Search Results

Search found 53347 results on 2134 pages for 'net faq'.

Page 828/2134 | < Previous Page | 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835  | Next Page >

  • Neither IE or Firefox respects the control values that are output

    - by Luke Rohde
    I'm writing a survey designer asp.net mvc. It has buttons to move questions up and down. The buttons post the whole form back and the affected questions are swapped on the server. When the form returns the only thing that is changed are the values for each survey question. Both firefox and IE seem to ignore this change. Nothing is persisted to the database (until save) and url doesn't change so the post just returns the same view but I've stepped through my code to ensure the sequence of values being rendered in the view reflects the swap which is ok. However "view - source" doesn't show the change suggesting caching issue (maybe auto complete). I've tried autocomplete="off" in my form. Response.Cache.SetNoStore(); in my global.asax [System.Web.Mvc.OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "*")] before my controller and the following in my page header NOTHING!!! This must be real common. Anyone got a clue?

    Read the article

  • How to convert thousands of PDF files to a single Postscript file in a specified order

    - by tggagne
    I've discovered multiple options for convert a few to serveral PDFs into Postscript, but many are command-line programs with command-line limitations (this application lives on .NET). Our application generates tens-of-thousands of PDFs that we need to send to a printer, except BEFORE the Postscript is printed we need to edit the Postscript to insert print command instructions (duplex, tray-pulls, highlight color, etc.) I think a perfect solution might allow us to write the PDFs to a stream, and simultaneously allow us to read the output stream so we may edit the Postscript before writing it to a file. Of course, if I must create the file first containing all 10,000 PDFs and edit it in an additional pass, I'm OK with that, too. I should mention that speed is important. I need to print 10,000 at a time, but need to keep the printers busy 24-hours/day.

    Read the article

  • How can I make a DateTimePicker display an empty string?

    - by brass-kazoo
    I would like to be able to display a DateTimePicker that has a default value of nothing, i.e. no date. For example, I have a start date dtTaskStart and an end date dtTaskEnd for a task, but the end date is not known, and not populated initially. I have specified a custom format of yyyy-MM-dd for both controls. Setting the value to null, or an empty string at runtime causes an error, so how can I accomplish this? I have considered using a checkbox to control the enabling of this field, but there is still the issue of displaying an initial value.. Edit: Arguably a duplicate of the question DateTimePicker Null Value (.NET), but the solution I found for my problem is not a solution for that question, so I think it should remain here for others to find..

    Read the article

  • Database designing for a bug tracking system in SQL

    - by Yasser
    I am an ASP.NET developer and I really dont do such of database stuff. But for my open source project on Codeplex I am required to setup a database schema for the project. So reading from here and there I have managed to do the following. As being new to database schema designing, I wanted some one else who has a better idea on this topic to help me identify any issues with this design. Most of the relationships are self explanatory I think, but still I will jot each one down. The two keys between UserProfile and Issues are for relationships between UserId and IssueCreatedBy and IssueClosedBy Thanks

    Read the article

  • Passing additional arguments into the OnClick event handler of a LinkButton using Javascript

    - by Jens Ameskamp
    Hi! I have a ASP.NET Website, where, in a GridView item template, automatically populated by a LinqDataSource, there is a LinkButton defined as follows: <asp:LinkButton ID="RemoveLinkButton" runat="server" CommandName="Remove" CommandArgument='<%# DataBinder.GetPropertyValue(GetDataItem(), "Id")%>' OnCommand="removeVeto_OnClick" OnClientClick='return confirm("Are you sure?");' Text="Remove Entry" /> This works fine. Whenever the Button is Clicked, a confirmation dialog is displayed. What I am trying to do now, is to allow the user to enter a reason for the removal, and pass this on the the OnClick event handler. How would I do this? I tried OnClientClick='return prompt("Enter your reason!");', but, of course, that did not work =)

    Read the article

  • Hosting a complex online service

    - by jonathanconway
    I have an idea for a web-based service. The implementation is very complex. There will be very few users, and the traffice will be fairly low, but the server-side code could require a lot of resources. Ideally I'd need to have as much control over the servers as possible. How should I arrange hosting for this, when it comes time to release it to the public? Should I do the hosting myself, from my own servers? Trouble is, since I'm not quite an expert on .NET hosting, it might take time to learn and I might make big mistakes. The trouble with using a hosting company is, they might steal my idea, or else, it might cost a lot. Since I'm an un-funded startup I don't have a lot of money to throw at this.

    Read the article

  • Custom tool error: Command.proto:11:18: "Message2" is not defined.

    - by cornerback84
    I am using the latest version of protobuf-net with VS2008 integration. I have created 2 messages (Message1 and Message2), 1 message in 1 proto file. When I try to reference Message2 in Message1 the code generator tool gives me error "Message2" is not defined and won't generate the code file. The package for both messages is same. It look like that because of the integration of the tool with VS2008 it expects all the messages in same .proto file to compile. Currently I have to paste an empty message with same name in Message1.proto file, like this: message Message1 { optional Message2 message2 = 1; } message Message2 { } And then later on remove the declaration of class Message2 from Message1.cs. Are there any settings that I need to do so to avoid this error, or is providing an empty declaration the only way?

    Read the article

  • How to share WinForms and code between 2 projects

    - by Richard Bysouth
    Hi I have a working Windows Forms app (split into an EXE and a few DLLs). Now I've been asked to look at creating another app (MyAppLite) that has only a very small subset of the functionality. Think of it as similar to MS Word Viewer vs. MS Word. Everything that I need to build MyAppLite is contained in the main solution - essentially I need to use a couple of the WinForms and whatever bits in the DLLs they call into. What would be the best way to do this? I was thinking of creating another Project in my solution for MyAppLite, then adding the necessary source files as links (using Add Existing Item Add As Link in Solution Explorer). I definitely wouldn't want to maintain 2 copies of the source code. FYI it's a .NET 2.0 VB app, using VS2008. thanks Richard

    Read the article

  • How do you link to an action that takes an array as a parameter (RedirectToAction and/or ActionLink)

    - by Andrew
    I have an action defined like so: public ActionResult Foo(int[] bar) { ... } Url's like this will work as expected: .../Controller/Foo?bar=1&bar=3&bar=5 I have another action that does some work and then redirects to the Foo action above for some computed values of bar. Is there a simple way of specifying the route values with RedirectToAction or ActionLink so that the url's get generated like the above example? These don't seem to work: return RedirectToAction("Foo", new { bar = new[] { 1, 3, 5 } }); return RedirectToAction("Foo", new[] { 1, 3, 5 }); <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new { bar = new[] { 1, 3, 5 } }) %> <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new[] { 1, 3, 5 }) %> However, for a single item in the array, these do work: return RedirectToAction("Foo", new { bar = 1 }); <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new { bar = 1 }) %> When setting bar to an array, it redirects to the following: .../Controller/Foo?a=System.Int32[] Finally, this is with ASP.NET MVC 2 RC. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • html.checkbox - explicit value to hidden field value

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I am creating list of checkboxes in partial view by follwoing http://blog.stevensanderson.com/2010/01/28/editing-a-variable-length-list-aspnet-mvc-2-style/ code and Rendered HTML for checkboxes is as follows <%=Html.CheckBox("EmployeeID", new { value = user.EmployeeID, @class = "ccboxes", title = user.Designation + "(" + user.EmployeeName + ")" })%> <INPUT id=MemoUsers_a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be__EmployeeID class=boxes title=Programmer(Zia) value=6 type=checkbox name=MemoUsers[a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be].EmployeeID jQuery1276681299292="27"> <INPUT value=false type=hidden name=MemoUsers[a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be].EmployeeID> In rendered html it can be seen that value attribute of hidden field is false. i want to assign explicit value(same as checkbox value) to this value. Is this possible using html.checkbox or html.checkboxfor. one way is recommended in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/626901/asp-net-mvc-rc2-checkboxes-with-explicit-values. Is there any other better way i want to do this as ModelState.IsValid is returning false because of hidden field value attribute Regards

    Read the article

  • Abstract Forms using WinForms

    - by pm_2
    I’m trying to achieve a similar affect in a WinForms application as a master form does with ASP.NET. My initial thoughts on this were to create a base form and declare it as abstract, but the compiler doesn’t seem to let me do this. public abstract partial class Master : Form { public Master() { InitializeComponent(); } } So I have two questions: Why will the compiler not let me do this? Am I using the wrong syntax or is this a genuine restriction. Can anyone suggest a workaround or better way to do this? EDIT: InitializeComponent code: private void InitializeComponent() { this.components = new System.ComponentModel.Container(); this.mainMenu1 = new System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu(); this.Menu = this.mainMenu1; this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Dpi; this.Text = "Master"; this.AutoScroll = true; }

    Read the article

  • Should I inherit from a stackpanel instead of a stack panel, grid or other UI element or UserControl

    - by Joel Barsotti
    So I'm building a peice of UI that might me in a dialog window or might be in embedded in part of a bigger page. I don't have alot of experience with WPF, but in ASP.NET you always used UserControls, because their wasn't anyt really generic UI inherit to inherit from (and in a way UserControl was just a div). My coworker has written alot of controls that inherit directly from stackpanel. That seems like a decent way of doing things. But when I went to create a control for the code I was going to write I was presented with a dialog that only included the UserControl, which I wasn't that familiar with in the context of WPF. So can someone explain to me the difference from building a control that inherits from user control vs inheriting directly from a stackPanel?

    Read the article

  • window.opener.document.getElementById not working

    - by Curtis
    In my asp.net web app, I create a popup window with a button. When that button is clicked, I want to set the value of an asp:TextBox (id=TextBox1) contained in the parent window. However, it doesn't work like all the examples I've read indicate. I've tried the following lines of code in my javascript onclick handler: window.opener.document.getElementById('<%= TextBox1.ClientID %').value = "abc"; window.opener.document.getElementById("TextBox1").value = "abc"; window.opener.document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_TextBox1").value = "abc"; Only example 3 works. All the stuff I've read indicates that #1 is the preferred method, but I can't seem to make it work at all. Does anyone have any ideas what I'm doing wrong? I've tried this in Firefox, Chrome and IE. Thanks

    Read the article

  • value of type 'string' cannot be converted to 'Devart.data.postgresql.PgSqlParameter'

    - by hector
    The following is my PostgreSQL table structure and the vb.net code to insert into the tables.Using Devart's Component For PostgreSQL Connect table gtab83 CREATE TABLE gtab83 ( orderid integer NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('seq_gtab83_id'::regclass), acid integer, slno integer, orderdte date ) table gtab84 CREATE TABLE gtab84 ( orderdetid integer DEFAULT nextval('seq_gtab84_id'::regclass), productid integer, qty integer, orderid integer ) Code to insert into the above tables is below '1.)INSERT INTO gtab83(orderid,acid, slno, orderdte) VALUES (?, ?, ?); '2.)INSERT INTO gtab84(orderdetid,productid, qty, orderid) VALUES (?, ?, ?); Try Dim cmd As PgSqlCommand = New PgSqlCommand("", Myconnstr) cmd.CommandText = _ "INSERT INTO GTAB83(ACID,SLNO,ORDERDTE)" & _ "VALUES " & _ "(@acid,@slno,@orderdte);" Dim paramAcid As PgSqlParameter = New PgSqlParameter("@acid", PgSqlType.Int, 0) Dim paramSlno As PgSqlParameter = New PgSqlParameter("@slno", PgSqlType.Int, 0) Dim paramOrderdte As PgSqlParameter = New PgSqlParameter("@orderdte", PgSqlType.Date, 0) paramAcid = cboCust.SelectedValue paramSlno = txtOrderNO.Text #ERROR# paramOrderdte = (txtDate.Text, "yyyy-MM-dd") #ERROR# Catch ex As Exception End Try ERROR : value of type 'string' cannot be converted to 'Devart.data.postgresql.PgSqlParameter'

    Read the article

  • Using jquery with nested masterpages

    - by diver-d
    Hi everyone, Can anyone show me how to use jquery in an asp.net nested masterpage. I have my main masterpage where I have added the link to the jquery libaray and also the validation framework. I have then created another masterpage with some styling and created a aspx page based on that masterpage. How can I attach the validation framework to textboxes within my page? I have tried $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtContactEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); However nothing happens. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Is is possible to programmatically change the resourceProviderFactoryType?

    - by Robert Massa
    I have a custom implementation of IResourceProvider and ResourceProviderFactory. Now the default way of making sure ASP.NET uses these custom types is to use the web.config and specify the factory like so: <globalization resourceProviderFactoryType="Product.Globalization.TranslationResourceProviderFactory" /> This works perfectly, except that in my resource provider I need database access. I want to use my IoC-container(Ninject) to inject the repositories needed to access this data into the CustomResourceProvider. But how am I going to do this? I have no control over the instantiation of the factory, so the factory can't get a reference to my IoC. Is there any way to register a custom provider programmatically, in for example the Global.asax?

    Read the article

  • How to create a server control on another ASPX file

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C#/SQL ASP.NET web application in VS 2008. Currently, I am transferring control from one ASPX file to another: if (uploadFile.PostedFile.ContentLength > 0) { inputfile = System.IO.File.ReadAllText(path); Context.Items["Message"] = inputfile; //Page1 Server.Transfer("DataMatch.aspx"); //Page1 } However, it fails on this Server.Transfer line after inserting runat="server" in the DataMatch.aspx file to the Table element like so: <table width="50%" id="tMain" runat="server"> But after making this a server control, I rebuilt it and now when I run this app it gives me exception: Error executing child request for DataMatch.aspx But I need this table to be a server control so I can make it invisible programmatically if a certain condition occurs. How else can I programmatically make this table invisible?

    Read the article

  • System.Data.OracleClient requires Oracle client software version 8.1.7 or greater

    - by sachin kulkarni
    I have installed Oracle client version 10g on my PC(Registry ORACLE_BASE-D:\oracle\product\10.2.0). I have added below references. System.Data.OracleClient. I am getting above mentioned error. Below is the Code Snippet . public static OracleConnection getConnection() { try { dataSource = new SqlDataSource(); dataSource.ConnectionString = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("conn"); OracleConnection connection = new OracleConnection(); if (dataSource == null) { // Error during initialization of InitialContext or Datasource throw new Exception("###### Fatal Exception ###### - DataSource is not initialized.Pls check the stdout/logs."); } else { connection.ConnectionString = dataSource.ConnectionString; connection.Open(); } return connection; }catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } Please let me know what are the areas of Concern and where Iam missing.I am new for the combination of Oracle and Asp.Net.

    Read the article

  • ATL OR C# for windows shell/namespace extenssion?

    - by _Avishay_
    Hi, i have a question, after allot of hours in googling and reading articles, i understood that namespace extenssion in windows is quite tricky (In C++ at least), now i've also seen its possible to do so in C# , but microsft does'nt officaly confirms using .net for namespace extensions... though i have seen very nice commercial Namespace Extenssion framework , but none is free.... so to my question :) , i want to develop my own Namespace Extenssion ,i have C++/C# knwoledge and basic COM/ATL , but if it can be done i prefer c#, so does c# inteop can fully do the work without too many tricks ? or one shall go diving in the ATL to create the neccessary COM objects... and another question , can i program to Windows O/S with C# anything that can be done in C++/ATL/MFC ? thanks!

    Read the article

  • URL Navigation and SQL Insertion After RadioButtonList Selection

    - by SidC
    Good Morning, I have a radiobuttonlist in my ASP.NET webforms application that is used as a voting tool. The concept is as follows: Users will vote for the blurb in the contentplaceholder using the radiobuttonlist. My list item values are 1 through 3 and my list item text is something like low, medium and high. Questions: 1. I want to save and accumulate votes for a given blurb. The blurb ID is referenced in a meta tag on the content page. How do I reference the meta tag in my SQL insert statement? 2. When the radiobuttonlist is used, can it cause the next content page to be loaded after the SQL insert is done? That is, I don't necessarily want the user to make the radiobuttonlist selection, then have to click a separate button to cast vote and move to next page. I want all that done in the radiobuttonlist. Is this possible? Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • XPath select an attribute based on value

    - by Apeksha
    Using VB.Net, I have an XmlNode object, xNode. I need to select an attribute of this node if it has a particular value. e.g. xNode.SelectSingleNode(".[@attr1='1']") I would expect this statement to return the attribute "attr1", only if it has a value of "1". However, I get an error - Expression must evaluate to a node-set. When I tried this - xNode.SelectSingleNode("@attr1[@attr1='1']") It always returns Nothing, even if the attribute has a value of 1. I have tried a lot of different things, but no luck yet. Please help. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • NamedPipeClientStream StreamReader problem in C++

    - by Chris Porter
    When reading from a NamedPipes server using the .net NamedPipeClientStream class I can only get the data on the first read in C++, every time it's just an empty string. In c# it works every time. pipeClient = gcnew NamedPipeClientStream(".", "Server_OUT", PipeDirection::In); try { pipeClient->Connect(); } catch(TimeoutException^ e) { // swallow } StreamReader^ sr = gcnew StreamReader(pipeClient); String^ temp; while (temp = sr->ReadLine()) { // = sr->ReadLine(); Console::WriteLine("Received from server: {0}", temp); } sr->Close();

    Read the article

  • How do I set the next available custom color in the ColorDialog?

    - by Hannah
    I'm currently coding in VB.net. A user places the cursor in a table cell and clicks on "Table Background Color" to edit the current background colour. Currently I have been able to detect the current colour (for instance a light blue) and set that colour in the ColorDialog (Colour swatches are correct and RGB values are correct). What I would like to do is enable the user to click on the "Add to Custom Colors" to save the colour. Problem is, it sets the first square in the custom colours area (which happens to already be filled in with another custom colour), rather than finding the next square that is white and set it there instead. Is this possible? If the user selects a new custom colour square when they first load the ColorDialog, the current colour (light blue) disappears and the colour swatches and RGB values are set as white. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Excluding standard directories from code coverage results with C++/CLI

    - by brickner
    I have a Visual Studio 2010 .NET 4 solution with C# projects and a C++/CLI project. I use Visual Studio's built in unit tests and code coverage. Other than the fact that Visual Studio 2010 coverage tool for C++/CLI projects seems to be much weaker than Visual Studio 2008 coverage tool, I get weird results. For example, I get uncovered code in this file: c:\program files (x86)\microsoft visual studio 10.0\vc\include\xstring And some other files in that directory. I want to exclude this code from coverage results. Is there a way to put some exclude attributes on that code? If not, is there a different automatic way to exclude that code from coverage? If not, is there a way to use EXCLUDE option to exclude it? Can it be done automatically within Visual Studio without running the coverage tool from command prompt? Any other solutions?

    Read the article

  • One repository per table or one per functional section?

    - by Ian Roke
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 2 and C# with Entity Framework 4.0 to code against a normalised SQL Server database. A part of my database structure contains a table of entries with foreign keys relating to sub-tables containing drivers, cars, engines, chassis etc. I am following the Nerd Dinner tutorial which sets up a repository for dinners which is fair enough. Do I do one for drivers, one for engines, one for cars and so on or do I do one big one for entries? Which is the best practise for this type of work? I am still new to this method of coding.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835  | Next Page >