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• Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

  - by kujawk

  Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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• PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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• Entity framework self referencing loop detected

  - by Lyd0n

  I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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• BufferedWriter overwriting itself

  - by Danson

  I want to read in a file and create a duplicate of the file but my code only write the last line in the file. How do I make so that whenever I call write(), it writes to a new line. I want to create a new file for the duplicate so I can't add true to FileWriter constructor. This is my code: //Create file reader BufferedReader iReader = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(args[1])); //Create file writer BufferedWriter oWriter = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter(args[2], true)); String strLine; //reading file int iterate = 0; while((strLine = iReader.readLine()) != null) { instructions[iterate] = strLine; } //creating duplicate for(int i = 0; i < instructions.length; i++) { if(instructions[i] != null) { oWriter.write(instructions[i]); oWriter.newLine(); } else { break; } } try { iReader.close(); oWriter.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); }

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• ios UITableView reloadData don't increase content height

  - by Zoltan Varadi

  I'm facing a strange error in my iOS app and haven't been able to figure out the reason why. In my UITableView i can add new cells, so i refresh the array that is the datasource and call reloadData. Everything works without error. The numberOfRowsInSection is called again, and it's value is one more than it's previous value was. The new cell even gets inserted at the bottom of the tableview, but i cant scroll down to it. I only know that it's there because the tableview bounces and i can see it. I'm guessing the tableview's content height is not getting increased for some reason, but i have no idea why. I'm using iOS 6 btw. Any help is very much appreciated! Thanks, Zoli EDIT, answers for Srikanth's questions: How is data getting added. There's an NSArray containing objects of a specific type. The array.count is the number of the number of cells. This NSArray gets its values from a database query. When you say, you are refreshing the array, what do you mean. By refreshing the array i mean i execute a new query in the database and put the results of this query into an NSArray. this will be the tableview's datasource array. Like this: dataSourceArray = [dbManager executeQuery]; [tableView reloadData]; Are you adding the data within the same view controller Yes. Can you show some code as to what you are doing See above. Is the table view at the root of the view controllers view or is it within another view The tableview is the main view's first child. Can you try adding data to the array at the beginning, so that you can view the cell being added at the top. I don't understand what you mean.

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• SQL putting two single quotes around datetime fields and fails to insert record

  - by user82613

  I am trying to INSERT into an SQL database table, but it doesn't work. So I used the SQL server profiler to see how it was building the query; what it shows is the following: declare @p1 int set @p1=0 declare @p2 int set @p2=0 declare @p3 int set @p3=1 exec InsertProcedureName @ConsumerMovingDetailID=@p1 output, @UniqueID=@p2 output, @ServiceID=@p3 output, @ProjectID=N'0', @IPAddress=N'66.229.112.168', @FirstName=N'Mike', @LastName=N'P', @Email=N'[email protected]', @PhoneNumber=N'(254)637-1256', @MobilePhone=NULL, @CurrentAddress=N'', @FromZip=N'10005', @MoveInAddress=N'', @ToZip=N'33067', @MovingSize=N'1', @MovingDate=''2009-04-30 00:00:00:000'', /* Problem here ^^^ */ @IsMovingVehicle=0, @IsPackingRequired=0, @IncludeInSaveologyPlanner=1 select @p1, @p2, @p3 As you can see, it puts a double quote two pairs of single quotes around the datetime fields, so that it produces a syntax error in SQL. I wonder if there is anything I must configure somewhere? Any help would be appreciated. Here is the environment details: Visual Studio 2008 .NET 3.5 MS SQL Server 2005 Here is the .NET code I'm using.... //call procedure for results strStoredProcedureName = "usp_SMMoverSearchResult_SELECT"; Database database = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DbCommand dbCommand = database.GetStoredProcCommand(strStoredProcedureName); dbCommand.CommandTimeout = DataHelper.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT; database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@MovingDetailID", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.ConsumerMovingDetailID); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromZip", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.FromZipCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToZip", DbType.String, objPropConsumer.ToZipCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@MovingDate", DbType.DateTime, objPropConsumer.MoveDate); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@PLServiceID", DbType.Int32, objPropConsumer.ServiceID); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromAreaCode", DbType.String, pFromAreaCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@FromState", DbType.String, pFromState); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToAreaCode", DbType.String, pToAreaCode); database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "@ToState", DbType.String, pToState); DataSet dstSearchResult = new DataSet("MoverSearchResult"); database.LoadDataSet(dbCommand, dstSearchResult, new string[] { "MoverSearchResult" });

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• asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

  - by Tomaszewski

  Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

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• JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

  - by Heavy Bytes

  I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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• XSLT: Using a different way of processing within the current way of processing.

  - by krisvandenbergh

  Below I'm trying to match certain nodes. <xsl:template match="nodes"> <element> <xsl:apply-templates select="nodes" mode="different" /> </element> </xsl:template> Now, there are multiple ways of processing for the same nodes. I want to use this different way of processing within the current way of processing. That's why I perform apply-templates on the same selection, which is nodes, however the mode is different now. Here's how the different mode could look like: <xsl:template match="nodes" mode="different"> <!-- another way of processing these nodes --> </xsl:template> Now, this does not work. Only the first type of processing is processed and the apply-templates call is simply not applied. What am I doing wrong, how can I get what I want using XSLT? What could be another approach to solve this problem?

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• SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

  - by Jordan

  I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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• .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

  - by mathee

  Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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• Android - How can I upload a txt file to a website?

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I want to upload a txt file to a website, I'll admit I haven't looked into it in any great detail but I have looked at a few examples and would like more experienced opinions on whether I'm going in the right direction. Here is what I have so far: DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpContext localContext = new BasicHttpContext(); private String ret; HttpResponse response = null; HttpPost httpPost = null; public String postPage(String url, String data, boolean returnAddr) { ret = null; httpClient.getParams().setParameter(ClientPNames.COOKIE_POLICY, CookiePolicy.RFC_2109); httpPost = new HttpPost(url); response = null; StringEntity tmp = null; try { tmp = new StringEntity(data,"UTF-8"); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : UnsupportedEncodingException : "+e); } httpPost.setEntity(tmp); try { response = httpClient.execute(httpPost,localContext); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : ClientProtocolException : "+e); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : IOException : "+e); } ret = response.getStatusLine().toString(); return ret; } And I call it as follows: postPage("http://www.testwebsite.com", "data/data/com.testxmlpost.xml/files/logging.txt", true)); I want to be able to upload a file from the device to a website. But when trying this way I get the following response back. HTTP/1.1 405 Method Not Allowed Am I trying the correct way or should I be doing it another way?

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• Can get members, but not count of NSMutableArray

  - by Curyous

  I'm filling an NSMutableArray from a CoreData call. I can get the first object, but when I try to get the count, the app crashes with Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. How can I get the count? Here's the relevant code - I've put a comment on the line where it crashes. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; managedObjectContext = [[MySingleton sharedInstance] managedObjectContext]; if (managedObjectContext != nil) { charactersRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; charactersEntity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Character" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [charactersEntity retain]; [charactersRequest setEntity:charactersEntity]; [charactersRequest retain]; NSError *error; characters = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:charactersRequest error:&error] mutableCopy]; if (characters == nil) { NSLog(@"Did not get results for characters: %@", error.localizedDescription); } else { [characters retain]; NSLog(@"Found some character(s)."); Character* character = (Character *)[characters objectAtIndex:0]; NSLog(@"Name of first one: %@", character.name); NSLog(@"Found %@ character(s).", characters.count); // Crashes on this line with - Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. } } } And previous declarations from the header file: @interface CrowdViewController : UITableViewController { NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *charactersRequest; NSEntityDescription *charactersEntity; NSMutableArray *characters; } I'm a bit perplexed and would really appreciate finding out what is going on.

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• how to run href="#var=something" before onclick function fires in javascript?

  - by korben

  i'm using the below javascript to change an image on an aspx in asp.net c# <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> var updateImageWhenHashChanges = function() { theImage = document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_Image1a"); if(window.location.hash == "#size=2") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/l{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=3") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("realfilename", "/files/{0}") %>"; } else if(window.location.hash == "#size=1") { theImage.src = "<%# Eval("fullthumbname", "/thumbnails/{0}") %>"; } else { } } </script> here's how i call it with a link <a href="#size=3" onclick="updateImageWhenHashChanges();">test</a> the problem is that it only does what i'm expecting on the SECOND click of the link, because it seems onclick fires before the href, so the first time i'm just placing the var and the 2nd time i'm actually getting what i want. does anyone know how i can fix this? i'm trying to get the image to change on each click

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• Should conditional expressions go inside or outside of classes?

  - by Rupert

  It seems that often I will want to execute some methods from a Class when I call it and choosing which function will depend on some condition. This leads me to write classes like in Case 1 because it allows me to rapidly include their functionality. The alternative would be Case 2 which can take a lot of time if there is a lot of code and also means more code being written twice when I drop the Class into different pages. Having said that, Case 1 feels very wrong for some reason that I can't quite put my finger on. I haven't really seen any classes written like this, I suppose. Is there anything wrong with writing classes like in Case 1 or is Case 2 superior? Or is there a better way? What the advantages and disadvantages of each? Case 1 class Foo { public function __construct($bar) { if($bar = 'action1') $this->method1(); else if($bar = 'action2') $this->method2(); else $this->method1(); } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $bar = 'action1' $foo = new Foo($bar); Case 2 class Foo { public function __construct() { } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $foo = new Foo; $bar = 'action1'; if($bar == 'action1') $foo->method1(); else if($bar == 'action2') $foo->method2(); else $foo->method1();

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• Zend Framework/PHPUnit: How to Stub/Mock an object method that connects to a database?

  - by Andrew

  In my Zend Framework project, I have a form that I am testing. In my form, a multi-select element gets its options from a model, which gets the data from the database. public function init() { $this->addElement('select', 'Region_ID', array('multiOptions' => $this->getRegions())); } protected function getRegions() { $mapper = new Model_RegionMapper(); return $mapper->getFormSelectData(); //this method will try to connect to a database (or get another object that will connect to the database) } I tried copying the example in the PHPUnit documentation, but it doesn't seem to be working. public function setUp() { $stub = $this->getMock('Model_RegionMapper'); $stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('getFormSelectData') ->will($this->returnValue(array('testdata'))); } public function testFoo() { //this will fail $form = new My_Form(); } The test fails because it is trying to find a table in the database that doesn't exist. But I don't want it to connect to the database at all. How do I correctly stub/mock this method so that it doesn't call the database?

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• How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

  - by Richard

  I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

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• Selecting a form which is in an iframe using jQuery

  - by Khnle

  I have a form inside an iframe which is inside a jQuery UI dialog box. The form contains a file input type. The jQuery UI dialog contains an Upload button. When this button is clicked, I would like to programmatically call the submit method. My question is how I could select the form which is in a iframe using jQuery. The following code should clarify the picture: <div id="upload_file_picker_dlg" title="Upload file"> <iframe id="upload_file_iframe" src="/frame_src_url" frameborder=0 width=100% scrolling=no></iframe> </div> frame_src_url contains: <form action="/UploadTaxTable" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" id="upload-form"> <p>Select a file to be uploaded:</p> <p> <input type="file" name="datafile" size="60"> </p> The jQueryUI dialog box javascript code: $('#upload_file_picker_dlg').dialog({ ... buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Upload': function() { $('#upload-form').submit(); //question is related to this line $(this).dialog('close'); } }, .... }); From the javascript code snippet above, how can I select the form with id upload-form that is in the iframe whose id is upload_file_iframe ?

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• Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

  - by Justin

  I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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• sorting a gridview in class

  - by user175084

  ok i have a project which has many gridview in its pages... now i am sorting the fridveiw using the sorting function like this: protected void GridView1_Sorting(object sender, GridViewSortEventArgs e) { DataTable dt = Session["TaskTable2"] as DataTable; if (dt != null) { //Sort the data. dt.DefaultView.Sort = e.SortExpression + " " + GetSortDirection(e.SortExpression); GridView1.DataSource = Session["TaskTable2"]; GridView1.DataBind(); } } private string GetSortDirection(string column) { // By default, set the sort direction to ascending. string sortDirection2 = "ASC"; // Retrieve the last column that was sorted. string sortExpression2 = ViewState["SortExpression2"] as string; if (sortExpression2 != null) { // Check if the same column is being sorted. // Otherwise, the default value can be returned. if (sortExpression2 == column) { string lastDirection = ViewState["SortDirection2"] as string; if ((lastDirection != null) && (lastDirection == "ASC")) { sortDirection2 = "DESC"; } } } // Save new values in ViewState. ViewState["SortDirection2"] = sortDirection2; ViewState["SortExpression2"] = column; return sortDirection2; } but this code is being repeated in many pages so i tried to put this function in a C# class and try to call it but i get errors.... for starters i get the viewstate error saying :| "viewstate does not exist in the current context" so how do i go about doing this ....?? thanks

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• Sizing issues while adding a .Net UserControl to a TabPage

  - by TJ_Fischer

  I have a complex Windows Forms GUI program that has a lot of automated control generation and manipulation. One thing that I need to be able to do is add a custom UserControl to a newly instatiated TabPage. However, when my code does this I get automatic resizing events that cause the formatting to get ugly. Without detailing all of the different Containers that could possibly be involved, the basic issue is this: At a certain point in the code I create a new tab page: TabPage tempTabPage = new TabPage("A New Tab Page"); Then I set it to a certain size that I want it to maintain: tempTabPage.Width = 1008; tempTabPage.Height = 621; Then I add it to a TabControl: tabControl.TabPages.Add(tempTabPage); Then I create a user control that I want to appear in the newly added TabPage: CustomView customView = new CustomView("A new custom control"); Here is where the problem comes in. At this point both the tempTabPage and the customView are the same size with no padding or margin and they are the size I want them to be. I now try to add this new custom UserControl to the tab page like this: tempTabPage.Controls.Add(customView); When making this call the customView and it's children controls get resized to be larger and so parts of the customView are hidden. Can anyone give me any direction on what to look for or what could be causing this kind of issue? Thanks ahead of time.

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• How Optimize sql query make it faster

  - by user502083

  Hello every one : I have a very simple small database, 2 of tables are: Node (Node_ID, Node_name, Node_Date) : Node_ID is primary key Citation (Origin_Id, Target_Id) : PRIMARY KEY (Origin_Id, Target_Id) each is FK in Node Now I write a query that first find all citations that their Origin_Id has a specific date and then I want to know what are the target dates of these records. I'm using sqlite in python the Node table has 3000 record and Citation has 9000 records, and my query is like this in a function: def cited_years_list(self, date): c=self.cur try: c.execute("""select n.Node_Date,count(*) from Node n INNER JOIN (select c.Origin_Id AS Origin_Id, c.Target_Id AS Target_Id, n.Node_Date AS Date from CITATION c INNER JOIN NODE n ON c.Origin_Id=n.Node_Id where CAST(n.Node_Date as INT)={0}) VW ON VW.Target_Id=n.Node_Id GROUP BY n.Node_Date;""".format(date)) cited_years=c.fetchall() self.conn.commit() print('Cited Years are : \n ',str(cited_years)) except Exception as e: print('Cited Years retrival failed ',e) return cited_years Then I call this function for some specific years, But it's crazy slowwwwwwwww :( (around 1 min for a specific year) Although my query works fine, it is slow. would you please give me a suggestion to make it faster? I'd appreciate any idea about optimizing this query :) I also should mention that I have indices on Origin_Id and Target_Id, so the inner join should be pretty fast, but it's not!!!

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• How to copy a variable in JavaScript?

  - by Michael Stum

  I have this JavaScript code: for (var idx in data) { var row = $("<tr></tr>"); row.click(function() { alert(idx); }); table.append(row); } So I'm looking through an array, dynamically creating rows (the part where I create the cells is omitted as it's not important). Important is that I create a new function which encloses the idx variable. However, idx is only a reference, so at the end of the loop, all rows have the same function and all alert the same value. One way I solve this at the moment is by doing this: function GetRowClickFunction(idx){ return function() { alert(idx); } } and in the calling code I call row.click(GetRowClickFunction(idx)); This works, but is somewhat ugly. I wonder if there is a better way to just copy the current value of idx inside the loop? While the problem itself is not jQuery specific (it's related to JavaScript closures/scope), I use jQuery and hence a jQuery-only solution is okay if it works.

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• Google App Engine: TypeError problem with Models

  - by Rosarch

  I'm running Google App Engine on the dev server. Here is my models file: from google.appengine.ext import db import pickle import re re_dept_code = re.compile(r'[A-Z]{2,}') re_course_number = re.compile(r'[0-9]{4}') class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): sink = db.ReferenceProperty() tails = db.ListProperty() class DependencyArcTail(db.Model): courses = db.ListProperty() It gives this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 3192, in _HandleRequest self._Dispatch(dispatcher, self.rfile, outfile, env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 3135, in _Dispatch base_env_dict=env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 516, in Dispatch base_env_dict=base_env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2394, in Dispatch self._module_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2304, in ExecuteCGI reset_modules = exec_script(handler_path, cgi_path, hook) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2200, in ExecuteOrImportScript exec module_code in script_module.__dict__ File "main.py", line 19, in <module> from src.Models import Course, findCourse, validateCourse, dictForJSON, clearAndBuildDependencyGraph File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1929, in load_module return self.FindAndLoadModule(submodule, fullname, search_path) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1831, in FindAndLoadModule description) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1782, in LoadModuleRestricted description) File "src\Models.py", line 14, in <module> class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): File "src\Models.py", line 17, in DependencyArcHead tails = db.ListProperty() TypeError: __init__() takes at least 2 arguments (1 given) What am I doing wrong?

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• How do I access the names of VB6 modules from code?

  - by Mark Bertenshaw

  Hi All - It is unlikely that there is an answer for this one, but I'm asking anyway. I am currently maintaining some code, which is likely to be refactored soon. Before that happens, I want to make the standard error handling code, which is injected by an Add-In, more efficient and take up less space. One thing that annoys me is that every module has a constant called m_ksModuleName that is used to construct a big string, which is then rethrown from the error handler so we can trace the error stack. This is all template code, i.e. repetivitve, but I could easily strip it down to a procedure call. Now, I have fixed the code so that you can pass the Me reference to the procedure - but you can't do that for the BAS modules. Nor can you access the project name (the part which would be passed as part of a ProgramID, for instance) - although you get given it when you raise an error yourself. All these strings are contained in the EXE, DLL or OCX - believe me, I've used a debugger to find them. But how can I access these in code? -- Mark Bertenshaw

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