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  • Testing InlineFormset clean methods

    - by Rory
    I have a Django project, with 2 models, a Structure and Bracket, the Bracket has a ForeignKey to a Structure (i.e. one-to-many, one Structure has many Brackets). I created a TabularInline for the admin site, so that there would be a table of Brackets on the Structure. I added a custom formset with some a custom clean method to do some extra validation, you can't have a Bracket that conflicts with another Bracket on the same Structure etc. The admin looks like this: class BracketInline(admin.TabularInline): model = Bracket formset = BracketInlineFormset class StructureAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = [ BracketInline ] admin.site.register(Structure, StructureAdmin) That all works, and the validation works. However now I want to write some unittest to test my complex formset validation logic. My first attempt to validate known-good values is: data = {'form-TOTAL_FORMS': '1', 'form-INITIAL_FORMS': '0', 'form-MAX_NUM_FORMS': '', 'form-0-field1':'good-value', … } formset = BracketInlineFormset(data) self.assertTrue(formset.is_valid()) However that doesn't work and raises the exception: ====================================================================== ERROR: testValid (appname.tests.StructureTestCase) ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Traceback (most recent call last): File "/paht/to/project/tests.py", line 494, in testValid formset = BracketInlineFormset(data) File "/path/to/django/forms/models.py", line 672, in __init__ self.instance = self.fk.rel.to() AttributeError: 'BracketInlineFormset' object has no attribute 'fk' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- The Django documentation (for formset validation) implies one can do this. How come this isn't working? How do I test the custom clean()/validation for my inline formset?

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • Load SQL query result data into cache in advance

    - by Marc
    I have the following situation: .net 3.5 WinForm client app accessing SQL Server 2008 Some queries returning relatively big amount of data are used quite often by a form Users are using local SQL Express and restarting their machines at least daily Other users are working remotely over slow network connections The problem is that after a restart, the first time users open this form the queries are extremely slow and take more or less 15s on a fast machine to execute. Afterwards the same queries take only 3s. Of course this comes from the fact that no data is cached and must be loaded from disk first. My question: Would it be possible to force the loading of the required data in advance into SQL Server cache? Note My first idea was to execute the queries in a background worker when the application starts, so that when the user starts the form the queries will already be cached and execute fast directly. I however don't want to load the result of the queries over to the client as some users are working remotely or have otherwise slow networks. So I thought just executing the queries from a stored procedure and putting the results into temporary tables so that nothing would be returned. Turned out that some of the result sets are using dynamic columns so I couldn't create the corresponding temp tables and thus this isn't a solution. Do you happen to have any other idea?

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  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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  • Greasemonkey script not executed when unusual content loading is being used

    - by Sam Brightman
    I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script for Facebook and having some trouble with the funky page/content loading that they do (I don't quite understand this - a lot of the links are actually just changing the GET, but I think they do some kind of server redirect to make the URL look the same to the browser too?). Essentially the only test required is putting a GM_log() on its own in the script. If you click around Facebook, even with facebook.com/* as the pattern, it is often not executed. Is there anything I can do, or is the idea of a "page load" fixed in Greasemonkey, and FB is "tricking" it into not running by using a single URL? If I try to do some basic content manipulation like this: GM.log("starting"); var GM_FB=new Object; GM_FB.birthdays = document.evaluate("//div[@class='UIUpcoming_Item']", document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (i = GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotLength - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (GM_FB.birthdayRegex.test(GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).innerHTML)) { GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).setAttribute('style','font-weight: bold; background: #fffe88'); } } The result is that sometimes only a manual page refresh will make it work. Pulling up the Firebug console and forcing the code to run works fine. Note that this isn't due to late loading of certain parts of the DOM: I have adding some code later to wait for the relevant elements and, crucially, the message never gets logged for certain transitions. For example, when I switch from Messages to News Feed and back.

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  • HttpUtility.HtmlEncode doesn't encode everything

    - by Anthony
    I am interacting with a web server using a desktop client program in C# and .Net 3.5. I am using Fiddler to see what traffic the web browser sends, and emulate that. Sadly this server is old, and is a bit confused about the notions of charsets and utf-8. Mostly it uses Latin-1. When I enter data into the Web browser containing "special" chars, like "O p ? 8 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?" fiddler show me that they are being transmitted as follows from browser to server: "&#9800; &#9801; &#9802; &#9803; &#9804; &#9805; &#9806; &#9807; &#9808; &#9809; &#9810; &#9811; " But for my client, HttpUtility.HtmlEncode does not convert these characters, it leaves them as is. What do I need to call to convert "?" to &#9800; and so on?

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  • Saving an active record, in what order are the associated objects saved?

    - by Bryan
    In rails, when saving an active_record object, its associated objects will be saved as well. But has_one and has_many association have different order in saving objects. I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I expected that when team.save is called, team should be saved before its associated coach and players. I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid I figured out that team.save! saves objects in the following order: 1) players, 2) team, and 3) coach. This is why I got the error: When a player is saved, team doesn't yet have a id, so validates_presence_of :team_id fails in player. Can someone explain to me why objects are saved in this order? This seems not logical to me.

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  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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  • Javascript check of a form, not waiting for ajax response

    - by Y.G.J
    this is a part of the check in my form function check(theform) { var re = /^\w[0-9A-Za-z]{5,19}$/; if (!re.test(theform.username.value)) { alert("not valid username"); theform.username.focus(); return false; } $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "username.asp", data: "username="+theform.username.value, success: function(msg){ username = msg; if (!username) { alert("username already in use"); return false; } } }); var re = /^\w[0-9A-Za-z]{5,19}$/; if (!re.test(theform.password.value)) { alert("not valid password"); theform.password.focus(); return false; } } for some reason of sync... it check the username then duplicated username with the ajax and not waiting for respond and jump to the password check. i don't want to insert the rest of the code to isreadystate (or what ever it is) because i might move the username duplicate check to the end... and then the function will end before the ajax anyway what should i do?

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  • JSF dynamic ui:include

    - by Ray
    In my app I have tutor and student as roles of user. And I decide that main page for both will be the same. But menu will be different for tutors and users. I made to .xhtml page tutorMenu.xhtml and student.xhtml. And want in dependecy from role include menu. For whole page I use layout and just in every page change content "content part" in ui:composition. In menu.xhtml <h:body> <ui:composition> <div class="menu_header"> <h2> <h:outputText value="#{msg['menu.title']}" /> </h2> </div> <div class="menu_content"> <?:if test="#{authenticationBean.user.role.roleId eq '2'}"> <ui:include src="/pages/content/body/student/studentMenu.xhtml"/> </?:if> <?:if test= "#{authenticationBean.user.role.roleId eq '1'}"> <ui:include src="/pages/content/body/tutor/tutorMenu.xhtml" /> </?:if> </div> </ui:composition> I know that using jstl my be not better solution but I can't find other. What is the best decision of my problem?

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • Same code, not the same place, different results

    - by Tom
    Hi! I'm trying to something pretty simple but I don't understand why the second bit of code is giving me a bad access error... First: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Tom: Converting the row int to a string and adding 1 to it so that the rows fit with the array indexes.) NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); cell.textLabel.text = [array objectAtIndex:1]; return cell; } That code gives me exactly what I want: 2010-03-18 15:18:12.884 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 1 2010-03-18 15:18:12.885 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 7, Blessures ) 2010-03-18 15:18:12.892 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 2 2010-03-18 15:18:12.893 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 18, "Test 2" ) But then, the second: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); } Is only able to get me the key, but the description of the array makes it crash... tableDataSource is a NSMutableDictionary containing multiple arrays... Like this: { 1 = ( 7, Blessures ); 2 = ( 18, "Test 2" ); } Do you have any clue? I've been looking at this since yesterday... Thanks! Tom

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  • What if you used the wrong language?

    - by HS
    A reply to another question made me remember a project from some years ago when it turned out that Java was not the right tool to use. I typically only learn a new language when I have a problem that it solves better than the ones I already know. [...] Then I write whatever program I wanted to learn that language for in the first place. [...] By the time I've gotten my target program written, I've usually got a decent handle on the language, not to mention any other features it has, and I've got other ideas to use it for. I did just that back then with Java, because the client thought it to be the right language to use (platform independent) and initial evaluation confirmed that. However, much later in the project there were some issue (can't really remember all the details by now). So, the project that started as a nice learning experience turned into a nightmare toward the end. I was at the brink of switching over to my trusted C++ and doing a complete rewrite. The client was not so much of a problem to convince back then, but my supervisor was strongly opposed because of all the work that already went into the Java version. In hindsight, he was right and the project was complete more or less with the intended features kind of working, but it was the project that I am least proud of by now. Long story short: what do you think, when is it too much and the switch to another technology is worthwhile? I personally would estimate the point of no return to be around 50% of the planned effort, but really want to know, if anyone has real experience with such a switch. And to answer the inevitable question: I do not really care, if the technology switched to is proven or another new thing. The latter would basically need more initial scrutiny based on the past experiences in the problematic project.

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  • jquery post and get request different on local intranet and live server

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, I have been developing an asp.net mvc application where i need to make large amounts of jquery post and get request to call controller methods and get back json result. Everything is working fine. The problem is i had to write different jquery post and get request url on local intranet(deployed by making virtual directory) and live server. the current jquery request url is given as below: $.post("/ProjectsChat/GetMessages", { roomId: 24 },.......... now this format of url for jquery request works fine for live server but not for local intranet. Since on local intranet i have made a virtual directory. It only works when i append the name of the virtual directory like this "$.post("MyProjectVirutalDirName/ProjectsChat..................." I am sure most of you must have come across same problem. now i have made a full project, there are large number of jquery requests made, i want to test the application by deploying on local intranet and fix the bugs. Changing all the jquery requests for local intranet doesn't seem feasible solution to me, i am really in a big problem, i can't deploy the same project on live server just like that and test it there, client will kill me. I need some expert advice. Please help Thanks

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  • Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

    - by OUHSD Webmaster
    Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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  • Removing UITextField from superview does not make it disappear on screen

    - by moshy
    I have the following code // Breakpoint here [label removeFromSuperview]; [label release]; label = nil; stepping through it with the debugger outputs (gdb) po [self subviews] <NSCFArray 0x476af70>( <UIImageView: 0x47581a0; frame = (0 0; 232 81); opaque = NO; autoresize = W+H; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x476b3d0>>, <UILabel: 0x4758870; frame = (15 11; 202 56); text = 'Test'; clipsToBounds = YES; autoresize = W+H; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x476b590>> ) (gdb) po label <UILabel: 0x4758870; frame = (15 11; 202 56); text = 'Test'; clipsToBounds = YES; autoresize = W+H; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x476b590>> (gdb) n (gdb) n (gdb) n (gdb) po [self subviews] <NSCFArray 0x478c4e0>( <UIImageView: 0x47581a0; frame = (0 0; 232 81); opaque = NO; autoresize = W+H; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x476b3d0>> ) Yet it is still visible, it does not disappear. Not even if I do [self setNeedsDisplay] immediately after. Has anyone else come across this? Is it a bug in the SDK or am I missing something?

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  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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  • PHP gettext on Windows

    - by Axsuul
    There's some tutorials out there for gettext (w/ Poedit)... unfortunately, it's mostly for a UNIX environment. And even more unfortunate is that I am running my WAMP server on Windows XP (but I am developing for a UNIX environment) and none of the tutorials can get gettext working properly for me. From the man page (http://us3.php.net/manual/en/book.gettext.php), it appears that it's a different process on a Windows environment. I've tried out some of the solutions in the comments but I still can't get it to work! Please, I've spent many hours on this, hopefully someone can point me in the right direction to get this thing to work! (and I'm sure there are others out there who share my frustration). So far with my setup, I'm only getting output "Hello World!" whereas I should be getting the translated string. Here is my setup/code so far: <?php // test.php if (!defined('LC_MESSAGES')) { define('LC_MESSAGES', 6); } $locale = "deu_DEU"; // apparently the locales are different on a WINDOWS platform putenv("LC_ALL=$locale"); setlocale(LC_ALL, $locale); bindtextdomain("greetings", ".\locale"); textdomain("greetings"); echo _("Hello World"); ?> Folder structure root: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www test.php: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site .po: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.po .mo: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.mo Please advise! Thanks for your time :)

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  • reload parent from within iframe

    - by Lauren
    I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe... I've looked around at similar questions' answers but nothing has worked so far. The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in, then hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe (You have updated your shipper number(s). The page should refresh automatically. If not, please refresh and return to "order sample.") before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe but there doesn't seem to be any great way to test this out.

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • .Net 4.0 Is There a Business Layer "Technology" ?

    - by Ronny
    Hi, I have a theoretical question about the .net framework. As I see it Microsoft gave us bunch of technologies for different layers. We have the ADO.NET and with the more improved Entity Framework for Data Access. And ASP.NET for WEB UI. And even WCF for Facade and SOA. But what in the middle, what do we have for the Business Layer? Is it just Referenced DLLs? How do we deal with the Application Pulling this days? I remember using COM+ 10 yeas ago because the IIS couldn't handle the pressure. Is Spring.Net is the best option available for injection? Thanks, Ronny

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  • Clickonce redirect

    - by David Hagan
    Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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  • Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts?

    - by Gerrit
    Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts? I own a desktop, laptop, iPod, smartphone and a web-client all downloading StackOverflow Podcasts. (among others) They all tell me which episodes are available and which are already played. Everything is a horrible mess, ofcourse. My iPod is somewhat in sync with my desktop, but everything else is a random jungle. The same problem with e-mail is solved by IMAP. Every device gets content and meta-information from one server, and stays in sync with it. Per device, I can set preferences (do or do not download the complete archive including junkmail). Can we implement the IMAP approach for podcasts? Or is there a better metaphore/standard to solve this problem? How will the adoption-strategy look like? (by the way: except for the Windows smartphone, I own a full Apple-stack of products. Even then, I run into this problem) UPDATE The RSS-to-Imap link to sourceforge looks promesting, but very alpha/experimental. UPDATE 2 The one thing RSS is missing is the command/method/parameter/attribute to delete/unread items. RSS can only add, not remove. If RSS(N+1) (3?) could add a value for unread="true|false", it would be solved. If I cache all my RSS-feeds on my own server, and add the attribute myself, I only would have to convince iTunes and every other client to respect that.

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