name="reference-type" value="STRONG" /> </cacheModel> <typeAlias alias="Account" type="domain.Account" /> <select id="getAccounts" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts; </select> <select id="getAccount" parameterClass="Long" resultClass="Account" cacheModel="accountCache"> fix all; select id, name, pin from accounts where id=#id#; </select> <insert id="addAccount" parameterClass="Account"> fix all; insert into accounts (id, name, pin) values (#id#, #name#, #pin#); </insert> <delete id="deleteAccount" parameterClass="Long"> fix all; delete from accounts where id = #id#; </delete> </sqlMap> Then i've done some tests... I have a hessian client application. I'm calling getAccounts several times and after each call it's a query to DBMS. How to make my service to query DBMS only a first time (after server restart) getAccounts called and for the following calls to use a cache?

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  • jQuery .ajax method executing but not firing error (or success)

    - by John Swaringen
    I'm having a very strange situation. I have a .NET Web Service (.asmx) that I'm trying to call via jQuery ajax to populate some <select></select>'s. The service is running System.Web.Services like it's supposed to and should be returning a JSON list. At least that's the way I understand that it will in .NET 3.5/4.0. The main problem is that the .ajax() function (below) seems to execute but the internal callbacks aren't executing. I know it's executing because I can do something before and after the function and both execute, so JavaScript isn't blowing up. $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: 'http://localhost:59191/AFEDropDownService/Service.asmx/GetAVP', data: "{}", dataType: "jsonp", crossDomain: true, success: function(list) { console.log(list); console.log("success!!"); }, error: function(msg) { console.log("error: " + msg.text); } }); If you need more of the code let me know. Or if you know a better way as I'm trying to build cascading <select></select's.

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