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• Browser: Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

  - by cottsak

  Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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• .NET How would I build a DAL to meet my requirments?

  - by Jonno

  Assuming that I must deploy an asp.net app over the following 3 servers: 1) DB - not public 2) 'middle' - not public 3) Web server - public I am not allowed to connect from the web server to the DB directly. I must pass through 'middle' - this is purely to slow down an attacker if they breached the web server. All db access is via stored procedures. No table access. I simply want to provide the web server with a ado dataset (I know many will dislike this, but this is the requirement). Using asmx web services - it works, but XML serialisation is slow and it's an extra set of code to maintain and deploy. Using a ssh/vpn tunnel so that the one connects to the db 'via' the middle server, seems to remove any possible benefit of maintaining 'middle'. Using WCF binary/tcp removes the XML problem, but still there is extra code. Is there an approach that provides the ease of ssh/vpn, but the potential benefit of having the dal on the middle server? Many thanks.

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• Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

  - by bdk

  My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

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• What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

  - by Tom

  Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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• array or list into Oracle using cfprocparam

  - by Travis

  I have a list of values I want to insert into a table via a stored procedure. I figured I would pass an array to oracle and loop through the array but I don't see how to pass an array into Oracle. I'd pass a list but I don't see how to work with the list to turn it into an array using PL/SQL (I'm fairly new to PL/SQL). Am I approaching this the wrong way? Using Oracle 9i and CF8. TIA! EDIT Perhaps I'm thinking about this the wrong way? I'm sure I'm not doing anything new here... I figured I'd convert the list to an associative array then loop the array because Oracle doesn't seem to work well with lists (in my limited observation). I'm trying to add a product, then add records for the management team. -- product table productName = 'foo' productDescription = 'bar' ... ... etc -- The managementteam table just has the id of the product and id of the users selected from a drop down. The user IDs are passed in via a list like "1,3,6,20" How should I go about adding the records to the management team table?

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• AVAudioPlayer not unloading cached memory after each new allocation

  - by Rob

  I am seeing in Instruments that when I play a sound via the standard "AddMusic" example method that Apple provides, it allocates 32kb of memory via the prepareToPlay call (which references the AudioToolBox framework's Cache_DataSource::ReadBytes function) each time a new player is allocated (i.e. each time a different sound is played). However, that cached data never gets released. This obviously poses a huge problem if it doesn't get released and you have a lot of sound files to play, since it tends to keep allocating memory and eventually crashes if you have enough unique sound files (which I unfortunately do). Have any of you run across this or what am I doing wrong in my code? I've had this issue for a while now and it's really bugging me since my code is verbatim of what Apple's is (I think). How I call the function: - (void)playOnce:(NSString *)aSound { // Gets the file system path to the sound to play. NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:aSound ofType:@"caf"]; // Converts the sound's file path to an NSURL object NSURL *soundURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; self.soundFileURL = soundURL; [soundURL release]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: soundFileURL error:nil]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely // this is where the prior cached data never gets released [theAudio prepareToPlay]; // set it up and play [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio setDelegate: self]; [theAudio play]; } and then theAudio gets released in the dealloc method of course.

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• Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

  - by aruwen

  I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

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• PHP Redirection with Post Parameters

  - by arik-so

  Hello, I have a webpage. This webpage redirects the user to another webpage, more or less the following way: <form method="post" action="anotherpage.php" id="myform"> <?php foreach($_GET as $key => $value){ echo "<input type='hidden' name='{$key}' value='{$value}' />"; } ?> </form> <script> document.getElementById('myform').submit(); </script> Well, you see, what I do is transferring the GET params into POST params. Do not tell me it is bad, I know that myself, and it is not exactly what I really do, what is important is that I collect data from an array and try submitting it to another page via POST. But if the user has JavaScript turned off, it won't work. What I need to know: Is there a way to transfer POST parameters by means of PHP so the redirection can be done the PHP way (header('Location: anotherpage.php');), too? It is very important for me to pass the params via POST. I cannot use the $_SESSION variable because the webpage is on another domain, thus, the $_SESSION variables differ. Anyway, I simply need a way to transfer POST variables with PHP ^^ Thanks in advance!

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• IIS site always returns 404 to WinMo emulator

  - by Derick Bailey

  I'm running Win7x64 Ultimate with Visual Studio 2008. I have a website built in ASP.NET 3.5 and hosted via IIS on my box. I can run the website perfectly fine and I can hit all of the web services that I have built in the website, using a web browser. When I pull up my Windows Mobile 6 emulator and hit the site (using my IP address) it always returns a 404 error. I have the emulator cradled w/ Device Emulator Manager and I can interact with the emulated device normally. I am also able to get out to google.com and other websites w/ the emulated device. I have also verified that the emulator is hitting my box by stopping the IIS website and seeing that the WinMo emulator cannot get any response. Then when I start the site again, I get a 404 error. When I pull up my site on my local dev box via FireFox or IE using the IP address it works perfectly fine. The worst part is this worked perfectly fine a few weeks ago, when I used it last. I don't know that I've changed anything since then - I'm just trying to use the emulator to hit my site again. Help?! Update: my http requests comign from the WinMo emulator are not getting logged in the IIS log files, while my requests from FireFox on my local box are getting logged. Not sure if that helps in figuring out the problem... Update 2: I can use the ruby Webbrick server on my local box and hit that server from my emulator just fine. is in IIS not allowing me to hit the IIS site from the emu? UPdate 3: I cradled an actual WinMo device to my box with it's networking turned off and was able to hit the IIS site just fine. that makes me think it's something set up wrong in the emulator.

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• Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

  - by Scott Silvi

  Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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• Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible ?

  - by fyasar

  Hi All I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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• java logging nightmare and log4j not behaving as expected with spring + tomcat6

  - by maverick

  I have a spring application that has configured log4j (via xml) and that runs on Tomcat6 that was working fine until we add a bunch of dependencies via Maven. At some point the whole application just started logging part of what it was supposed to be declared into the log4.xml "a small rant here" Why logging has to be that hard in java world? why suddenly an application that was just fine start behaving so weird and why it's so freaking hard to debug? I've been reading and trying to solve this issue for days but so far no luck, hopefully some expert here can give me some insights on this I've added log4j debug option to check whether log4j is taking reading the config file and its values and this is what part of it shows log4j: Level value for org.springframework.web is [debug]. log4j: org.springframework.web level set to DEBUG log4j: Retreiving an instance of org.apache.log4j.Logger. log4j: Setting [org.compass] additivity to [true]. log4j: Level value for org.compass is [debug]. log4j: org.compass level set to DEBUG As you can see debug is enabled for compass and spring.web but it only shows "INFO" level for both packages. My log4j config file has nothing out of extraordinary just a plain ConsoleAppender <log4j:configuration xmlns:log4j="http://jakarta.apache.org/log4j/"> <!-- Appenders --> <appender name="console" class="org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender"> <param name="Target" value="System.out" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-5p: %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> What's the trick to make this work? What it's my misunderstanding here? Can someone point me in the right direction and explain how can I make this logging mess more bullet proof?

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• Enums, Constructor overloads with similar conversions.

  - by David Thornley

  Why does VisualC++ (2008) get confused 'C2666: 2 overloads have similar conversions' when I specify an enum as the second parameter, but not when I define a bool type? Shouldn't type matching already rule out the second constructor because it is of a 'basic_string' type? #include <string> using namespace std; enum EMyEnum { mbOne, mbTwo }; class test { public: #if 1 // 0 = COMPILE_OK, 1 = COMPILE_FAIL test(basic_string<char> myString, EMyEnum myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #else test(basic_string<char> myString, bool myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #endif }; void testme() { test("test", mbOne); } I can work around this by specifying a reference 'ie. basic_string &myString' but not if it is 'const basic_string &myString'. Also calling explicitly via "test((basic_string)"test", mbOne);" also works. I suspect this has something to do with every expression/type being resolved to a bool via an inherent '!=0'. Curious for comments all the same :)

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• maven and unit testing - combining maven surefire plugin AND testNG eclipse plugin

  - by lisak

  Hey, could you please share your way of unit testing in eclipse ? Are you using surefire plugin, m2eclipse & maven, or only testNG eclipse plugin ? Do you combine these alternatives ? I'm using testNG + maven surefire-plugin and I had been using the testNG eclipse plugin a year ago so that I could see the results in testNG view. Then I started using Maven, but when I do "maven test phase" using m2eclipse, there is only console output and surefire reports that I can check in browser and to choose what test suite, test, or test method can be set up only via testng.xml. On the other hand, if you use only surefire plugin and you have some specific settings regarding classpath etc., that you rely on, then running tests via testNG eclipse plugin doesn't have to be compatible with your code. Using surefire plugin, the classpath is different - target/test-classes and target/classes - than using testNG plugin, that is using the project classpath. How do you go about what I was just talking about? Is it possible to synchronize "maven test" using m2eclipse and surefire plugin WITH testNG eclipse plugin and view ? EDITED: I'm also wondering, why the Maven project ("Java build path") output folder is target/classes for src/main and src/test whereas surefire plugin makes two locations target/test-classes and target/classes Thank you very much for your your opinions.

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• Nhibernate fires SQL commands

  - by Chris

  Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

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• Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

  - by fyasar

  I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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• sharing message object between web applications

  - by jezhilvalan

  I need to share java mail message objects between two web applications(A and B). WebApplication A obtains the message and write it to the outputStream for(int i=0;i<messagesArr.length;i++){ uid = pop3FolderObj.getUID(messagesArr[i]); //storing messages with uid names inorder to maintain uniqueness File f = new File("F:/PersistedMessagesFolder" + uid); FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(f); messagesArr[i].writeTo(fos); fos.flush(); fos.close(); } Is FileOutputStream the best output stream for persisting message objects? Is it possible to use ObjectOutputStream for message object persistence? WebApplication B reads the message object via InputStream FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("F:/MessagesPersistedFolder"+uid); MimeMessage mm = new MimeMessage(sessionObj,fis); What if the mail message object which is already written via WebApplication A is not a MimeMessage? How can I read non-mime messages using input stream? MimeMessage constructor mandates sessionObj as the first parameter? How can I obtain this sessionObj in WebApplicationB? Do I have to again establish store connection with the same emailid,emailpassword,popserver and port(already used in WebApplication A) with the email server inorder to obtain this session object? Even if obtained, will this session object remains the same as that of the session object which is priorly obtained in WebApplicationA? Since I am using uids to name Message objects (inorder to maintain uniqueness of file names) how can I share these uids between WebApplication A and WebApplication B? WebApplication B needs the uid inorder to access the specific file which is present in "F:/MessagesPersistedFolder" Please help me in resolving the aforeseen issues.

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• Cannot write to SD card -- canWrite is returning false

  - by Fizz

  Sorry for the ambiguous title but I'm doing the following to write a simple string to a file: try { File root = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); if (root.canWrite()){ System.out.println("Can write."); File def_file = new File(root, "default.txt"); FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(def_file); BufferedWriter out = new BufferedWriter(fw); String defbuf = "default"; out.write(defbuf); out.flush(); out.close(); } else System.out.println("Can't write."); }catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } But root.canWrite() seems to be returning false everytime. I am not running this off of an emulator, I have my android Eris plugged into my computer via USB and running the app off of my phone via Eclipse. Is there a way of giving my app permission so this doesn't happen? Also, this code seems to be create the file default.txt but what if it already exists, will it ignore the creation and just open it to write or do I have to catch something like FileAlreadyExists(if such an exception exists) which then just opens it and writes? Thanks for any help guys.

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• Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

  - by Jason Williams

  I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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• Ant fails without message at javac

  - by digitala

  I've written an Ant build.xml file which obtains a number of source files via WSDL and compiles them. These have been working on an old, now destroyed (and therefore unavailable for comparison), system but the build process isn't completing on this newer, faster system. The relevant section of the build file looks like this: <target name="compile" depends="init"> <java classname="org.apache.axis.wsdl.WSDL2Java"> <arg line="--all --server-side --skeletonDeploy --factory --wrapArrays --output src ${srcurl}" /> </java> <javac srcdir="${src}" destdir="${build}" verbose="yes" /> </target> The files are downloaded via the WSDL service successfully, however after that point Ant simply stops & returns to the commandline. Versions of the relevant apps: # java -version java version "1.6.0_14" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_14-b08) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.0-b16, mixed mode) # javac -version javac 1.6.0_14 # ant -version Apache Ant version 1.6.5 compiled on January 6 2007 I'm assuming that there's a problem with javac that Ant isn't passing back. Is there any way I can get some debugging information from javac? I've tried adding a <record /> tag to the target but that doesn't give any more information than running ant -v does. Any other suggestions would be great, also!

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• Mysql select - improve performance

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

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• Losing URI segments when paginating with CodeIgniter

  - by Danny Herran

  I have a /payments interface where the user should be able to filter via price range, bank, and other stuff. Those filters are standard select boxes. When I submit the filter form, all the post data goes to another method called payments/search. That method performs the validation, saves the post values into a session flashdata and redirects the user back to /payments passing the flashdata name via URL. So my standard pagination links with no filters are exactly like this: payments/index/20/ payments/index/40/ payments/index/60/ And if you submit the filter form, the returning URL is: payments/index/0/b48c7cbd5489129a337b0a24f830fd93 This works just great. If I change the zero for something else, it paginates just fine. The only issue however is that the << 1 2 3 4 page links wont keep the hash after the pagination offset. CodeIgniter is generating the page links ignoring that additional uri segment. My uri_segment config is already set to 3: $config['uri_segment'] = 3; I cannot set the page offset to 4 because that hash may or may not exists. Any ideas of how can I solve this? Is it mandatory for CI to have the offset as the last segment in the uri? Maybe I am trying an incorrect approach, so I am all ears. Thank you folks.

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• How to exit current activity to homescreen (without using "Home" button)?

  - by steff

  Hi everyone, I am sure this will have been answered but I proved unable to find it. So please excuse my redundancy. What I am trying to do is emulating the "Home" button which takes one back to Android's homescreen. So here is what causes me problems: I have 3 launcher activities. The first one (which is connected to the homescreen icon) is just a (password protected) configuration activity. It will not be used by the user (just admin) One of the other 2 (both accessed via an app widget) is a questionnaire app. I'm allowing to jump back between questions via the Back button or a GUI back button as well. When the questionnaire is finished I sum up the answers given and provide a "Finish" button which should take the user back to the home screen. For the questionnaire app I use a single activity (called ItemActivity) which calls itself (is that recursion as well when using intents?) to jump from one question to another: Questionnaire.serializeToXML(); Intent i = new Intent().setClass(c, ItemActivity.class); if(Questionnaire.instance.getCurrentItemNo() == Questionnaire.instance.getAmountOfItems()) { Questionnaire.instance.setCompleted(true); } else Questionnaire.instance.nextItem(); startActivity(i); The final screen shows something like "Thank you for participating" as well as the formerly described button which should take one back to the homescreen. But I don't really get how to exit the Activity properly. I've e.g. used this.finish(); but this strangely brings up the "Thank you" screen again. So how can I just exit by jumping back to the homescreen?? Sorry for the inconvinience. Regards, Steff

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• UIImagePickerControllerDelegate Returns Blank "editingInfo" Dictionary Object

  - by Leachy Peachy

  Hi there, I have an iPhone app that calls upon the UIImagePickerController to offer folks a choice between selecting images via the camera or via their photo library on the phone. The problem is that sometimes, (Can't always get it to replicate.), the editingInfo dictionary object that is supposed to be returned by didFinishPickingImage delegate message, comes back blank or (null). Has anyone else seen this before? I am implementing the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in my .h file and I am correctly implementing the two delegate methods: didFinishPickingImage and imagePickerControllerDidCancel. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance! Here is my code... my .h file: @interface AddPhotoController : UIViewController <UIImagePickerControllerDelegate, UINavigationControllerDelegate> { IBOutlet UIImageView *imageView; IBOutlet UIButton *snapNewPictureButton; IBOutlet UIButton *selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *imageView; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIButton *snapNewPictureButton; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIButton * selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; my .m file: @implementation AddPhotoController @synthesize imageView, snapNewPictureButton, selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; - (IBAction)getCameraPicture:(id)sender { UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; picker.allowsImageEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; } - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingImage:(UIImage *)image editingInfo:(NSDictionary *)editingInfo { NSLog(@"Image Meta Info.: %@",editingInfo); UIImage *selectedImage = image; imageView.image = selectedImage; self._havePictureData = YES; [self.useThisPhotoButton setEnabled:YES]; [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (void)imagePickerControllerDidCancel:(UIImagePickerController *)picker { [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

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• Dynamically overriding an abstract method in c#

  - by ng

  I have the following abstract class public abstract class AbstractThing { public String GetDescription() { return "This is " + GetName(); } public abstract String GetName(); } Now I would like to implement some new dynamic types from this like so. AssemblyName assemblyName = new AssemblyName(); assemblyName.Name = "My.TempAssembly"; AssemblyBuilder assemblyBuilder = Thread.GetDomain().DefineDynamicAssembly(assemblyName, AssemblyBuilderAccess.Run); ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder = assemblyBuilder.DefineDynamicModule("DynamicThings"); TypeBuilder typeBuilder = moduleBuilder.DefineType(someName + "_Thing", TypeAttributes.Public | TypeAttributes.Class, typeof(AbstractThing)); MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod("GetName", MethodAttributes.Public | MethodAttributes.ReuseSlot | MethodAttributes.Virtual | MethodAttributes.HideBySig, null, Type.EmptyTypes); ILGenerator msil = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); msil.EmitWriteLine(selectionList); msil.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); However when I try to instantiate via typeBuilder.CreateType(); I get an exception saying that there is no implementation for GetName. Is there something I am doing wrong here. I can not see the problem. Also, what would be the restrictions on instantiating such a class by name? For instance if I tried to instantiate via "My.TempAssembly.x_Thing" would it be availble for instantiation without the Type generated?

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