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  • Using mod-rewrite to conditionally select existing file in a subdirectory based on Host header?

    - by Kevin Hakanson
    I'm working through a problem where I want to select a different static content file based on the incoming Host header. The simple example is a mapping from URLs to files like this: www.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\logo.gif skin2.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin2\logo.gif skin3.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin3logo.gif I have this working with the following RewriteRules, but I don't like how I have to repeat myself so much. Each host has the same set of rules, and each RewriteCond and RewriteRule has the same path. I'd like to use the RewriteMap, but I don't know how to use it to map the %{HTTP_HOST} to the path. <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/htdocs" ServerName www.example.com ServerAlias skin2.example.com ServerAlias skin3.example.com RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin2.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin2/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin2/$2 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin3.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin3/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin3/$2 [L] </VirtualHost> The concept behind the rules is if the same filename exists in a subdirectory for that host, use it instead of the direct targeted file. This uses host based subdirectories at the lowest level, and not a top level subdirectory to separate content.

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  • help understanding differences between #define, const and enum in C and C++ on assembly level.

    - by martin
    recently, i am looking into assembly codes for #define, const and enum: C codes(#define): 3 #define pi 3 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 a=2*pi*r; 8 return 0; 9 } assembly codes(for line 6 and 7 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(enum): 2 int main(void) 3 { 4 int a,r=1; 5 enum{pi=3}; 6 a=2*pi*r; 7 return 0; 8 } assembly codes(for line 4 and 6 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(const): 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 const int pi=3; 8 a=2*pi*r; 9 return 0; 10 } assembly codes(for line 7 and 8 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 movl $0x3, -0x8(%ebp) 7 movl $0x3, -0x4(%ebp) 8 mov -0x4(%ebp), %eax 8 add %eax, %eax 8 imul -0x8(%ebp), %eax 8 mov %eax, 0xc(%ebp) i found that use #define and enum, the assembly codes are the same. The compiler use 3 add instructions to perform multiplication. However, when use const, imul instruction is used. Anyone knows the reason behind that?

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

    - by Decker
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • How to get the coordinates of an image mouse click in the event handler?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In the following WPF app, I have an Image in a ContentControl. When the user clicks on the image, how can I get the x/y coordinates of where the mouse clicked on the image? XAML: <Window x:Class="TestClick828374.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel Margin="10"> <ContentControl Content="{Binding TheImage}" MouseDown="ContentControl_MouseDown"/> </StackPanel> </Window> Code-Behind: using System; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.ComponentModel; namespace TestClick828374 { public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { #region ViewModelProperty: TheImage private Image _theImage; public Image TheImage { get { return _theImage; } set { _theImage = value; OnPropertyChanged("TheImage"); } } #endregion public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; TheImage = new Image(); TheImage.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\test\rectangle.png")); TheImage.Stretch = Stretch.None; TheImage.HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Left; } #region INotifiedProperty Block public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) { handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #endregion private void ContentControl_MouseDown(object sender, System.Windows.Input.MouseButtonEventArgs e) { //how to get the coordinates of the mouse click here on the image? } } }

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  • Tortoise svn Subversion Update Error

    - by Boushley
    Hey All, I recently was working on an open source project... Everything was going great for a week or two but them something happened and I don't know what, and I can't update anymore! I know the url is correct, because I can check it out on my linux server... but when I try to check it out with tortoise svn on my windows box it doesn't work. The error message I'm getting is this OPTIONS of 'http://opensource.adobe.com/svn/opensource/flex/sdk/branches': 200 OK (http://opensource.adobe.com) Does anyone know what that means. The 200 OK part seems odd to me... it connected to the server but wasn't able to get the code? And what does OPTIONS of... mean? I've looked around, and some people were having proxy issues... but i'm not behind a proxy, and I made sure that tortoise svn is not trying to use a proxy. If anyone could help, that would be great! Boushley

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  • SPRING: How do you programmatically instantiate classes based on information passed from Flex UI

    - by babyangel86
    Imagine the UI passes back an XMl node as such: <properties> <type> Source </type> <name> Blooper </name> <delay> <type> Deterministic </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> </parameters> <delay> <batch> <type> Erlang </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> <param> 6 </param> </parameters> <batch> And behind the scene what it is asking that you instantiate a class as such: new Source("blooper", new Exp(4), new Erlang(4,6); The problem lies in the fact that you don't know what class you will need to processing, and you will be sent a list of these class definitions with instructions on how they can be linked to each other. I've heard that using a BeanFactoryPostProcessor might be helpful, or a property editor/convertor. However I am at a loss as to how best to use them to solve my problem. Any help you can provide will be much appreciated.

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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  • Displaying Flex Object References

    - by Pie21
    I have a bit of a memory leak issue in my Flex application, and the short version of my question is: is there any way (in AcitonScript 3) to find all live references to a given object? What I have is a number of views with presentation models behind each of them (using Swiz). The views of interest are children of a TabNavigator, so when I close the tab, the view is removed from the stage. When the view is removed from the stage, Swiz sets the model reference in the view to null, as it should. I also removeAllChildren() from the view. However when profiling the application, when I do this and run a GC, neither the view nor the presentation model are freed (though both set their references to each other to null). One model object used by the view (not a presenter, though) IS freed, so it's not completely broken. I've only just started profiling today (firmly believing in not optimising too early), so I imagine there's some kind of reference floating around somewhere, but I can't see where, and what would be super helpful would be the ability to debug and see a list of objects that reference the target object. Is this at all possible, and if not natively, is there some light-weight way to code this into future apps for debugging purposes? Cheers.

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  • .change(function) can control two command

    - by klox
    dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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  • Why doesn't this data binding work?

    - by Qwertie
    I have a ViewModel class that contains a list of points, and I am trying to bind it to a Polyline. The Polyline picks up the initial list of points, but does not notice when additional points are added even though I implement INotifyPropertyChanged. What's wrong? <StackPanel> <Button Click="Button_Click">Add!</Button> <Polyline x:Name="_line" Points="{Binding Pts}" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="5"/> </StackPanel> C# side: // code-behind _line.DataContext = new ViewModel(); private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // The problem is here: NOTHING HAPPENS ON-SCREEN! ((ViewModel)_line.DataContext).AddPoint(); } // ViewModel class public class ViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public PointCollection Pts { get; set; } public ViewModel() { Pts = new PointCollection(); Pts.Add(new Point(1, 1)); Pts.Add(new Point(11, 11)); } public void AddPoint() { Pts.Add(new Point(25, 13)); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("Pts")); } }

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  • iPhone - adding views and landscape orientation

    - by Franz
    I got a problem with Cocoa touch and landscape orientation. I instantiate my view from a .xib; i added in my view controller - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight; } to only allow landscape orientation. This works find for the first view i add.. if I add a second view however it is rotated again like the landscape view is shown in portrait mode (rotated 90 degree counterclockwise). I really don't know what is going on and can't find a workaround. I even tried to get behind what is happening just adding my view twice: MainMenuViewController* controller = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller.view]; MainMenuViewController* controller2 = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller2.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; The view of controller is displayed correctly, while the view of controller2 is rotated by 90 degrees. Does anyone have an idea how this can happen? Thanks for your help.

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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  • How should I organize complex SQL views in Rails?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I manage a research database with Ruby on Rails. The data that is entered is primarily used by scientists who prefer to have all the relevant information for a study in one single massive table for use in their statistics software of choice. I'm currently presenting it as CSV, as it's very straightforward to do and compatible with the tools people want to use. I've written many views (the SQL kind, not the Rails HTML/ERB kind) to make the output they expect a reality. Some of these views are quite large and have a fair amount of complexity behind them. I wrote them in SQL because there are many calculations and comparisons that are more easily done with SQL. They're currently loaded into the database straight from a file named views.sql. To get the requested data, I do a select * from my_view;. The views.sql file is getting quite large. Part of the problem is that we're still figuring out what the data we collect means, so there's a lot of changes being made to the views all the time -- and a ton of them are being created. Many of them need to be repeatable. I've recently run into issues organizing and testing these views. Rails works great for user interface stuff and business logic, but I'm not aware of much existing structure for handling the reporting we require. Some options I've thought of: Should I move them into the most relevant models somehow? Several of the views interact with each other, which makes this situation more complex than just doing a single find_by_sql, so I don't know if they should only be part of the model. Perhaps they should be treated as a "view" in the MVC sense? (That is, they could be moved into app/views/ and live alongside the HTML, perhaps as files named something like my_view.csv.sql which return CSV.) How would you deal with a complex reporting problem like this?

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  • How to handle not-enough-isolatedstorage issue deep in data loader?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which loads data from many external data sources into IsolatedStorage, and while loading any of these sources if it does not have enough IsolatedStorage, it ends up in a catch statement. At that point in that catch statement I would like to ask the user to click a button to approve silverlight to increase the IsolatedStorage capacity. The problem is, although I have a "SwitchPage()" method with which I display a page, if I access it at this point it is too deep in the loading process and the application always goes into an endless loop, hangs and crashes. I need a way to branch out of the application completely somehow to an independent UserControl which has a button and code behind which does the increase logic. What is a solution for an application to be able to branch out of a loading process catch statement like this, display a user control which has a button to ask the user to increase the IsolatedStorage? public static void SaveBitmapImageToIsolatedStorageFile(OpenReadCompletedEventArgs e, string fileName) { try { using (IsolatedStorageFile isf = IsolatedStorageFile.GetUserStoreForApplication()) { using (IsolatedStorageFileStream isfs = new IsolatedStorageFileStream(fileName, FileMode.Create, isf)) { Int64 imgLen = (Int64)e.Result.Length; byte[] b = new byte[imgLen]; e.Result.Read(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Write(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Flush(); isfs.Close(); isf.Dispose(); } } } catch (IsolatedStorageException) { //handle: present user with button to increase isolated storage } catch (TargetInvocationException) { //handle: not saved } }

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  • Why can't decimal numbers be represented exactly in binary?

    - by Barry Brown
    There have been several questions posted to SO about floating-point representation. For example, the decimal number 0.1 doesn't have an exact binary representation, so it's dangerous to use the == operator to compare it to another floating-point number. I understand the principles behind floating-point representation. What I don't understand is why, from a mathematical perspective, are the numbers to the right of the decimal point any more "special" that the ones to the left? For example, the number 61.0 has an exact binary representation because the integral portion of any number is always exact. But the number 6.10 is not exact. All I did was move the decimal one place and suddenly I've gone from Exactopia to Inexactville. Mathematically, there should be no intrinsic difference between the two numbers -- they're just numbers. By contrast, if I move the decimal one place in the other direction to produce the number 610, I'm still in Exactopia. I can keep going in that direction (6100, 610000000, 610000000000000) and they're still exact, exact, exact. But as soon as the decimal crosses some threshold, the numbers are no longer exact. What's going on? Edit: to clarify, I want to stay away from discussion about industry-standard representations, such as IEEE, and stick with what I believe is the mathematically "pure" way. In base 10, the positional values are: ... 1000 100 10 1 1/10 1/100 ... In binary, they would be: ... 8 4 2 1 1/2 1/4 1/8 ... There are also no arbitrary limits placed on these numbers. The positions increase indefinitely to the left and to the right.

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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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  • master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

    - by b0x0rz
    the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

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  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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  • Intermittent bug - IE6 showing file as text in browser, rather than as file download

    - by Richard Ev
    In an ASP.NET WebForms 2.0 site we are encountering an intermittent bug in IE6 whereby a file download attempt results in the contents of the being shown directly in the browser as text, rather than the file save dialog being displayed. Our application allows the user to download both PDF and CSV files. The code we're using is: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.End(); This is called from the code-behind click event handler of a button server control. Where are we going wrong with this approach? Edit Following James' answer to this posting, the code I'm using now looks like this: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.ClearHeaders(); // Setting cache to NoCache was recommended, but doing so results in a security // warning in IE6 //response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.Flush(); response.End(); However, I don't believe that any of the changes made will fix the issue.

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  • ASP.NET page with base class with dynamic master page not firing events

    - by Kangkan
    Hi guys! I am feeling that I have terribly wrong somewhere. I was working on a small asp.net app. I have some dynamic themes in the \theme folder and have implemented a page base class to load the master page on the fly. The master is having the ContentPlaceHolder like: <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphBody" runat="server" /> Now I am adding pages that are derived from my base class and added the form elements. I know, Visual Studio has problem showing the page in the design mode. I have a dropdown box and wish to add the event of onselectedindexchange. But it is not working. the page is like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="trigon.web.Pages.MIS.JobStatus" Title="Job Status" AspCompat="true" CodeBehind="JobStatus.aspx.cs" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphBody" runat="Server"> <div id="divError" runat="server" /> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" id="jobType" onselectedindexchange="On_jobTypeSelection_Change"></asp:DropDownList> </asp:Content> I have also tried adding the event on the code behind like: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { jobType.SelectedIndexChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.On_jobTypeSelection_Change); if (!IsPostBack) { JobStatus_DA da = new JobStatus_DA(); jobType.DataSource = da.getJobTypes(); jobType.DataBind(); } } protected void On_jobTypeSelection_Change(Object sender, EventArgs e) { //do something here } Can anybody help? Regards,

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