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  • C# drawing and invalidating 2 lines to meet

    - by BlueMonster
    If i have 2 lines on a page as such: e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w, h, h, w); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); how would i animate the first line to reach the second line's position? I have the following method which calculates the distance between two points (i'm assuming i would use this?) public int Distance2D(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { // ______________________ //d = &#8730; (x2-x1)^2 + (y2-y1)^2 // //Our end result int result = 0; //Take x2-x1, then square it double part1 = Math.Pow((x2 - x1), 2); //Take y2-y1, then sqaure it double part2 = Math.Pow((y2 - y1), 2); //Add both of the parts together double underRadical = part1 + part2; //Get the square root of the parts result = (int)Math.Sqrt(underRadical); //Return our result return result; } How would i re-draw the line (on a timer) to reach the second line's position? I've looked a lot into XAML (story-boarding) and such - but i want to know how to do this on my own. Any ideas? I know i would need a method which runs in a loop re-drawing the line after moving the position a tid bit. I would have to call Invalidate() in order to make the line appear as though it's moving... but how would i do this? how would i move that line slowly over to the other line? I'm pretty sure i'd have to use double buffering if i'm doing this as well... as such: SetStyle(ControlStyles.DoubleBuffer | ControlStyles.AllPaintingInWmPaint | ControlStyles.UserPaint, true); This doesn't quiet work, i'm not quiet sure how to fix it. Any ideas? protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Distance2D(w, h, w2, h2); if (w2 != w && h2 != h) { e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, (w * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (w * (int)frame)); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); } else { t.Abort(); } base.OnPaint(e); } public void MoveLine() { for (int i = 0; i < 126; i++) { frame += .02; Invalidate(); Thread.Sleep(30); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MoveLine)); t.Start(); }

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  • Calling a JAVA method from C++ with JNI, no parameters

    - by PRNDL Development Studios
    Please bear with me, I am an iPhone developer and this whole android this confuses me a bit. I have some c++ methods that are called from a cocos2d-x CCMenuItem. Therefore I cannot send any parameters, according to the docs. I need to open a url with the android browser which will require me to call a JAVA function to start a new intent. I understand that I need to create a VM, however the below code gives me the error: jni/../../Classes/MyClass.cpp:184: error: 'JNI_CreateJavaVM' was not declared in this scope I was looking at this thread: Calling a java method from c++ in Android But he uses parameters, and I can't do that. And I don't see where those are in his code to just make them myself. I don't know what the string should be in the 'Find Class' method. Also, I assume it is pretty terrible to create a new VM instance in every method I need to call. How would I create one as a singleton to use across the board? This is my c++ code called by my menu item: #include <jni.h> ... JavaVM *vm; // Global ... void OptionsScene::website(){ JNIEnv *env; JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_2; vm_args.nOptions = 0; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = 1; jint result = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&vm, (void **)&env, &vm_args); // This line still errors jclass clazz = env->FindClass("com/prndl/project/WebExecute"); jmethodID method = env->GetMethodID(clazz, "website", "(Ljava/lang/String;)V"); env->CallVoidMethod(NULL,method); vm->DestroyJavaVM(); And this is the JAVA Method that I need to call: public class WebExecute extends Activity{ public void website(){ Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://www.google.com")); startActivity(browserIntent); } } Honestly, I am struggling with this, any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Javascript table construction bug using JQuery in Firefox on Mac OSX

    - by Poita_
    I'm using some code to build up tables using JQuery, but in Firefox 3.5.3 on Mac OSX, the table cells all appear on separate lines by themselves, instead of in their respective rows. Chrome 5.0.342.7 beta on OSX correctly produces the table, as does Safari 4.0.5. Here is a minimal reproduction case: <html> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var b = $('body'); b.append("<table>"); for (var i = 0; i < 3; ++i) { b.append("<tr>"); for (var j = 0; j < 3; ++j) b.append("<td>x</td>"); b.append("</tr>"); } b.append("</table>"); }); </script> </body> </html> In Chrome and Safari, I get this correct output: x x x x x x x x x but Firefox produces: x x x x x x x x x Note that if I manually create that exact table without using Javascript (i.e. direct into the HTML) then the table appears correctly in Firefox. Also, if I change the JS to append then entire table in one call then it also works -- the only time it doesn't work is if you append it part-by-part as I have done before. My question is: is this to be expected, or should I report this as a bug to Firefox? I'm pretty sure this is a Firefox bug, but I'm a bit of a newbie to JS and web development in general, so perhaps there's something I'm missing? P.S. obviously there are easy ways to get around this -- that's not my concern. See above.

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  • PHP MySQL Zend-ACL - Find all inherited items (Children / Parents)

    - by Scoobler
    I have one MySQL DB table like the following, the resources table: id | name | type 1 | guest | user 2 | member | user 3 | moderator | user 4 | owner | user 5 | admin | user 6 | index | controller Onto the next table, the rules table: id | user_id | rule | resource_id | extras 1 | 2 | 3 | 1 | null 2 | 3 | 3 | 2 | null 3 | 4 | 3 | 3 | null 4 | 5 | 3 | 4 | null 5 | 6 | 1 | 1 | index,login,register 6 | 6 | 2 | 2 | login,register 7 | 6 | 1 | 2 | logout OK, sorry for the length, but I am trying to give a full picture of what I am trying to do. So the way it works, a role (aka user) can be granted (rule: 1) access to a controller, a role can inherit (rule: 3) access from another role or a role and be denied (rule: 2) access to a controller. (A user is a resource and a controller is a resource) Access to actions are granted / denied using the extras column. This all works, its not a problem with setting up the ACL within zend. What I am now trying to do is show the relationships; to do that I need to find the lowest level a role is granted access to a controller stopping if it has explicitly been removed. I plan on listing the roles. When I click a role, I want it to show all the controllers that role has access to. Then clicking on a controller shows the actions the role is allowed to do. So in the example above, a guest is allowed to view the index action of the index controller along with the login action. A member inherits the same access, but is then denied access to the login action and register action. A moderator inherits the rules of a member. So if I were to select the role moderator. I want to see the controller index listed. If I click on the controller, it should show the allowed actions as being action: index. (which was originally granted to the guest, but hasn't since been dissallowed) Is there any examples to doing this. I am obviously working with the Zend MVC (PHP) and MySQL. Even just a persudo code example would be a helpful starting point - this is one of the last parts of the jigsaw I am putting together. P.S. Obviously I have the ACL object - is it going to be easier to interigate that or is it better to do it my self via PHP/MySQL? The aim will be, show what a role can access which will then allow me to add or edit a role, controller and action in a GUI style (that is somewhat the easy bit) - currently I am updating the DB manually as I have been building the site.

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  • sub menu border calls onmouseout event

    - by insanepaul
    I've created a simple menu and submenu with tags(not allowed to use ul elements). To access the submenu the user hovers their mouse over the menu item. I use the onmouseover and onmouseout events to either show or hide the sub menu depending on which item is selected. A pipe (|) is used to seperate each submenu item and this is what is causing me problems. When a user hovers their mouse above the pipe character the subMenu div calls the onmouseout event which is not what I want. So I added padding around the pipe character and a minus margin so that there were no gaps between the pipe character and the other elements. This worked for all browsers including IE8. But in IE7 (I haven't tested IE6 yet) the submenu div calls the onmouseout event when I touch the top bit of either the left or right border of the pipe character span element. <div id="subMenu" onmouseout="hideSubMenu()" > <div id="opinionSubMenu" onmouseover="showOpinionSubMenu()"> <a id="Blogs" href="HTMLNew.htm">BLOGS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Comments" href="HTMLNew.htm">COMMENTS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Views" href="HTMLNew.htm">VIEWS</a> </div> <div id="learningSubMenu" onmouseover="showLearningSubMenu()"> <a id="Articles" href="HTMLNew.htm">ARTICLES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="CoursesCases" href="HTMLNew.htm">COURSES & CASES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="PracticeImpact" href="HTMLNew.htm">PRACTICE IMPACT</a> </div> </div> This is my css class #subMenu{ padding:10px 0px; background-color:#F58F2D; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; font-family:Lucida Sans Unicode; font-size:14px; float:left; width:100%; display:none;} #Blogs, #Comments, #Views, #Articles { padding:10px 5px; background:none repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; color:#000000; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; border:solid 1px black;} #Blogs:hover, #Comments:hover, #Views:hover, #Articles:hover{ color:#ffffff; text-decoration:none;} .SubMenuDelimiter{ padding:10px 5px; margin:10px -5px;}

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  • [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

    - by Guillaume Gervais
    I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

    - by Guzba
    I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

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  • iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

    - by donkim
    Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

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  • Hacking "Contact Form 7" code to Add A "Referred By" field

    - by Scott B
    I've got about 6 subdomains that have a "contact us" link and I'm sending all these links to a single form that uses "Contact Form 7". I add ?from=site-name to each of the links so that I can set a $referredFrom variable in the contact form. The only two things I'm missing are (1) the ability to insert this referredFrom variable into the email that I get whenever someone submits the form and (2) The ability to redirect the user back to the site they came from (stored in $referredFrom) Any ideas? Here's a bit of code from includes/classes.php that I thought might be part of the email insert but its not doing much... function mail() { global $referrer; $refferedfrom = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE $fes = $this->form_scan_shortcode(); foreach ( $fes as $fe ) { $name = $fe['name']; $pipes = $fe['pipes']; if ( empty( $name ) ) continue; $value = $_POST[$name]; if ( WPCF7_USE_PIPE && is_a( $pipes, 'WPCF7_Pipes' ) && ! $pipes->zero() ) { if ( is_array( $value) ) { $new_value = array(); foreach ( $value as $v ) { $new_value[] = $pipes->do_pipe( $v ); } $value = $new_value; } else { $value = $pipes->do_pipe( $value ); } } $this->posted_data[$name] = $value; $this->posted_data[$refferedfrom] = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE } I'm also thinking that I could insert the referredFrom code somewhere in this function as well... function compose_and_send_mail( $mail_template ) { $regex = '/\[\s*([a-zA-Z][0-9a-zA-Z:._-]*)\s*\]/'; $callback = array( &$this, 'mail_callback' ); $mail_subject = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['subject'] ); $mail_sender = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['sender'] ); $mail_body = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['body'] ); $mail_recipient = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['recipient'] ); $mail_headers = "From: $mail_sender\n"; if ( $mail_template['use_html'] ) $mail_headers .= "Content-Type: text/html\n"; $mail_additional_headers = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['additional_headers'] ); $mail_headers .= trim( $mail_additional_headers ) . "\n"; if ( $this->uploaded_files ) { $for_this_mail = array(); foreach ( $this->uploaded_files as $name => $path ) { if ( false === strpos( $mail_template['attachments'], "[${name}]" ) ) continue; $for_this_mail[] = $path; } return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers, $for_this_mail ); } else { return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers ); } }

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

    - by Khorkrak
    So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inheriting from ProfileBase

    - by Glen
    I have 2 related issues. I inherited from ProfileBase and I have a couple of properites as such public SomeType PropertyName { get { return (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; Save(); } } I also have a User class (UserId, UserName, Profile, LastActivityDate) that has 2 additional properties out of the profile that I retrieve in my View to show a list of Users (i.e. @Model.Profile.PropertyName). However, everytime I access a property (from my View) it seems to update the LastActivityDate in the aspnet_Users table because when I show the LastActivityDate as well as the profile properties on my screen the LastActivtyDate is out of sync with the database. Also there is a LastActivityDate property available in my profile which unfortunately is not available and is in fact set to null and throws an exception when accessing it saying the property UserName is null. So the static Create method provided by ProfileBase seems to retrieve the correct profile properties but does not set the base's UserName property even though you pass in a UserName parameter to the Create method. Is this a internal bug? I was kind of hoping if by accessing the property because the LastActivityDate is updated then I could store that value to update my LastActivityDate in my User class before it is rendered to the page. The only way I can think of doing it is: public SomeType PropertyName { get { SomeType result = (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; OnLastActivityDateChanged(); return result; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; } } then in my User class: ... public MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged += Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ~MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged -= Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ... void Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Run a query to get the latest LastActivityDate this.LastActivityDate = ... } It seems I have to make 1 call to retrieve the full list to my aspnet_Users table then another call for each row just to get the latest activity date. ARGGGGHHH!!! Am I going about this the wrong way! I put an ajax refresh hyperlink next to each User row and when I click it, immediately after loading the page, the value changes. Therefore my suspision is valid that calling a property via the inherited profilebase class updates the value. Is there a workaround? It is a bit miss leading when my page says User Smith has no activity for 4 days then I click my ajax refresh link (or refresh the whole page for that matter) and now it says Smith was active but it was just me meally showing the page that indirectly caused an activity read event.

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  • How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

    - by Alex
    Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

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  • PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

    - by Foo
    I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • C++ Vector vs Array (Time)

    - by vsha041
    I have got here two programs with me, both are doing exactly the same task. They are just setting an boolean array / vector to the value true. The program using vector takes 27 seconds to run whereas the program involving array with 5 times greater size takes less than 1 s. I would like to know the exact reason as to why there is such a major difference ? Are vectors really that inefficient ? Program using vectors #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <ctime> using namespace std; int main(){ const int size = 2000; time_t start, end; time(&start); vector<bool> v(size); for(int i = 0; i < size; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < size; j++){ v[i] = true; } } time(&end); cout<<difftime(end, start)<<" seconds."<<endl; } Runtime - 27 seconds Program using Array #include <iostream> #include <ctime> using namespace std; int main(){ const int size = 10000; // 5 times more size time_t start, end; time(&start); bool v[size]; for(int i = 0; i < size; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < size; j++){ v[i] = true; } } time(&end); cout<<difftime(end, start)<<" seconds."<<endl; } Runtime - < 1 seconds Platform - Visual Studio 2008 OS - Windows Vista 32 bit SP 1 Processor Intel(R) Pentium(R) Dual CPU T2370 @ 1.73GHz Memory (RAM) 1.00 GB Thanks Amare

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  • Database design advice needed.

    - by user346271
    Hi all, I'm a lone developer for a telecoms company, and am after some database design advice from anyone with a bit of time to answer. I am inserting into one table ~2 million rows each day, these tables then get archived and compressed on a monthly basis. Each monthly table contains ~15,000,000 rows. Although this is increasing month on month. For every insert I do above I am combining the data from rows which belong together and creating another "correlated" table. This table is currently not being archived, as I need to make sure I never miss an update to the correlated table. (Hope that makes sense) Although in general this information should remain fairly static after a couple of days of processing. All of the above is working perfectly. However my company now wishes to perform some stats against this data, and these tables are getting too large to provide the results in what would be deemed a reasonable time. Even with the appropriate indexes set. So I guess after all the above my question is quite simple. Should I write a script which groups the data from my correlated table into smaller tables. Or should I store the queries result sets in something like memcache? I'm already using mysqls cache, but due to having limited control over how long the data is stored for, it's not working ideally. The main advantages I can see of using something like memcache: No blocking on my correlated table after the query has been cashed. Greater flexibility of sharing the collected data between the backend collector and front end processor. (i.e custom reports could be written in the backend and the results of these stored in the cache under a key which then gets shared with anyone who would want to see the data of this report) Redundancy and scalability if we start sharing this data with a large amount of customers. The main disadvantages I can see of using something like memcache: Data is not persistent if machine is rebooted / cache is flushed. The main advantages of using MySql Persistent data. Less code changes (although adding something like memcache is trivial anyway) The main disadvantages of using MySql Have to define table templates every time I want to store provide a new set of grouped data. Have to write a program which loops through the correlated data and fills these new tables. Potentially will still grow slower as the data continues to be filled. Apologies for quite a long question. It's helped me to write down these thoughts here anyway, and any advice/help/experience with dealing with this sort of problem would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. Alan

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  • Sound Complete Not Firing (AS3)

    - by JasonMc92
    I have a bit of a quandary. I need to call a function inside a MovieClip once a particular sound has finished playing. The sound is played via a sound channel in an external class which I have imported. Playback is working perfectly. Here is the relevent code from my external class, Sonus. public var SFXPRChannel:SoundChannel = new SoundChannel; var SFXPRfishbeg:Sound = new sfxpr_fishbeg(); var SFXPRfishmid:Sound = new sfxpr_fishmid(); var SFXPRfishend3:Sound = new sfxpr_fishend3(); var SFXPRfishend4:Sound = new sfxpr_fishend4() public function PlayPrompt(promptname:String):void { var sound:String = "SFXPR" + promptname; SFXPRChannel = this[sound].play(); } This is called via an import in the document class "osr", thus I access it in my project via "osr.Sonus.---" In my project, I have the following line of code. osr.Sonus.SFXPRChannel.addEventListener(Event.SOUND_COMPLETE, promptIsFinished); function prompt():void { var level = osr.Gradua.Fetch("fish", "arr_con_level"); Wait(true); switch(level) { case 1: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishbeg"); break; case 2: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishmid"); break; case 3: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishend3"); break; case 4: osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt("fishend4"); break; } } function Wait(yesno):void { gui.Wait(yesno); } function promptIsFinished(evt:Event):void { Wait(false); } osr.Sonus.PlayPrompt(...) and gui.Wait(...) both work perfectly, as I use them in other contexts in this part of the project without error. Basically, after the sound finishes playing, I need Wait(false); to be called, but the event listener does not appear to be "hearing" the SOUND_COMPLETE event. Did I make a mistake somewhere? For the record, due to my project structure, I cannot call the appropriate Wait(...) function from within Sonus. Help?

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  • AudioTrack lag: obtainBuffer timed out

    - by BTR
    I'm playing WAVs on my Android phone by loading the file and feeding the bytes into AudioTrack.write() via the FileInputStream BufferedInputStream DataInputStream method. The audio plays fine and when it is, I can easily adjust sample rate, volume, etc on the fly with nice performance. However, it's taking about two full seconds for a track to start playing. I know AudioTrack has an inescapable delay, but this is ridiculous. Every time I play a track, I get this: 03-13 14:55:57.100: WARN/AudioTrack(3454): obtainBuffer timed out (is the CPU pegged?) 0x2e9348 user=00000960, server=00000000 03-13 14:55:57.340: WARN/AudioFlinger(72): write blocked for 233 msecs, 9 delayed writes, thread 0xba28 I've noticed that the delayed write count increases by one every time I play a track -- even across multiple sessions -- from the time the phone has been turned on. The block time is always 230 - 240ms, which makes sense considering a minimum buffer size of 9600 on this device (9600 / 44100). I've seen this message in countless searches on the Internet, but it usually seems to be related to not playing audio at all or skipping audio. In my case, it's just a delayed start. I'm running all my code in a high priority thread. Here's a truncated-yet-functional version of what I'm doing. This is the thread callback in my playback class. Again, this works (only playing 16-bit, 44.1kHz, stereo files right now), it just takes forever to start and has that obtainBuffer/delayed write message every time. public void run() { // Load file FileInputStream mFileInputStream; try { // mFile is instance of custom file class -- this is correct, // so don't sweat this line mFileInputStream = new FileInputStream(mFile.path()); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) {} BufferedInputStream mBufferedInputStream = new BufferedInputStream(mFileInputStream, mBufferLength); DataInputStream mDataInputStream = new DataInputStream(mBufferedInputStream); // Skip header try { if (mDataInputStream.available() > 44) mDataInputStream.skipBytes(44); } catch (IOException e) {} // Initialize device mAudioTrack = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, ConfigManager.SAMPLE_RATE, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_STEREO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, ConfigManager.AUDIO_BUFFER_LENGTH, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); mAudioTrack.play(); // Initialize buffer byte[] mByteArray = new byte[mBufferLength]; int mBytesToWrite = 0; int mBytesWritten = 0; // Loop to keep thread running while (mRun) { // This flag is turned on when the user presses "play" while (mPlaying) { try { // Check if data is available if (mDataInputStream.available() > 0) { // Read data from file and write to audio device mBytesToWrite = mDataInputStream.read(mByteArray, 0, mBufferLength); mBytesWritten += mAudioTrack.write(mByteArray, 0, mBytesToWrite); } } catch (IOException e) { } } } } If I can get past the artificially long lag, I can easily deal with the inherit latency by starting my write at a later, predictable position (ie, skip past the minimum buffer length when I start playing a file).

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  • How to get all captures of subgroup matches with preg_match_all()?

    - by hakre
    Update/Note: I think what I'm probably looking for is to get the captures of a group in PHP. Referenced: PCRE regular expressions using named pattern subroutines. (Read carefully:) I have a string that contains a variable number of segments (simplified): $subject = 'AA BB DD '; // could be 'AA BB DD CC EE ' as well I would like now to match the segments and return them via the matches array: $pattern = '/^(([a-z]+) )+$/i'; $result = preg_match_all($pattern, $subject, $matches); This will only return the last match for the capture group 2: DD. Is there a way that I can retrieve all subpattern captures (AA, BB, DD) with one regex execution? Isn't preg_match_all suitable for this? This question is a generalization. Both the $subject and $pattern are simplified. Naturally with such the general list of AA, BB, .. is much more easy to extract with other functions (e.g. explode) or with a variation of the $pattern. But I'm specifically asking how to return all of the subgroup matches with the preg_...-family of functions. For a real life case imagine you have multiple (nested) level of a variant amount of subpattern matches. Example This is an example in pseudo code to describe a bit of the background. Imagine the following: Regular definitions of tokens: CHARS := [a-z]+ PUNCT := [.,!?] WS := [ ] $subject get's tokenized based on these. The tokenization is stored inside an array of tokens (type, offset, ...). That array is then transformed into a string, containing one character per token: CHARS -> "c" PUNCT -> "p" WS -> "s" So that it's now possible to run regular expressions based on tokens (and not character classes etc.) on the token stream string index. E.g. regex: (cs)?cp to express one or more group of chars followed by a punctuation. As I now can express self-defined tokens as regex, the next step was to build the grammar. This is only an example, this is sort of ABNF style: words = word | (word space)+ word word = CHARS+ space = WS punctuation = PUNCT If I now compile the grammar for words into a (token) regex I would like to have naturally all subgroup matches of each word. words = (CHARS+) | ( (CHARS+) WS )+ (CHARS+) # words resolved to tokens words = (c+)|((c+)s)+c+ # words resolved to regex I could code until this point. Then I ran into the problem that the sub-group matches did only contain their last match. So I have the option to either create an automata for the grammar on my own (which I would like to prevent to keep the grammar expressions generic) or to somewhat make preg_match working for me somehow so I can spare that. That's basically all. Probably now it's understandable why I simplified the question. Related: pcrepattern man page Get repeated matches with preg_match_all()

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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  • jQuery validation plugin addMethod firing incorrectly

    - by LoganEtherton
    I must be missing something obvious, but everything that I've tried for this is leaving me empty handed, so I'm a bit puzzled. I'm attempting to use the jQuery validation plugin with custom validation methods, but it seems to be hit or miss. It seems that I am able to successfully add rules to a certain extent, but some of the methods are not applied. Or the specified method is not applied, and the incorrect method is instead applied. So, for example, this works without a hitch: $.validator.addMethod("emailValidation", function(value, element) { return /^((([a-z]|\d|[!#\$%&'\*\+\-\/=\?\^_`{\|}~]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])+(\.([a-z]|\d|[!#\$%&'\*\+\-\/=\?\^_`{\|}~]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])+)*)|((\x22)((((\x20|\x09)*(\x0d\x0a))?(\x20|\x09)+)?(([\x01-\x08\x0b\x0c\x0e-\x1f\x7f]|\x21|[\x23-\x5b]|[\x5d-\x7e]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(\\([\x01-\x09\x0b\x0c\x0d-\x7f]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF]))))*(((\x20|\x09)*(\x0d\x0a))?(\x20|\x09)+)?(\x22)))@((([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])([a-z]|\d|-|\.|_|~|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])*([a-z]|\d|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])))\.)+(([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])|(([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])([a-z]|\d|-|\.|_|~|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])*([a-z]|[\u00A0-\uD7FF\uF900-\uFDCF\uFDF0-\uFFEF])))\.?$/.test(value); }, "Please enter a valid email address." ); $.validator.addMethod("password", function(value, element) { return /[^\s]{6,25}/.test(value); }, "Please enter a password between 6 and 25 characters long." ); ... $(function(){ $("#registrationForm").validate({ rules: { email: { required: true, emailValidation: true }, password: { required: true, password: true }, } }); }); Both the password validation and email validation work. But then I add, in the same exact manner, a validation test for names. So, right below where the password method ends, I add: $.validator.addMethod("name", function(value, element) { return /[^\s]{6,25}/.test(value); }, "Please enter a valid name." ); Which turns the validate call into: $(function(){ $("#registrationForm").validate({ rules: { email: { required: true, emailValidation: true }, password: { required: true, password: true }, studentFirstName: { name: true } } }); }); And suddenly, everything is only validating for names. Both the email and password fields now validate using the name method, as does the name field. This is confusing! I've added console.log calls to all methods, and indeed, it's not that one is being called after the other - the only one being called is name. I've checked and double checked that the element selection is good. I've checked that everything is groovy with the methods themselves. Any ideas?

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  • Is valgrind crazy or is this is a genuine std map iterator memory leak?

    - by Alberto Toglia
    Well, I'm very new to Valgrind and memory leak profilers in general. And I must say it is a bit scary when you start using them cause you can't stop wondering how many leaks you might have left unsolved before! To the point, as I'm not an experienced in c++ programmer, I would like to check if this is certainly a memory leak or is it that Valgrind is doing a false positive? typedef std::vector<int> Vector; typedef std::vector<Vector> VectorVector; typedef std::map<std::string, Vector*> MapVector; typedef std::pair<std::string, Vector*> PairVector; typedef std::map<std::string, Vector*>::iterator IteratorVector; VectorVector vv; MapVector m1; MapVector m2; vv.push_back(Vector()); m1.insert(PairVector("one", &vv.back())); vv.push_back(Vector()); m2.insert(PairVector("two", &vv.back())); IteratorVector i = m1.find("one"); i->second->push_back(10); m2.insert(PairVector("one", i->second)); m2.clear(); m1.clear(); vv.clear(); Why is that? Shouldn't the clear command call the destructor of every object and every vector? Now after doing some tests I found different solutions to the leak: 1) Deleting the line i-second-push_back(10); 2) adding a delete i-second; after it's been used. 3) Deleting the second vv.push_back(Vector()); and m2.insert(PairVector("two", &vv.back())); statements. Using solution 2) makes Valgring print: 10 allocs, 11 frees Is that OK? As I'm not using new why should I delete? Thanks, for any help!

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