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  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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  • Appending string in NSXMLNode

    - by iSight
    Hi, When I call the method setStringValue:mCurrentString when is encountered, the child elements which are already attached to element are detached. Can any one suggest why it is happening so. The sample XML file goes like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Version="1.0"> <Page Id="123-234-345-456-567"> <Word/> <Text Id="234-345-456-567-678" Left="120.789" Top="120.234657" Width="300.2390" Height="50.00"> <Content> <![CDATA[<FlowDocument FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="#FFFFFF00" TextAlignment="Left" PagePadding="5,0,5,0" AllowDrop="True" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation"><Paragraph><Run FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="FF00B38D" xml:lang="en-gb">This is for Testing purpose</Run></Paragraph>]]></Content> <Stroke Color="#FF00B300" Width="10"/> </Text> <Image Id="345-456-567-678-789" Left="200.345" Top="350.678" Width="200.00" Height="200.00"> <Source>Bear.png</Source> </Image> </Page> <Page Id="345-897-123-756-098" Left="100.90" Top="200.098" Width="200.098" Height="50.09"> <Image Id="756-098-978-685-298" Left="12098" Top="340.87" Right="109.78" Height="100.987"> <Source>Flower.png</Source> </Image> </Page> </Test> This is the method i am using for an NSXMLElement object: [mCurrentElement setStringValue:mCurrentString];// mCurrentString is the string that obtained through delegate method.

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  • PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

    - by andy-score
    I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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  • Attach Console to Service

    - by MemphiZ
    I currently have a WCF Service Library which will be started through a Console Application acting as ServiceHost. The ServiceHost starts the service and then waits with Console.ReadLine() for the "quit" command. If i do "Console.WriteLine();" in the service this will be printed to the ServiceHosts Console of course. The Service prints some information when the clients connect for example. Is it possible to have the ServiceHost converted to a real Windows Service (to start up when the machine boots without console window) and attach or detach a command prompt (cmd.exe) or another Console Application to it when needed? For example if I want so see which clients connect from now on? Thanks in advance!

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  • Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

    - by marcusstarnes
    I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • NSUserDefaults: Saved Number Always 0, iPhone

    - by Stumf
    Hello all, I have looked at other answers and the docs. Maybe I am missing something, or maybe I have another issue. I am trying to save a number on exiting the app, and then when the app is loaded I want to check if this value exists and take action accordingly. This is what I have tried: To save on exiting: - (void)applicationWillTerminate: (UIApplication *) application { double save = [label.text doubleValue]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setDouble: save forKey: @"savedNumber"]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } To check: - (IBAction)buttonclickSkip{ double save = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] doubleForKey: @"savedNumber"]; if (save == 0) { [self performSelector:@selector(displayAlert) withObject:nil]; test.enabled = YES; test.alpha = 1.0; skip.enabled = NO; skip.alpha = 0.0; } else { label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%.1f %%", save]; } } The problem is I always get my alert message displayed, the saved value is not put into the label so somehow == 0 is always true. If it makes any difference I am testing this on the iPhone simulator. Many thanks, Stu

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  • Nose2 multiprocess error on Windows7

    - by tt293
    I was looking into nose2 as a way to get around the restrictions of having both xunit output and multiprocessing in nose1.3. However, when always-on is set to False in the [multiprocess] section, I can only get a single process running, while when running with always-on set to True, I get the following error: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 0 tests in 0.043s OK Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\Scripts\nose2-script.py", line 8, in <module> load_entry_point('nose2==0.4.7', 'console_scripts', 'nose2')() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 284, in discover return main(*args, **kwargs) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ super(PluggableTestProgram, self).__init__(**kw) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\unittest2-0.5.1- py2.7.egg\unittest2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ self.runTests() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 260, in runTests self.result = runner.run(self.test) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\runner.py", line 53, in run executor(test, result) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\plugins\mp.py", line 60, in _runmp ready, _, _ = select.select(rdrs, [], [], self.testRunTimeout) select.error: (10038, 'An operation was attempted on something that is not a soc ket') This is running python 2.7.5 (32bit) on Windows 7 in a virtualenv with six-1.1.0, unittest2-0.5.1 and nose2-0.4.7 (I get the same behavior outside of the venv, so I don't think that is the issue here).

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  • How long do you keep session cookies around for?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm implementing a web app, which uses sessions. I'm using GWT and app engine as my client/server, but I don't think they're doing anything really different than I would do with PHP and apache etc. When a user logs into my web app, I am using HttpSession to start a session for them. I get the session id like this: // From my login servlet: getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false).getId(); I return the sessionId back to the client, and they store it in a cookie. The tutorial I'm using sets this cookie to 'expire' in two weeks: Cookie.write("sid", theSessionId, 1000 * 60 * 60 * 24 * 14); // two weeks Here's where I'm confused: if the cookie expires in two weeks, then my user will go along using the webapp happily, only to one day browse to my site and be shown a login screen. What are my options? Can I just set no expiration time for this cookie? That way the user would have to explicitly log out, otherwise they could just use the app forever without having to log back in? Or is there a better way to do this? I can't remember sites like Twitter having ever asked me to log back in again. I seem to be permanently logged in. Do they just set no expiration? The webapp isn't protecting any sort of highly sensitive data, so I don't mind leaving a cookie that doesn't expire, but it seems like there must be a better way? This is the tutorial I'm referencing: http://code.google.com/p/google-web-toolkit-incubator/wiki/LoginSecurityFAQ Thanks

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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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  • Is there a supplementary guide/answer key for ruby koans?

    - by corroded
    I have recently tried sharpening my rails skills with this tool: http://github.com/edgecase/ruby_koans but I am having trouble passing some tests. Also I am not sure if I'm doing some things correctly since the objective is just to pass the test, there are a lot of ways in passing it and I may be doing something that isn't up to standards. Is there a way to confirm if I'm doing things right? a specific example: in about_nil, def test_nil_is_an_object assert_equal __, nil.is_a?(Object), "Unlike NULL in other languages" end so is it telling me to check if that second clause is equal to an object(so i can say nil is an object) or just put assert_equal true, nil.is_a?(Object) because the statement is true? and the next test: def test_you_dont_get_null_pointer_errors_when_calling_methods_on_nil # What happens when you call a method that doesn't exist. The # following begin/rescue/end code block captures the exception and # make some assertions about it. begin nil.some_method_nil_doesnt_know_about rescue Exception => ex # What exception has been caught? assert_equal __, ex.class # What message was attached to the exception? # (HINT: replace __ with part of the error message.) assert_match(/__/, ex.message) end end Im guessing I should put a "No method error" string in the assert_match, but what about the assert_equal?

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  • derived class as default argument g++

    - by Vincent
    Please take a look at this code: template<class T> class A { class base { }; class derived : public A<T>::base { }; public: int f(typename A<T>::base& arg = typename A<T>::derived()) { return 0; } }; int main() { A<int> a; a.f(); return 0; } Compiling generates the following error message in g++: test.cpp: In function 'int main()': test.cpp:25: error: default argument for parameter of type 'A<int>::base&' has type 'A<int>::derived' The basic idea (using derived class as default value for base-reference-type argument) works in visual studio, but not in g++. I have to publish my code to the university server where they compile it with gcc. What can I do? Is there something I am missing?

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  • What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

    - by Douglas B. Staple
    I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

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  • POST XML to server, receive PDF

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Similar to this question, we are developing a Web app where the client clicks a button to receive a PDF from the server. Right now we're using the .ajax() method with jQuery to POST the data the backend needs to generate the PDF (we're sending XML) when the button is pressed, and then the backend is generating the PDF entirely in-memory and sending it back as application/pdf in the HTTP response. One answer to that question requires the server-side save the PDF to disk so it can give back a URL for the client to GET. But I don't want the backend caching content at all. The other answer suggests the use of a jQuery plugin, but when you look at its code, it's actually generating a form element and then submitting the form. That method will not work for us since we are sending XML data in the body of the HTTP request. Is there a way to have the browser open up the PDF without caching the PDF server-side, and without requiring us to throw out our send-data-to-the-server-using-XML solution? (I'd like the browser to behave like it does when a form element is submitted -- a POST is made and then the browser looks at the Content-type header to determine what to do next, like load the PDF in the browser window, a la Safari)

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  • How would i go about showing the closest paragraph element to a unique link with jQuery?

    - by Nike
    The title is a bit rusty, sorry about that. Now let me explain what i'm trying to do. I have a few listed items, like this: <li> <a id="toggle" class="0"><h4>ämne<small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="0">text</p> </li> <li class='odd'> <a id="toggle" class="1"><h4>test<small>2010-04-17 kl 15:01</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="1">test meddelande :) [a]http://youtube.com[/a]</p> </li> The function i'm trying to achieve, is that when a user clicks a "toggle" link (the h4 text), i want the paragraph element below it to fade in. I thought of the idea of giving both the toggle link and the paragraph the same class, and then somehow make it get the paragraph with the same class as the toggle link clicked, and show it? But i'm not entirely sure how to do that either, and tbh, it doesn't sound like the greatest idea, but maybe that's the only way? I don't know... Is there some way to just simply get the nearest paragraph (below the link) with the id "meddel" and fade it in? That sounds a bit easier... I hope you can at least give me a few hints. Thanks in advance, -Nike

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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  • Why Android for enterprise applications?

    - by mcabral
    Recently one of our clients is considering the posibility of picking up an old WinMobile 5.0 project. Several features are to be added to the point it will be a major version update. The client is worried about the mobile market, and thinks there's a chance all the effort put in this development will have to be thrown away in a couple of year due to the dinamics of the mobile market and the deprecation of mobile devices. So, the client is not sure whether he should continue with Windows Mobile (changing from WM 5.0 to 6.X) or starting from scratch with another technology. From our part we have been studing the mobile market, looking for clues for which will be the winning horse. The safe move seems to continue with WM just because re writing an entire application from scratch involves more risks and delays. On the other hand WM seems to be losing market and the ghost of an exit on their part is growing stronger everyday. But what can be say about Android? Everyone is talking about it and is growing at full speed but what avantagies will it bring to the table? Why should we start a fresh applicaction on this technology? So the question remains the same.. is Andriod mature enough for an enterprise application? Will you recomend it to one of your clients? Will you port/rewrite a WM application to Andriod? What's the trade-off? EDIT: Addressing commentaries. The app is entirely built with C# and Compact Framework. The app is for logistics/management.

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  • NUnit integration programmatically with spring

    - by harkon
    Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

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  • How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

    - by AR
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

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  • Dynamic stack allocation in C++

    - by Poni
    I want to allocate memory on the stack. Heard of _alloca / alloca and I understand that these are compiler-specific stuff, which I don't like. So, I came-up with my own solution (which might have it's own flaws) and I want you to review/improve it so for once and for all we'll have this code working: /*#define allocate_on_stack(pointer, size) \ __asm \ { \ mov [pointer], esp; \ sub esp, [size]; \ }*/ /*#define deallocate_from_stack(size) \ __asm \ { \ add esp, [size]; \ }*/ void test() { int buff_size = 4 * 2; char *buff = 0; __asm { // allocate mov [buff], esp; sub esp, [buff_size]; } // playing with the stack-allocated memory for(int i = 0; i < buff_size; i++) buff[i] = 0x11; __asm { // deallocate add esp, [buff_size]; } } void main() { __asm int 3h; test(); } Compiled with VC9. What flaws do you see in it? Me for example, not sure that subtracting from ESP is the solution for "any kind of CPU". Also, I'd like to make the commented-out macros work but for some reason I can't.

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  • How should I name a native DLL distributed in both 32-bit and 64-bit form?

    - by Spike0xff
    I have a commercial product that's a DLL (native 32-bit code), and now it's time to build a 64-bit version of it. So when installing on 64-bit Windows, the 32-bit version goes into Windows\SysWOW64, and the 64-bit version goes into... Windows\System32! (I'm biting my tongue here...) Or the DLL(s) can be installed alongside the client application. What should I name the 64-bit DLL? Same name as 32-bit: Two files that do the same thing, have the same name, but are totally non-interchangeable. Isn't that a recipe for confusion and support problems? Different names (e.g. product.dll and product64.dll): Now client applications have to know whether they are running 32-bit or 64-bit in order to reference my DLL, and there are languages where that isn't known until run-time - .NET being just one example. And now all the statically compiled clients have to conditionalize the import declarations: IF target=WIN64 THEN import Blah from "product64.dll" ELSE import Blah from "product.dll" ENDIF The product contains massive amounts of C code, and a large chunk of C++ - porting it to C# is not an option. Advice? Suggestions?

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  • CoInitialize fails in dll

    - by Quandary
    Question: I have the following program, which uses COM to use the Microsoft Speech API (SAPI) to take a text and output it as sound. Now it works fine as long as I have it in a .exe. When I load it as .dll, it fails. Why? I used dependencywalker, and saw the exe doesn't have MSVCR100D and ole32, so I loaded them like this: LoadLibraryA("MSVCR100D.DLL"); LoadLibraryA("ole32.dll"); but it didn't help... Any idea why ? #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include <cstdlib> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; if (FAILED(::CoInitialize(NULL))) return FALSE; HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Noobie was fragged by GSG9 Googlebot", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Test Test", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"This sounds normal <pitch middle = '-10'/> but the pitch drops half way through", SPF_IS_XML, NULL ); pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } ::CoUninitialize(); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

    - by Adrian Serafin
    Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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  • Little help with some (simple) Javascript code

    - by lerac
    I'm a newb when it comes to javascript. Perhaps somebody could help me with this. I assume it is not very complicated. This is what I would like: <SCRIPT type=text/javascript> var StandardURL = "http://site/Lists/test/AllItems.aspx"; </script> <SCRIPT type=text/javascript> var FilterURL = "http://site/Lists/test//AllItems.aspx?FilterField1=Judge&FilterValue1="; </script> var DynamicURL = FilterURL + DynamicUserInf (no space between it should be like one url link), dynamicuserinf contains different value depending on the user that is logged in no need to worry what is in it. It already contains a value befor this runs Get current URL in [var CurrentURL] <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> if (CurrentURL == StandardURL) { location.href= (DynamicURL);} </script> ElSE do nothing (i assume this is not neccarry with only one if statement) Hopefully not much of a mess.

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  • Unit Testing-- fundamental goal?

    - by David
    Me and my co-workers had a bit of a disagreement last night about unit testing in our PHP/MySQL application. Half of us argued that when unit testing a function within a class, you should mock everything outside of that class and its parents. The other half of us argued that you SHOULDN'T mock anything that is a direct dependancy of the class either. The specific example was our logging mechanism, which happened through a static Logging class, and we had a number of Logging::log() calls in various locations throughout our application. The first half of us said the Logging mechanism should be faked (mocked) because it would be tested in the Logging unit tests. The second half of us argued that we should include the original Logging class in our unit test so that if we make a change to our logging interface, we'll be able to see if it creates problems in other parts of the application due to failing to update the call interface. So I guess the fundamental question is-- do unit tests serve to test the functionality of a single unit in a closed environment, or show the consequences of changes to a single unit in a larger environment? If it's one of these, how do you accomplish the other?

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  • How to repeatedly show a Dialog with PyGTK / Gtkbuilder?

    - by Julian
    I have created a PyGTK application that shows a Dialog when the user presses a button. The dialog is loaded in my __init__ method with: builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file("filename") builder.connect_signals(self) self.myDialog = builder.get_object("dialog_name") In the event handler, the dialog is shown with the command self.myDialog.run(), but this only works once, because after run() the dialog is automatically destroyed. If I click the button a second time, the application crashes. I read that there is a way to use show() instead of run() where the dialog is not destroyed, but I feel like this is not the right way for me because I would like the dialog to behave modally and to return control to the code only after the user has closed it. Is there a simple way to repeatedly show a dialog using the run() method using gtkbuilder? I tried reloading the whole dialog using the gtkbuilder, but that did not really seem to work, the dialog was missing all child elements (and I would prefer to have to use the builder only once, at the beginning of the program). [SOLUTION] As pointed out by the answer below, using hide() does the trick. But one has to take care that the dialog is in fact destroyed if one does not catch its "delete-event". A simple example that works is: import pygtk import gtk class DialogTest: def rundialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.show_all() result = self.dia.run() def destroy(self, widget, data=None): gtk.main_quit() def closedialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.hide() return True def __init__(self): self.window = gtk.Window(gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.window.connect("destroy", self.destroy) self.dia = gtk.Dialog('TEST DIALOG', self.window, gtk.DIALOG_MODAL | gtk.DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT) self.dia.vbox.pack_start(gtk.Label('This is just a Test')) self.dia.connect("delete-event", self.closedialog) self.button = gtk.Button("Run Dialog") self.button.connect("clicked", self.rundialog, None) self.window.add(self.button) self.button.show() self.window.show() if __name__ == "__main__": testApp = DialogTest() gtk.main()

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