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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to tag photos in facebook-api?

    - by Camillo
    Hey, I wanted to ask if/how is it possible to tag a photo using the FB API (Graph or REST). I've managed to create an album and also to upload a photo in it, but I stuck on tagging. I've got the permissions and the correct session key. My code until now: try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $token = $session['access_token'];//here I get the token from the $session array $album_id = $album[0]; //upload photo $file= 'images/hand.jpg'; $args = array( 'message' => 'Photo from application', ); $args[basename($file)] = '@' . realpath($file); $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/'.$album_id.'/photos?access_token='.$token; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $args); $data = curl_exec($ch); //returns the id of the photo you just uploaded print_r(json_decode($data,true)); $search = array('{"id":', "}"); $delete = array("", ""); // picture id call with $picture $picture = str_replace($search, $delete, $data); //here should be the photos.addTag, but i don't know how to solve this //above code works, below i don't know what is the error / what's missing $json = 'https://api.facebook.com/method/photos.addTag?pid='.urlencode($picture).'&tag_text=Test&x=50&y=50&access_token='.urlencode($token); $ch = curl_init(); $url = $json; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_exec($ch); } catch(FacebookApiException $e){ echo "Error:" . print_r($e, true); } I really searched a long time, if you know something that might help me, please post it here :) Thanks for all your help, Camillo

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • Java: Preventing array going out of bounds.

    - by Troy
    I'm working on a game of checkers, if you want to read more about you can view it here; http://minnie.tuhs.org/I2P/Assessment/assig2.html When I am doing my test to see if the player is able to get to a certain square on the grid (i.e. +1 +1, +1 -1 .etc) from it's current location, I get an java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException error. This is the code I am using to make the move; public static String makeMove(String move, int playerNumber) { // variables to contain the starting and destination coordinates, subtracting 1 to match array size int colStart = move.charAt(1) - FIRSTCOLREF - 1; int rowStart = move.charAt(0) - FIRSTROWREF - 1; int colEnd = move.charAt(4) - FIRSTCOLREF - 1; int rowEnd = move.charAt(3) - FIRSTROWREF - 1; // variable to contain which player is which char player, enemy; if (playerNumber==1) { player= WHITEPIECE; enemy= BLACKPIECE; } else { player= BLACKPIECE; enemy= WHITEPIECE; } // check that the starting square contains a player piece if (grid [ colStart ] [ rowStart ] == player) { // check that the player is making a diagonal move if (grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart++) ] [ (rowEnd++) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart--) ] [ (rowEnd++) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart++) ] [ (rowEnd--) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart--) ] [ (rowEnd--) ]) { // check that the destination square is free if (grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == BLANK) { grid [ colStart ] [ rowStart ] = BLANK; grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] = player; } } // check if player is jumping over a piece else if (grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart+2) ] [ (rowEnd+2) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart-2) ] [ (rowEnd+2) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart+2) ] [ (rowEnd-2) ] && grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == grid [ (colStart-2) ] [ (rowEnd-2) ]) { // check that the piece in between contains an enemy if ((grid [ (colStart++) ] [ (rowEnd++) ] == enemy ) && (grid [ (colStart--) ] [ (rowEnd++) ] == enemy ) && (grid [ (colStart++) ] [ (rowEnd--) ] == enemy ) && (grid [ (colStart--) ] [ (rowEnd--) ] == enemy )) { // check that the destination is free if (grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] == BLANK) { grid [ colStart ] [ rowStart ] = BLANK; grid [ colEnd ] [ rowEnd ] = player; } } } } I'm not sure how I can prevent the error from happening, what do you recommend?

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  • JQuery $.ajax doesn't return anything, but only in Google Chrome!?

    - by Shawson
    Hi All, I'm hoping someone can help me with this as I'm at a loss. I'm trying to simply load a plain text file into a page at runtime using jquery- everything works fine in IE8 (8.0.7600.16385), Firefox 3.6.3, however in Google Chrome 5.0.375.55 the "data" comes back as nothing- i get an empty alert box. This is the code i'm using; <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Animation Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: 'level1.txt', success: function (data) { alert(data); }, async: true, type: 'GET' }); }); </script> </head> <body> <canvas id="canvas" width="640" height="480"> Unsupported Browser </canvas> </body> </html> The file I'm loading in is a plain text file containing this; Central Cavern 100 O.........1.C....C...........1.O O................1.............O O..............................O O..............................O O......................B1..B...O O=============~~~~=~~~~========O O.............................1O O===...........................O O............A..OOO.B..........O O====...<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<...O O............................==O O..............................O O..........B........OOO.....===O O....===============...........O O%............................XO O==============================O (Yes- it's the first level from Manic Miner! I'm making a javascript version using the html5 canvas to get my head around using it.) I'm at a total loss- it can't be the code because it runs in the other 2 browsers- is there an issue with jquery and this version of Chrome? Thanks for reading!! Shaw.

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • Permanent mutex locking causing deadlock?

    - by Daniel
    I am having a problem with mutexes (pthread_mutex on Linux) where if a thread locks a mutex right again after unlocking it, another thread is not very successful getting a lock. I've attached test code where one mutex is created, along with two threads that in an endless loop lock the mutex, sleep for a while and unlock it again. The output I expect to see is "alive" messages from both threads, one from each (e.g. 121212121212. However what I get is that one threads gets the majority of locks (e.g. 111111222222222111111111 or just 1111111111111...). If I add a usleep(1) after the unlocking, everything works as expected. Apparently when the thread goes to SLEEP the other thread gets its lock - however this is not the way I was expecting it, as the other thread has already called pthread_mutex_lock. I suspect this is the way this is implemented, in that the actice thread has priority, however it causes certain problem in this particular testcase. Is there any way to prevent it (short of adding a deliberately large enough delay or some kind of signaling) or where is my error in understanding? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/time.h> #include <unistd.h> pthread_mutex_t mutex; void* threadFunction(void *id) { int count=0; while(true) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); usleep(50*1000); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); // usleep(1); ++count; if (count % 10 == 0) { printf("Thread %d alive\n", *(int*)id); count = 0; } } return 0; } int main() { // create one mutex pthread_mutexattr_t attr; pthread_mutexattr_init(&attr); pthread_mutex_init(&mutex, &attr); // create two threads pthread_t thread1; pthread_t thread2; pthread_attr_t attributes; pthread_attr_init(&attributes); int id1 = 1, id2 = 2; pthread_create(&thread1, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id1); pthread_create(&thread2, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id2); pthread_attr_destroy(&attributes); sleep(1000); return 0; }

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  • Need Help About Using XPathNavigator in C#?

    - by Nano HE
    Hello. My XML file as below. It mixed schema and normal elements. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- R1 --> <ax:root xmlns:ax="http://amecn/software/realtime/ax"> <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsd:element name="EquipmentConstants"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" ref="EquipmentConstant" /> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> <xsd:unique name="id"> <xsd:selector xpath=".//EquipmentConstant" /> <xsd:field xpath="@id" /> </xsd:unique> </xsd:element> ...... ...... </xsd:schema> <EquipmentConstants xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <EquipmentConstant id="0"> <Name>SerialNumber</Name> <Group>SYSTEM</Group> <Data> <Value min="0" max="10000000" scale_factor="0" unit="U_NO_UNITS" permission="NolimitedAndNoChangeable" type="xsd_string" enum="" flag="0">0</Value> </Data> <Description>Serial Number</Description> </EquipmentConstant> ..... ..... </EquipmentConstants> </ax:root> My C# code as below. I want to loop the elements from <EquipmentConstants xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> XPathDocument doc = new XPathDocument("test.xml"); XPathNavigator navigator = doc.CreateNavigator(); navigator.MoveToRoot(); // <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> //navigator.MoveToFirstChild(); // <!-- R1 --> // 1st, I tried to use MoveToChield(), But I failed to move there. navigator.MoveToChild("EquipmentConstants"); // Then, I also tried to use SelectSingleNode(). But I failed too. navigator.SelectSingleNode("ax/EquipmentConstants"); while (navigator.MoveToNext()) { // do something. } Could you please give me some suggestion. Thank you.

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  • problem to create session of facebook

    - by khoyendra
    try { HttpClient http = new HttpClient(); http.setParams(new HttpClientParams()); //http.getHostConfiguration().setHost("http://www.facebook.com/"); http.setState(new HttpState()); String api_key = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; String secret = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; // String appId=124812364218050; //http://www.facebook.com/developers/editapp.php?app_id=124812364218050 FacebookRestClient client = new FacebookRestClient(api_key, secret); client.setIsDesktop(true); // String sessionKey = request.getParameter(FacebookParam.SESSION_KEY.toString()); // boolean b = client.users_setStatus("This is a test..."); // System.out.println("User Status RESULT : " + b); String token = client.auth_createToken(); final String loginId = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php"; GetMethod get = new GetMethod(loginId + "?api_key=" + api_key + "&v=1.0&auth_token=" +token); System.out.println("Get="+get); http.executeMethod(get); PostMethod post = new PostMethod(loginId); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("api_key", api_key)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("v", "1.0")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("auth_token", token)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("fbconnect","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("return_session","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("session_key_only","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("req_perms","read_stream,publish_stream")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("email", email)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("pass", password)); System.out.println("Token ="+token); int postStatus = http.executeMethod(post); System.out.println("Response : " + postStatus); session = client.auth_getSession(token); // Here I am getting error System.out.println("Session string: " + session); long userid = client.users_getLoggedInUser(); System.out.println("User Id is : " + userid); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } please solve my problem i cannot create session of facebook.

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  • Is "Systems Designer" the job title that best describes what I do? [closed]

    - by ivo-rossi
    After having worked as Java developer for almost 3 years in the same company that I currently work at, I moved to a new position associated with the development of the same application. I’m in this new position for more than 1 year now. My official job title is Systems Designer, but I’m not sure this is a title that expresses well what I do. So my question here is what would be the most appropriate job title for me? I see this question as important for my career development. After all, I should be able to explain in one word what I do. And it’s no longer “Java Developer”. Well, in more than one word, this is what I do: The business analysts gather requirements / business problems to be solved with the clients and then discuss these requirements with me. Given the requirements, I design the high level solutions to be implemented in our system (e.g. a new screen on the client application, modifications to existing reports, extension to the XML export format of some objects, etc). I base my decision on the current capabilities of the system, the overall impact that the solutions would have on the system and the estimated effort to implement them (as I was a developer of this same application for almost 3 years before I moved to this position, I’m confident in my estimates). The solutions are discussed iteratively with the business analysts until we agree that they are good. The outcome of this analysis is what we call the “requirements design” document, which is written by me, shared with clients for approval and then also with the team that is going to implement the solutions and test them. Note that there are a few problems that I need to find a solution for that are non-functional. If the users are unhappy with the performance of a certain tool, I will investigate what can be done to speed it up. I will do some research – often based in the Java code itself - to identify possibilities of optimizations. But in this new position I no longer code, the main outcome of my work is really the “requirements design”. Is “Systems Designer” really the most appropriate job title?

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  • removing contents of div using Jquery "empty" doesn't work

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to remove contents of particular div which are basically list items and a heading by using jquery empty so that I could replace with new contents. What happens when I run the code is, the whole div element blinked and flash the replaced content and then the old one reappear. Can anyone tell me what am I doing wrong? Here's an excerpt of my code - <pre> $("#msg_tab").bind("click",function(){ $("#sidebar1").remove(); var html="<ul><li><h2>test</h2><ul><li><a href='#'>Compose New Message</a></li><li><a href='#'>Inbox</a></li><li><a href='#'>Outbox</a></li><li><a href='#'>Unread</a></li><li><a href='#'>Archive</a></li></ul></li></ul>"; $("#sidebar1").append(html); }); <div id="sidebar1" class="sidebar"> <ul> <li> <h2>Messages</h2> <ul> <li><a href="#">Compose New Message</a></li> <li><a href="#">Inbox</a></li> <li><a href="#">Outbox</a></li> <li><a href="#">Unread</a></li> <li><a href="#">Archive</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> Another question is, how do I write multiple line html code string in javascript so that java would recognize as a string value? Placing forward slash at the end is ok when the string is not a html code but, in html code, I can't figure out how to escape forward slash from ending tags.I've tried escaping it with backward slash but doesn't work. I would be appreciated if anyone could shed a light on this matter as well.

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • Java Best Practice for type resolution at runtime.

    - by Brian
    I'm trying to define a class (or set of classes which implement the same interface) that will behave as a loosely typed object (like JavaScript). They can hold any sort of data and operations on them depend on the underlying type. I have it working in three different ways but none seem ideal. These test versions only allow strings and integers and the only operation is add. Adding integers results in the sum of the integer values, adding strings concatenates the strings and adding an integer to a string converts the integer to a string and concatenates it with the string. The final version will have more types (Doubles, Arrays, JavaScript-like objects where new properties can be added dynamically) and more operations. Way 1: public interface DynObject1 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d); } public class DynInteger1 implements DynObject1 { private int value; public DynInteger1(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d) { return d.addTo(this); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d) { return new DynInteger1(d.value + value); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d) { return new DynString1(d.toString()+Integer.toString(value)); } } ...and similar for DynString1 Way 2: public interface DynObject2 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d); } public class DynInteger2 implements DynObject2 { private int value; public DynInteger2(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d) { Class c = d.getClass(); if(c==DynInteger2.class) { return new DynInteger2(value + ((DynInteger2)d).value); } else { return new DynString2(toString() + d.toString()); } } } ...and similar for DynString2 Way 3: public class DynObject3 { private enum ObjectType { Integer, String }; Object value; ObjectType type; public DynObject3(Integer v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.Integer; } public DynObject3(String v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.String; } @Override public String toString() { return value.toString(); } public DynObject3 add(DynObject3 d) { if(type==ObjectType.Integer && d.type==ObjectType.Integer) { return new DynObject3(Integer.valueOf(((Integer)value).intValue()+((Integer)value).intValue())); } else { return new DynObject3(value.toString()+d.value.toString()); } } } With the if-else logic I could use value.getClass()==Integer.class instead of storing the type but with more types I'd change this to use a switch statement and Java doesn't allow switch to use Classes. Anyway... My question is what is the best way to go about something thike this?

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  • In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' private?

    - by Pedro Silva
    I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

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  • PHP: Remove Simple Session with Get-Method

    - by elmaso
    Hello, I want to Remove the Sessions from this php code, actually if someone searches i get this url search.php?searchquery=test but if I reload the page, the results are cleaned. how can I remove the Sessions to get the Results still, if someone reloads the page? this are the codes: search.php <?php session_start(); ?> <form method="get" action="querygoogle.php"> <label for="searchquery"><span class="caption">Search this site</span> <input type="text" size="20" maxlength="255" title="Enter your keywords and click the search button" name="searchquery" /></label> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> </form> <?php if(!empty($_SESSION['googleresults'])) { echo $_SESSION['googleresults']; unset($_SESSION['googleresults']); } ?> querygoogle.php <?php session_start(); $url = 'http://www.example.com'; $handle = fopen($url, 'rb'); $body = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $body .= fread($handle, 8192); } fclose($handle); $json = json_decode($body); foreach($json->responseData->results as $searchresult) { if($searchresult->GsearchResultClass == 'GwebSearch') { $formattedresults .= ' <div class="searchresult"> <h3><a href="' . $searchresult->unescapedUrl . '">' . $searchresult->titleNoFormatting . '</a></h3> <p class="resultdesc">' . $searchresult->content . '</p> <p class="resulturl">' . $searchresult->visibleUrl . '</p> </div>'; } } $_SESSION['googleresults'] = $formattedresults; header("Location: search.php?searchquery=" . $_GET['searchquery']); exit; ?> thank you for your help!!

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  • Converting C source to C++

    - by Barry Kelly
    How would you go about converting a reasonably large (300K), fairly mature C codebase to C++? The kind of C I have in mind is split into files roughly corresponding to modules (i.e. less granular than a typical OO class-based decomposition), using internal linkage in lieu private functions and data, and external linkage for public functions and data. Global variables are used extensively for communication between the modules. There is a very extensive integration test suite available, but no unit (i.e. module) level tests. I have in mind a general strategy: Compile everything in C++'s C subset and get that working. Convert modules into huge classes, so that all the cross-references are scoped by a class name, but leaving all functions and data as static members, and get that working. Convert huge classes into instances with appropriate constructors and initialized cross-references; replace static member accesses with indirect accesses as appropriate; and get that working. Now, approach the project as an ill-factored OO application, and write unit tests where dependencies are tractable, and decompose into separate classes where they are not; the goal here would be to move from one working program to another at each transformation. Obviously, this would be quite a bit of work. Are there any case studies / war stories out there on this kind of translation? Alternative strategies? Other useful advice? Note 1: the program is a compiler, and probably millions of other programs rely on its behaviour not changing, so wholesale rewriting is pretty much not an option. Note 2: the source is nearly 20 years old, and has perhaps 30% code churn (lines modified + added / previous total lines) per year. It is heavily maintained and extended, in other words. Thus, one of the goals would be to increase mantainability. [For the sake of the question, assume that translation into C++ is mandatory, and that leaving it in C is not an option. The point of adding this condition is to weed out the "leave it in C" answers.]

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  • Displaying an Image in an activity using URI

    - by evkwan
    Hi, I'm writing an application that uses Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE) to capture and image. On the process of capturing the image, I noted the output of the image's URI. Right after finishing the camera activity, I wish to display the image using this specific URI. The method I used to capture images is: private void saveFullImage() { Intent intent = new Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); File file = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(), "test.jpg"); outputFileUri = Uri.fromFile(file); intent.putExtra(MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT, outputFileUri); startActivityForResult(intent, TAKE_PICTURE); } Which is a method taken from Reto Meier's book Professional Android 2 Application Development. The method works fine, and I assume that the URI of the picture I just took is stored in the outputFileUri variable. Then at this point of the code is where I want to display the picture: @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (requestCode == TAKE_PICTURE) { //I want to display the picture I just took here //using the URI } } I'm not sure how to do it. I tried creating a new layout object and a new ImageView object using the method setImageURI(outputFileUri). My main layout (xml) did not have a ImageView object. But even when I set the contentView to the new layout with the ImageView attached to it, it doesn't display anything. I tried creating a Bitmap object from the URI and set it to the ImageView, but I get an unexpected error and forced exit. I have seen examples from here here which creates a Bitmap from URI, but it's not displaying it? My question is just how to display an image in the middle of a running activity? Do I need to get the File Path (like this) in order to display it? If I make a Bitmap out of the URI, how do I display the Bitmap? I'm just probably missing something simple...so any help would be a greatly appreciated! Also additional question for thought: If I were to take multiple pictures, would you recommend me to use the SimpleCursorAdapter instead? Thanks!

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  • Perfect Forwarding to async lambda

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    I have a function template, where I want to do perfect forwarding into a lambda that I run on another thread. Here is a minimal test case which you can directly compile: #include <thread> #include <future> #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <vector> /** * Function template that does perfect forwarding to a lambda inside an * async call (or at least tries to). I want both instantiations of the * function to work (one for lvalue references T&, and rvalue reference T&&). * However, I cannot get the code to compile when calling it with an lvalue. * See main() below. */ template <typename T> std::string accessValueAsync(T&& obj) { std::future<std::string> fut = std::async(std::launch::async, [](T&& vec) mutable { return vec[0]; }, std::forward<T>(obj)); return fut.get(); } int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { std::vector<std::string> lvalue{"Testing"}; // calling with what I assume is an lvalue reference does NOT compile std::cout << accessValueAsync(lvalue) << std::endl; // calling with rvalue reference compiles std::cout << accessValueAsync(std::move(lvalue)) << std::endl; // I want both to compile. return 0; } For the non-compiling case, here is the last line of the error message which is intelligible: main.cpp|13 col 29| note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >’ to ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >&’ I have a feeling it may have something to do with how T&& is deduced, but I can't pinpoint the exact point of failure and fix it. Any suggestions? Thank you! EDIT: I am using gcc 4.7.0 just in case this could be a compiler issue (probably not)

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  • C++ Undeclared Identifier (but it is declared?)

    - by Joshua
    I'm pretty sure I've included the qanda class, but when I try to declare a vector that contains it or a class of that type I get an error saying that qanda is undefined. Any idea what the problem might be? bot_manager_item.h #pragma once #include "../bot_packet/bot_packet.h" #include <vector> class bot_manager_item; #include "qanda.h" #include "bot_manager.h" class bot_manager_item { public: bot_manager_item(bot_manager* mngr, const char* name, const char* work_dir); ~bot_manager_item(); bool startup(); void cleanup(); void on_push_event(bot_exchange_format f); bool disable; private: void apply_changes(); bot_manager *_mngr; std::string _name; std::string _work_dir; std::string _message; std::string _message_copy; std::vector<qanda> games; qanda test; char _config_full_path[2600]; }; qanda.h #ifndef Q_AND_A #define Q_AND_A #include "users.h" #include "..\bot_packet\bot_packet.h" #include "bot_manager.h" #include <string> #include <algorithm> #include <map> #include <vector> #include <fstream> class qanda { public: qanda(bot_manager * manager, std::string name, std::string directory); ~qanda(){}; void room_message(std::string username, std::string user_message); void timer_tick(); private: // data members std::string question; std::string answer; std::string directory; std::string command_prefix; std::string name; Users users; std::map <std::string, std::string> questions_and_answers; int time_per_question; // seconds int time_between_questions; // seconds int timer; // milliseconds bool is_delayed; bool is_playing; bot_manager * manager; // functions void new_question(); void send_message(std::string msg); void announce_question(); void load_questions(); }; #endif

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • how to wait multiple function processing to finish

    - by user351412
    I have a problem about multiple function processing , listed as below code, the main function is btnEvalClick, I have try to use alter native 1and 2 to wait the function not move to next record before theprocessed function finish, but it does not work //private function btnEvalClick(event:Event):void { // var i:int; // for(i= 0; i < (dataArr1.length); i++) { // dispatchEvent( new FlexEvent('test') ); // callfunc1('cydatGMX'); //call function 1 // callfun2('cydatGMO'); //call function 1 // editSave(); //save record (HTTP) //## Alternative 1 //if (String(event) == 'SAVEOK') { // RecMov('next'); //move record if save = OK //} //## Alternative 2 //while (waitfc == '') // if waitfc not 'OK' continue looping //{ // z = z + 1; //} // RecMov('next'); //Move to next record to process //} //private function callfunc1(tasal:String):void { // var mySO :SharedObject; // var myDP: Array; // var i:int; // var prm:Array; // try // { // mySO = SharedObject.getLocal(tasal,'/'); // prm = mySO.data.txt.split('?'); // for(i=0; i < (prm.length - 1); i++) { // myDP = prm[i].toString().split('^'); // if ( myDP[0].toString() == String(dataArr1[dg].MatrixCDCol)){ // myDPX = myDP; // break; // } // } // } // catch (err:Error) { // Alert.show('Limit object creation fail (' + tasal + '), please retry ); // } //} //private function editSave():void //{ // var parameters:* = // { // 'CertID': CertIDCol.text, 'AssetID': AssetIDCol.text, 'CertDate': cdt, //'Ccatat': CcatatCol.text, 'CertBy': CertByCol.text, 'StatusID': StatusIDCol.text, //'UpdDate': lele, 'UpdUsr': ApplicationState.instance.luNm }; // doRequest('Update', parameters, saveItemHandler); //} //private function doRequest(method_name:String, parameters:Object, callback:Function):void // { // add the method to the parameters list // parameters['method'] = (method_name + 'ASC'); // gateway.request = parameters; // var call:AsyncToken = gateway.send(); // call.request_params = gateway.request; // call.handler = callback; // } //private function saveItemHandler(e:Object):void // { // if (e.isError) // { // Alert.show('Error: ' + e.data.error); // } // else // { // Alert.show('Record Saved..'); // waitfc = 'OK'; // dispatchEvent( new FlexEvent('SAVEOK') ); // } // }

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  • jquery - targetting a select using $this

    - by Maureen
    I am trying to get individual selects (which have the same class as other selects) to respond to a .change function, however it only works on one of the selects. If you test out this code it will make more sense. Try to add a few "ON/OFF events", and then select "Specified Time" in the various selects. You'll see only the first one responds. Any ideas? Thanks! Please see the following code: $(document).ready(function() { var neweventstring = '<div class="event">Turns <select name="ONOFF"><option value="On">ON</option><option value="Off">OFF</option></select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"><option>Select Time</option><option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option><option value="Sunset">Sunset</option><option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option></select></div>'; $('#addmondaysevent').click(function () { $('#monday .events').append(neweventstring); }); $('.setto').change(function() { alert('The function is called'); if($("option:selected", this).val() =="specifiedtime"){ alert('If returns true'); $(this).css("background-color", "#cc0000"); $(this).after('<div class="specifictime"><input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"/> : <input type="text" value="00" style="width:30px"> <select name="ampm"><option value="AM" selected>AM</option><option value="PM">PM</option></select></div>') } }); }); And my HTML: <div id="monday"> <h2>Mondays</h2> <div class="events"> <div class="event"> Turn <select name="ONOFF"> <option value="On">ON</option> <option value="Off">OFF</option> </select> at: <select name="setto" class="setto"> <option>Select Time</option> <option value="Sunrise">Sunrise</option> <option value="Sunset">Sunset</option> <option value="specifiedtime">Specified Time</option> </select> </div> [<a id="addmondaysevent">Add an ON/OFF event</a>] </div> </div>

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  • basic operations for modifying a source document with XSLT

    - by SpliFF
    All the tutorials and examples I've found of XSLT processing seem to assume your destination will be a significantly different format/structure to your source and that you know the structure of the source in advance. I'm struggling with finding out how to perform simple "in-place" modifications to a HTML document without knowing anything else about its existing structure. Could somebody show me a clear example that, given an arbitrary unknown HTML source will: 1.) delete the classname 'foo' from all divs 2.) delete a node if its empty (ie <p></p>) 3.) delete a <p> node if its first child is <br> 4.) add newattr="newvalue" to all H1 5.) replace 'heading' in text nodes with 'title' 6.) wrap all <u> tags in <b> tags (ie, <u>foo</u> -> <b><u>foo</u></b>) 7.) output the transformed document without changing anything else The above examples are the primary types of transform I wish to accomplish. Understanding how to do the above will go a long way towards helping me build more complex transforms. To help clarify/test the examples here is a sample source and output, however I must reiterate that I want to work with arbitrary samples without rewriting the XSLT for each source: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1>heading</h1> <p></p> <p><br>line</p> <div class="foo bar"><u>baz</u></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html> output: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1 newattr="newvalue">title</h1> <div class="bar"><b><u>baz</u></b></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html>

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  • div popup inside td

    - by sims
    I have a table with a bunch of cells. (No way! Amazing! :P) Some of the cells have a small div that when you put your mouse over, it gets bigger so you can read all the text. This works well and all. However, since html elements that come later in the document have a higher z-index, when the div gets bigger it is underneath the other divs in the other cells. Some html code: <table> <tr> <td> limited info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> informative long text is here </div> </div> </td> <td> some short info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> longer explanation about what is really going on that covers the div up there ^^^. darn! </div> </div> </td> </tr> </table> Some js code: function tooltipshow(obj) { obj.style.width = '30em'; obj.style.zIndex = '100'; } function tooltiphide(obj) { obj.style.width = '1em'; obj.style.zIndex = '20'; } It doesn't matter if I set z-index dynamically to something higher onmouseover. It's like z-index has no affect. I think it has something to do with the table. I've tested this in FF3. When I'm feeling particularly macho, I'll test it in IE.

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