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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • Two radically different queries against 4 mil records execute in the same time - one uses brute force.

    - by IanC
    I'm using SQL Server 2008. I have a table with over 3 million records, which is related to another table with a million records. I have spent a few days experimenting with different ways of querying these tables. I have it down to two radically different queries, both of which take 6s to execute on my laptop. The first query uses a brute force method of evaluating possibly likely matches, and removes incorrect matches via aggregate summation calculations. The second gets all possibly likely matches, then removes incorrect matches via an EXCEPT query that uses two dedicated indexes to find the low and high mismatches. Logically, one would expect the brute force to be slow and the indexes one to be fast. Not so. And I have experimented heavily with indexes until I got the best speed. Further, the brute force query doesn't require as many indexes, which means that technically it would yield better overall system performance. Below are the two execution plans. If you can't see them, please let me know and I'll re-post then in landscape orientation / mail them to you. Brute-force query: Index-based exception query: My question is, based on the execution plans, which one look more efficient? I realize that thing may change as my data grows.

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  • Pre-populate iPhone Safari SQLite DB

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'm working with a PhoneGap app that uses Safari local storage (SQlite DB) via Javascript: http://developer.apple.com/safari/library/documentation/iPhone/Conceptual/SafariJSDatabaseGuide/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase.html On first load, the app creates the database, tables, and populates the data via a series of INSERT statements. If the user closes the app while this processing is happening, then my app database is left in an inconsistent state. What I prefer to do is deploy the SQLite DB as part of my iTunes App packaging so nothing must be populated at app cold start. However, I'm not sure if that is possible -- all of the google hits for this topic that I can find are referring to the core-data provided SQLite which is not what we're using... If it's not possible, could I wrap the entire thing in a transaction and keep re-trying it when the app is restarted? Failing that, I guess I can create a simple table with one boolean column "is_app_db_loaded?" and set it to true after I've processed all my inserts. But that's really gross... Ideas? Thanks!!

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  • Circular Reference exception with JSON Serialisation with MVC3 and EF4 CTP5w

    - by nakchak
    Hi I'm having problems with a circular reference when i try and serialise an object returned via EF4 CTP5. Im using the code first approach and simple poco's for my model. I have added [ScriptIgnore] attributes to any properties that provide a back references to an object and annoyingly every seems to work fine if i manually instantiate the poco's, i.e. they serialise to JSON fine, and the scriptignore attribute is acknowledged. However when i try and serialise an object returned from the DAL i get the circular reference exception "A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.xxxx'" I have tried several ways of retreiving the data but they all get stuck with this error: public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); TimeSlot ts = tsDao.GetById(id); return Json(ts); } The method below works slightly better as rather than the timeslot dynamic proxied object causing the circular refference its the appointment object. public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); var ts = from t in tsDao.GetQueryable() where t.Id == id select new {t.Id, t.StartTime, t.Available, t.Appointment}; return Json(ts); } Any ideas or solutions to this problem? Update I would prefer to use the out of the box serialiser if possible although Json.Net via nuget is ok as an alternative i would hope its possible to use it as I intended as well...

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  • css layout for footer at bottom with dynamic ajax content changing height of page

    - by m42
    [Update] I actually compromised on this problem for now by foregoing the fixed footer design. It seems that there is no problem with dynamic content moving the footer and resizing containers appropriately unless the footer is fixed to the browser bottom initially. I hope others will eventually provide a great solution that encompasses the best of both worlds. I spent all day trying to get the footer to move down the page to accommodate dynamically added (via ajax) content. I really need some pointers or links because I haven't found anything that helps. Basically: My site has some pages that begin with only a text box and a button so that the total height of the content area is only a few inches beneath the header area. I don't have any problem getting the sticky footer working so that the footer appears at the bottom of the browser window even when there is very little content on screen. That same css layout works fine for other pages that have content that extends beneath the browser window. The catch: The content has to be rendered and passed to the browser with the initial load. The Problem: Any content that is added to the page via AJAX after the initial load paints down the page correctly -- but the footer remains in its initial location. Please tell me there is a fix for this. I can't post the css until checking with my boss first - if possible - and if needed, I will later - but it's just a very basic version of the many sticky footer css solutions floating around the web. Thanks.

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  • Cannot connect to Github?

    - by user2973438
    so I tried to push some updates onto my repo on github via terminal on Mac OSX 10.8.4 and it doesn't work. I've been getting the same error many times: Lillys-MacBook-Air:Yuewei Lilly$ git push origin master error: Failed connect to github.com:443; Operation timed out while accessing https://github.com/lillybeans/Yuewei.git/info/refs?service=git-receive-pack fatal: HTTP request failed Some background: I've pushed many projects onto github before using terminal (when I was in Canada). I am currently in Shanghai, China, could it be the GFW? But when I was in Beijing, I was able to push projects onto github still. when I do ping github.com: Lillys-MacBook-Air:Yuewei Lilly$ ping github.com PING github.com (192.30.252.131): 56 data bytes Request timeout for icmp_seq 0 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1 ping: sendto: No route to host Request timeout for icmp_seq 2 ping: sendto: Host is down Request timeout for icmp_seq 3 ping: sendto: Host is down Request timeout for icmp_seq 4 ping: sendto: Host is down Request timeout for icmp_seq 5 ping: sendto: Host is down Request timeout for icmp_seq 6 ping: sendto: Host is down Request timeout for icmp_seq 7 ^C --- github.com ping statistics --- 9 packets transmitted, 0 packets received, 100.0% packet loss Lillys-MacBook-Air:Yuewei Lilly$ I have ShadowSocks (proxy) turned on. Without it I can't access github.com via browser, with it, I can. also when I do "git remote -v" I see both my pull and push remote repos correctly listed. Thank you in advance!

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  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (-1)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for concurrent connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR) suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer', or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? Otherwise, use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind or GDB

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  • Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

    - by stormdrain
    Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

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  • Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

    - by Tridus
    I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

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  • connecting to secure database from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Why I get this error in CXF

    - by Milan
    I want to make dynamic web service invoker in JSF with CXF. But when I load this simple code I get error. The code: JaxWsDynamicClientFactory dcf = JaxWsDynamicClientFactory.newInstance(); Client client = dcf.createClient("http://ws.strikeiron.com/IPLookup2?wsdl"); The error: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException - No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Any Idea how to solve the problem?

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • Creating C++ client app for some abstract windows server - how to manage TCP connection to server speed?

    - by Kabumbus
    So we have some server with some address port and ip. we are developing that server so we can implement on it what ever we need for help. What are standard/best practices for data transfer speed management between C++ windows client app and server (C++)? My main point is in how to get how much data can be uploaded/downloaded from/to client via his low speed network to my relatively super fast server. (I need it for set up of his live stream Audio/Video bit rate) My try on explaining number 3. We do not care how fast is our server. It is always faster than needed. We care about client tyring to stream out to our server his media. he streams encoded (via ffmpeg) live video data to our server. But he has say ADSL with 500kb/s of outgoing traffic. Also he uses some ICQ or what so ever so he has less than 500 kb/s per second. And he wants to stream live video! So we need to set up our ffmpeg to encode video with respect to the bit rate user can provide. We develop server side and client side. We need a way of finding out how much user can upload per second currently (so value can change dynamically over time)

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  • Where can I find BLAS example code (in Fortran)?

    - by Feynman
    I have been searching for decent documentation on blas, and I have found some 315 pages of dense material that ctrl-f does not work on. It provides all the information regarding what input arguments the routines take, but there are a LOT of input arguments and I could really use some example code. I am unable to locate any. I know there has to be some or no one would be able to use these libraries! Specifically, I use ATLAS installed via macports on a mac osx 10.5.8 and I use gfortran from gcc 4.4 (also installed via macports). I am coding in Fortran 90. I am still quite new to Fortran, but I have a fair amount of experience with mathematica, matlab, perl, and shell scripting. I would like to be able to initialize and multiply a dense complex vector by a dense symmetric (but not hermitian) complex matrix. The elements of the matrix are defined through a mathematical function of the indices--call it f(i,j). Could anyone provide some code or a link to some code?

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  • HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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  • Passing a WHERE clause for a Linq-to-Sql query as a parameter

    - by Mantorok
    Hi all This is probably pushing the boundaries of Linq-to-Sql a bit but given how versatile it has been so far I thought I'd ask. I have 3 queries that are selecting identical information and only differ in the where clause, now I know I can pass a delegate in but this only allows me to filter the results already returned, but I want to build up the query via parameter to ensure efficiency. Here is the query: from row in DataContext.PublishedEvents join link in DataContext.PublishedEvent_EventDateTimes on row.guid equals link.container join time in DataContext.EventDateTimes on link.item equals time.guid where row.ApprovalStatus == "Approved" && row.EventType == "Event" && time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) orderby time.StartDate select new EventDetails { Title = row.EventName, Description = TrimDescription(row.Description) }; The code I want to apply via a parameter would be: time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) Is this possible? I don't think it is but thought I'd check out first. Thanks

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Implementation of MVC with SQLite and NSURLConnection, use cases?

    - by user324723
    I'm interested in knowing how others have implemented/designed database & web services in their iphone app and how they simplified it for the entire application. My application is dependent on these services and I can't figure out a efficient way to use them together due to the (semi)complexity of my requirements. My past attempts on combining them haven't been completely successful or at least optimal in my mind. I'm building a database driven iphone app that uses a relational database in sqlite and consumes web services based on missing content or user interaction. Like this hasn't been done before...right? Since I am using a relational database - any web services consumed requires normalization, parsing the result and persisting it to the database before it can be displayed in a table view controller. The applications UI consists of nested(nav controller) table views where a user can select a cell and be taken to the next table view where it attempts to populate the table views data source from the database. If nothing exists in the database then it will send a request via web services to download its content, thus download - parse - persist - query - display. Since the user has the ability to request a refresh of this data it still requires the same process. Quickly describing what I've implemented and tried to run with - 1st attempt - Used a singleton web service class that handled sending web service requests, parsing the result and returning it to the table view controller via delegate protocols. Once the controller received that data it would then be responsible for persisting it to the database and re-returning the result. I didn't like the idea of only preventing the case where the app delegate selector doesn't exists(released) causing the app to crash. 2nd attempt - Used NSNotificationCenter for easy access to both database and web services but later realized it was more complex due to adding and removing observers per view(which isn't advised anyways).

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  • Support clicking a link, but sending a POST (vs GET) to the server, without Ajax?

    - by xyld
    I'm thinking this isn't exactly possible, but maybe I'm wrong. I'm simply torn between those who believe that only POST requests should modify data on the server and people that relax the rule and allow GET requests to modify data. Take this situation. Say you have a table, each row is a row in the database. I'd like to allow them to delete the row via a fancy "X" icon as the very last <td></td> element in the row. AFAIK, the only way to send a POST to the server is via a form. But do I really stuff an entire form into the last <td></td> element just to do a POST? Or should I cheat and use an <a href=...></a> tag that sends a GET request? You may be thinking "Do both! Send a POST AND use the <a ...></a> tag! Use fancy javascript + xhr!" And I'll say, oh? And how will that degrade in a zero javascript environment? Maybe we've reached a point when it doesn't make sense to worry about gracefully degrading? I'm not sure. You tell me? I'm new to web development, but I understand most of the concepts involved.

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  • Snow Leopard mounted directory changes permissions sporadically

    - by Galen
    I have a smb mounted directory: /Volumes/myshare This was mounted via Finder "Connect to Server..." with smb://myservername/myshare Everything good so far. However, when I try to access the directory via PHP (running under Apache), it fails with permission denied about 10% of the time. By this I mean that repeated accesses to my page sometimes result in a failure. My PHP page looks like: <?php $cmd = "ls -la /Volumes/ 2>&1"; exec($cmd, $execOut, $exitCode); echo "<PRE>EXIT CODE = $exitCode<BR/>"; foreach($execOut as $line) { echo "$line <BR/>"; } echo "</PRE>"; ?> When it succeeds it looks like: EXIT CODE = 0 total 40 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. drwx------ 1 galen staff 16384 Jun 14 09:28 myshare lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / When it fails it looks like: EXIT CODE = 1 ls: myshare: Permission denied total 8 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / OTHER INFO: I'm working with the PHP (5.3.1), and Apache server that comes out of the box with Snow Leopard. Also, if I write a PHP script that loops and retries the "ls -la.." from the command-line, it doesn't seem to fail. Nothing is changing about the code and/or filesystem between succeeds and fails, so this appears to be a truly intermittent failure. This is driving me crazy. Anyone have any idea what might be going on? Thanks, Galen

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  • Problem registering a COM server written for Excel registered on client machine (can't set full path

    - by toytrains
    In this previous question <How to get COM Server for Excel written in VB.NET installed and registered in Automation Servers list? there is an example of how to create the full path to a registry key using VS 2008. Everything in the previous answer works correctly except the full path that I am setting (using the registry editor in VS) for mscoree.dll is not working (meaning it seems to do nothing). The full registry path is: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID{my_GUID}\InprocServer32(default) and the value I am setting is: [SystemFolder]mscoree.dll I can put anything (including hardcoding the full path) but the setting does not seem to matter and the registry always contains mscoree.dll without any path. I have tried adding another value to the registry path via VS and that works correctly including having the full path as specified by [SystemFolder]. The reason I need the full path (as explained in the previous question) is that without the path, Excel generates an error when the automation server is selected as it cannot find mscoree.dll (interestingly even though I receive an error the registration works OK). I am doing the install via a setup project which otherwise works fine. I am installing on a VISTA*64 system but have gotten the same error on other OS's. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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