Search Results

Search found 21454 results on 859 pages for 'via lactea'.

Page 236/859 | < Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >

  • WCF - "Encountered unexpected character 'c'."

    - by Villager
    Hello, I am trying to do something that I thought would be simple. I need to create a WCF service that I can post to via JQuery. I have an operation in my WCF service that is defined as follows: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json)] public string SendMessage(string message, int urgency) { try { // Do stuff return "1"; // 1 represents success } catch (Exception) { return "0"; } } I then try to access this operation from an ASP.NET page via JQuery. My JQuery code to access this operation looks like the following: function sendMessage(message) { $.ajax({ url: "/resources/services/myService.svc/SendMessage", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: ({ message: message, urgency: '1' }), dataType: "json", success: function (data) { alert("here!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("error: " + req.responseText); } }); } When I execute this script, the error handler is tripped. In it, I receive an error that says: "Encountered unexpected character 'c'." This message is included with a long stack trace. My question is, what am I doing wrong? I have received other posts such as this one (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/320291/how-to-post-an-array-of-complex-objects-with-json-jquery-to-asp-net-mvc-controll) without any luck. How do I get this basic interaction working? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

    Read the article

  • multiple form submission with one submit

    - by skylab
    I've been trying to think this through and figure out if it is possible or not. I'm using zen-cart as shopping cart software, but what I'd like to do, is hard code a page that is basically a list of 7-9 products, next to each product is a checkbox, so I'd like to figure out a way, via html,javascript or jquery to submit whichever forms(products) are checked to the cart. The typical form submission for a product looks something like this(sometimes there may be one or two additional hidden fields): <form name="cart_quantity" action="index.php?action=add_product" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="hidden" name="cart_quantity" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="products_id" value="7"> <input type="hidden" name="id[6]" value="9" id="attrib-6-9"> <input type="image" src="buy_button.png" alt="Add to Cart" title="Instructional Video Part 1: Add to Cart"> </form> There would be 7-9 of these on the page, each with a checkbox, so I'm assuming a script would need to figure out which ones where checked and submit them via the form action? Maybe there is a better way of going about this that I'm not thinking of because a)it's over my head or b)just haven't figured it out yet. Anyway is something like this possible?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Ajax loads URL multiple times, how do I unbind/rebind properly?

    - by gmoz22
    I load a SELECT element via Ajax (list of brands), get its selected value (brand id) and load another SELECT via another Ajax URL (list of templates for currently selected brand). Here's my code: $(document).ready( function() { // DO NOT cache Ajax calls $.ajaxSetup ({ cache: false }); // loader var ajax_load = "Loading..."; // Brands List URL var loadBrandUrl = "getBrandsList.php"; // Templates List URL var loadTemplateUrl = "getTemplatesList.php"; $("#brandslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadBrandUrl) .ajaxComplete(function(){ // Brands select loaded /* Load Templates SELECT the first time since no .change() has happened */ var selectedBrand = $("#brandslistSelect option:selected").attr("value"); // get the value console.log(selectedBrand); // Log selected brand to console // get Templates select, commented for now since it does an infinite loop // $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ); /* End initial load template */ /* On interaction with the Brands SELECT */ $("#brandslistSelect").change(function () { // on interaction with select selectedBrand = $("#brandslistSelect option:selected").attr("value"); // get the value // get Templates SELECT $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ) }); /* End interaction with the Brands SELECT */ }); }); It returns selectedBrand in the console 3 times : selectedBrand = undefined selectedBrand = undefined selectedBrand = 101 Now, if I uncomment the following line, same output as above but it also loads the templates URL indefinitely : // $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ); Any idea how I could modify this code to make it work as intended? Thanks for your help stackOverflow community!

    Read the article

  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

    Read the article

  • trouble connecting to MySql DB (PHP)

    - by user332817
    Hi I have the following PHP code to connect to my db. <?php ob_start(); $host="localhost"; // Host name $username="root"; // Mysql username $password=""; // Mysql password $db_name="test"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); ?> however I get the following error: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: [2002] A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not (trying to connect via tcp://localhost:3306) in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond. in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 30 seconds exceeded in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 I am able to add a db/tables via phpmyadmin but I cant connect using php. here is a screenshot of my phpmyadmin page: http://img294.imageshack.us/img294/1589/sqls.jpg any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

    Read the article

  • How to model in J2EE / JEE?

    - by Harry
    Let's say, I have decided to go with J(2)EE stack for my enterprise application. Now, for domain modelling (or: for designing the M of MVC), which APIs can I safely assume and use, and which I should stay away from... say, via a layer of abstraction? For example, Should I go ahead and litter my Model with calls to Hibernate/JPA API? Or, should I build an abstraction... a persistence layer of my own to avoid hard-coding against these two specific persistence APIs? Why I ask this: Few years ago, there was this Kodo API which got superseded by Hibernate. If one had designed a persistence layer and coded the rest of the model against this layer (instead of littering the Model with calls to specific vendor API), it would have allowed one to (relatively) easily switch from Kodo to Hibernate to xyz. Is it recommended to make aggressive use of the *QL provided by your persistence vendor in your domain model? I'm not aware of any real-world issues (like performance, scalability, portability, etc) arising out of a heavy use of an HQL-like language. Why I ask this: I would like to avoid, as much as possible, writing custom code when the same could be accomplished via query language that is more portable than SQL. Sorry, but I'm a complete newbie to this area. Where could I find more info on this topic? Many thanks in advance. /HS

    Read the article

  • Using custom Qt subclasses in Python

    - by kwatford
    First off: I'm new to both Qt and SWIG. Currently reading documentation for both of these, but this is a time consuming task, so I'm looking for some spoilers. It's good to know up-front whether something just won't work. I'm attempting to formulate a modular architecture for some in-house software. The core components are in C++ and exposed via SWIG to Python for experimentation and rapid prototyping of new components. Qt seems like it has some classes I could use to avoid re-inventing the wheel too much here, but I'm concerned about how some of the bits will fit together. Specifically, if I create some C++ classes, I'll need to expose them via SWIG. Some of these classes likely subclass Qt classes or otherwise have Qt stuff exposed in their public interfaces. This seems like it could raise some complications. There are already two interfaces for Qt in Python, PyQt and PySide. Will probably use PySide for licensing reasons. About how painful should I expect it to be to get a SWIG-wrapped custom subclass of a Qt class to play nice with either of these? What complications should I know about upfront?

    Read the article

  • Error 2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller

    - by Mocca
    Hi, sorry, new to actionscript 3. I have a display() function for an object rotator(image based like a QT object movie). It first saves the current image in a helper variable and then allocates a new image, from the library, beneath the old one. To get a nice crossfade effect, the old image's alpha is looped down via enter_frame and then removed. Which is where there seems to be an issue with the display list, maybe recognizing oldImg's value as being already added? (it's not a first pass error) Btw, do i have to remove the old image or can i leave it, for when it's being called up via the mouse position again? (the image number can get fairly large) Does anyone have further insight? Thanks! function display(num:Number):void //num: image number { ... oldImg = newImg; ClassReference = getDefinitionByName("Class"+num) as Class; imgBD = new ClassReference(0,0); newImg = new Bitmap(imgBD); images.addChild(newImg); newImg.x=0; newImg.y=0; } function onEnter(evt:Event):void { if (oldImg) { if (oldImg.alpha > 0) oldImg.alpha -= 0.15; **else images.removeChild(oldImg);** } ... }

    Read the article

  • Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

    - by CB
    This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side) <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--<![endif]--> <!--[if IE]> <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" codebase="http://java.sun.com/update/1.6.0/jinstall-6u22-windows-i586.cab" type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--><!-- <![endif]--> <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

    Read the article

  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

    Read the article

  • My list item's child label elements disappear in IE on accordion menu opening

    - by Scott B
    I've got an app that's working pretty flawlessly in Chrome and FF, however, when I view it in IE, all is well until I click on a header element to activate it (jQuery accordion). What happens then is that I see a brief flash where the content is there, then suddenly the entire left column disappears. This column is generated by a floated label element with a class of ".left" as seen below... <ul class="menu collapsible"> <li class='expand sectionTitle'><a href='#'>General Settings</a> <ul class='acitem'> <li class="section"> <label class="left">This item if floated left with a defined width of 190px via css. This is the item that's disappearing after a brief display</label> <input class="input" value="input element here" /> <label class="description">This element has a margin-left:212px; set via css in order to be positioned to the right of the label element as if in an adjacent table cell. When I add a max-width property to this element, it disappears in IE too!</label> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> As you can see from the comments in the code above (for the two label elements) the description label disappears once I set a max-width on it (I don't have a max-width on the left label element, but it disappears nonetheless). The initial view of this UL menu is fine (note the expand class declaration which makes this part of the accordion open at startup. Its not until I click the "General Settings" to toggle it closed, then back open, that the left class elements disappear (and only in IE)

    Read the article

  • Memory usage does not drop -- no leaks though

    - by climbon
    I have UINavigationController controlling several views. One of the views is composed of 20 scrollable pages. Each page is a constructed on the fly from UIViews by adding buttons, labels, UIImageViews etc. When this UIView is popped off the stack, the memory usage remains the same. Hence it keeps rising if I keep pushing/popping that view. In my dealloc, I am traversing through all 20 pages and finding each type of object which got added via addSubview and then do a release on it but instruments says my memory usage never goes down! I am trying to use 'retainCount' to see what is up with objects I am releasing but I am perhaps not getting true picture via retainCount. For some elements retainCount shows 2 so I try to release that object twice but then app crashes. If I release it once it works but memory usage never go down :( Q1: Do I need to traverse find each element and then do a release on that element ? Why can't I release a parent object and all objects contained by it would get released automatically ? Q2: Is retainCount a reliable indicator ?

    Read the article

  • FTP exception 501 "pathname" more than 8 characters

    - by BigMac66
    I am trying to access a file via a URI using the FTP protocol. For obvious security reasons I had to make some changes but this is where the problems seem to be coming from. My URI is as follows: ftp://user:[email protected]/u/Bigpathname/XYZ/ABC/BigPathname/bigpathname/xyz/abc/MY_LOG.LOG And I see this exception: sun.net.ftp.FtpProtocolException: CWD Bigpathname:501 A qualifier in "Bigpathname" is more than 8 characters This is really confusing as I can access the file from a Windows 7 command line with the CD command just fine. Both one directory at a time and as a full path. I found one article mentioning that MVS file names must be 8 or fewer characters but this does not explain how I can get to these same files from my command line! They do exist there is data there that I can download manual but I can not get there via a URI in Java. PS I use .toURL().openStream() to get files on my local machine just fine, it only fails when I try to get them from my server. EDIT October 1st I am able to access files on the MVS host using FileZilla and the basic FTP client from the Windows 7 command line - but I still cannot get them from a URI/URL. I downloaded a very basic Java built FTP client and tried accessing the same file in my program from there and the path works but because my file name has a dot in it "MY_LOG.LOG" I am getting File does not exist 501 Invalid data set name "MY_LOG.LOG". Use MVS Dsname conventions. I am utterly perplexed by this...

    Read the article

  • My UL child label elements disappear in IE on accordion menu opening

    - by Scott B
    I've got an app that's working pretty flawlessly in Chrome and FF, however, when I view it in IE, all is well until I click on a header element to activate it (jQuery accordion). What happens then is that I see a brief flash where the content is there, then suddenly the entire left column disappears. This column is generated by a floated label element with a class of ".left" as seen below... <ul class="menu collapsible"> <li class='expand sectionTitle'><a href='#'>General Settings</a> <ul class='acitem'> <li class="section"> <label class="left">This item if floated left with a defined width of 190px via css. This is the item that's disappearing after a brief display</label> <input class="input" value="input element here" /> <label class="description">This element has a margin-left:212px; set via css in order to be positioned to the right of the label element as if in an adjacent table cell. When I add a max-width property to this element, it disappears in IE too!</label> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> As you can see from the comments in the code above (for the two label elements) the description label disappears once I set a max-width on it. It shows up fine otherwise.

    Read the article

  • How to check if a thread is busy in C#?

    - by Sam
    I have a Windows Forms UI running on a thread, Thread1. I have another thread, Thread2, that gets tons of data via external events that needs to update the Windows UI. (It actually updates multiple UI threads.) I have a third thread, Thread3, that I use as a buffer thread between Thread1 and Thread2 so that Thread2 can continue to update other threads (via the same method). My buffer thread, Thread3, looks like this: public class ThreadBuffer { public ThreadBuffer(frmUI form, CustomArgs e) { form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(e); }); } } What I would like to do is for my ThreadBuffer to check whether my form is currently busy doing previous updates. If it is, I'd like for it to wait until it frees up and then invoke the UpdateUI(e). I was thinking about either: a) //PseudoCode while(form==busy) { // Do nothing; } form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(e); }); How would I check the form==busy? Also, I am not sure that this is a good approach. b) Create an event in form1 that will notify the ThreadBuffer that it is ready to process. // psuedocode List<CustomArgs> elist = new List<CustomArgs>(); public ThreadBuffer(frmUI form, CustomArgs e) { from.OnFreedUp += from_OnFreedUp(); elist.Add(e); } private form_OnFreedUp() { if (elist.count == 0) return; form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(elist[0]); }); elist.Remove(elist[0]); } In this case, how would I write an event that will notify that the form is free? and c) an other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Problems installing a package from PyPI: root files not installed

    - by intuited
    After installing the BitTorrent-bencode package, either via easy_install BitTorrent-bencode or pip install BitTorrent-bencode, or by downloading the tarball and installing that via easy_install $tarball, I discover that /usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/BitTorrent_bencode-5.0.8-py2.6.egg/ contains EGG-INFO/ and test/ directories. Although both of these subdirectories contain files, there are no files in the BitTorr* directory itself. The tarball does contain bencode.py, which is meant to be the actual source for this package, but it's not installed by either of those utils. I'm pretty new to all of this so I'm not sure if this is a problem with the package or with what I'm doing. The package was packaged a while ago (2007), so perhaps it's using some deprecated configuration aspect that I need to supply a command-line flag for. I'm more interested in learning what's wrong with either the package or my procedures than in getting this particular package installed; there is another package called hunnyb that seems to do a decent enough job of decoding bencoded data. Mostly I'd like to know how to deal with such problems in other packages.

    Read the article

  • How can I filter then modify e-mails using IMAP?

    - by swolff1978
    I have asked this question in a different post here on SO: How can a read receipt be suppressed? I have been doing some research of my own to try and solve this problem and accessing the e-mail account via IMAP seems like it is going to be a good solution. I have successfully been able to access my own Inbox and mark messages as read with no issue. I have been asked to preform the same task on an Inbox that contains over 23,000 emails. I would like to run the test on a small amount of e-mails from that inbox before letting the whole 23,000 get it. Here is the code I have been running via telnet: . LOGIN [email protected] password . SELECT Inbox . STORE 1:* flags \Seen 'this line marks all the e-mails as read So my question is how can i execute that store command on a specific group of e-mails... say emails that are going to / coming from a specific account? Is there a way to like concatenate the commands? like a FETCH then the STORE? Or is there a better way to go about getting a collection of e-mails based on certain criteria and then modifying ONLY those e-mails that can be accomplished through IMAP?

    Read the article

  • Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

    - by max
    Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

    Read the article

  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

    Read the article

  • How do I call a variable from another class?

    - by squeezemylime
    I have a class called 'Constants' that I am storing a String variable in. This class contains a few global variables used in my app. I want to be able to reference this class and call the variable (called profileId) in other Views of my app. I looked around and found a few examples, but am not sure how to do this. Currently my setup is: Constants.h @interface Constants : UIViewController { NSString *profileId; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *profileId; @end Constants.m #import "Constants.h" @implementation Constants @synthesize profileId; - (void)dealloc { [profileId release]; [super dealloc]; } And I am trying to call the variable profileId in a new View via this way: NewView.h file @class Constants; NewView.m file NSLog(@"ProfileId is:", [myConstants profileId]); Is there something I'm missing? It is coming up null, even though I am properly storing a value in it in another function via this way: Constants *Constant; Constant = [[Constants alloc] init]; Constant.profileId = userId;

    Read the article

  • Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

    - by user314695
    Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

    Read the article

  • NSManagedObject How To Reload

    - by crissag
    I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

    Read the article

  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >