Search Results

Search found 10634 results on 426 pages for 'pass'.

Page 347/426 | < Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >

  • Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • Is there a standard syntax for encoding structure objects as HTTP GET request parameters?

    - by lexicore
    Imagine we need to pass a a number structured objects to the web application - for instance, locale, layout settings and a definition of some query. This can be easily done with JSON or XML similar to the following fragment: <Locale>en</Locale> <Layout> <Block id="header">hide</Block> <Block id="footer">hide</Block> <Block id="navigation">minimize</Block> </Layout> <Query> <What>water</What> <When> <Start>2010-01-01</Start> </When> </Query> However, passing such structures with HTTP implies (roughly speaking) HTTP POST. Now assume we're limited to HTTP GET. Is there some kind of a standard solution for encoding structured data in HTTP GET request parameters? I can easily imagine something like: Locale=en& Layout.Block.header=hide& Layout.Block.footer=hide& Layout.Block.navigation=minimize& Query.What=water& Query.When.Start=2010-01-01 But what I'm looking for is a "standard" syntax, if there's any. ps. I'm surely aware of the problem with URL length. Please assume that it's not a problem in this case.

    Read the article

  • Emptying the datastore in GAE

    - by colwilson
    I know what you're thinking, 'O not that again!', but here we are since Google have not yet provided a simpler method. I have been using a queue based solution which worked fine: import datetime from models import * DELETABLE_MODELS = [Alpha, Beta, AlphaBeta] def initiate_purge(): for e in config.DELETABLE_MODELS: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, 'purging', _queue = 'purging') class NotEmptyException(Exception): pass def delete_entities(e, queue): try: q = e.all(keys_only=True) db.delete(q.fetch(200)) ct = q.count(1) if ct > 0: raise NotEmptyException('there are still entities to be deleted') else: logging.info('processing %s completed' % queue) except Exception, err: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, then, queue, _queue = queue) logging.info('processing %s deferred: %s' % (queue, err)) All this does is queue a request to delete some data (once for each class) and then if the queued process either fails or knows there is still some stuff to delete, it re-queues itself. This beats the heck out of hitting the refresh on a browser for 10 minutes. However, I'm having trouble deleting AlphaBeta entities, there are always a few left at the end. I think because it contains Reference Properties: class AlphaBeta(db.Model): alpha = db.ReferenceProperty(Alpha, required=True, collection_name='betas') beta = db.ReferenceProperty(Beta, required=True, collection_name='alphas') I have tried deleting the indexes relating to these entity types, but that did not make any difference. Any advice would be appreciated please.

    Read the article

  • Separating columnName and Value in C#

    - by KungfuPanda
    hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

    Read the article

  • Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

    Read the article

  • Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

    - by Bob
    What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

    Read the article

  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

    Read the article

  • Swipe left/right to push next/previous details view

    - by Youssef
    I am working on a ios application, using storyboard. I have a simple table view with rows. Each row has a "key" string to identify it. When the user clicks on a row I push the next view "DetailsViewController" and pass the "key" as a parameter in the prepareForSegue method. The data in the second view will change based on the "key" passed. In the "DetailsViewController" I want to add a swipe gesture, when the user swipes right, I want to push the next details view. It will be as if he clicked on the next row in the table view. So to rephrase, the user has 2 ways of switching between items: he can click the item in the table view and the details view will show, he can then go back and select another item. Or he can click on a row, and in the details view he can swipe left and right to see the previous/next item. i added the uigesture recognizer: UISwipeGestureRecognizer *recognizer; recognizer = [[UISwipeGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleSwipe:)]; [recognizer setDirection:UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionRight]; [[self view] addGestureRecognizer:recognizer]; - (void) handleSwipe:(UISwipeGestureRecognizer *) sender { //I want to go to the next item in the tableview } I hope I was clear. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Generating a field setter and getter with ASM

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and maybe one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

    - by Pria
    I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

    Read the article

  • Configuring TeamCity + NUnit unit tests so files can be loaded properly

    - by Dave
    In a nutshell, I have a solution that builds fine in the IDE, and the unit tests all run fine with the NUnit GUI (via the NUnitit VS2008 plugin). However, when I execute my TeamCity build runner, all unit tests that require file access (e.g. for running tests against specific XML files), I just get System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundExceptions. The reason for this is clear: it's looking for those supporting XML files loaded by various unit tests in the wrong folder. The way my unit tests are structured looks like this: +-- project folder +-- unit tests folder +-- test.xml +-- test.cs +-- project file.xaml +-- project file.xaml.cs All of my projects own their own UnitTests folder, which contains the .cs file and any XML files, XML Schemas, etc that are necessary to run the tests. So when I write my test.cs, I have it look for "test.xml" in the code because they are in the same folder (actually, I do something like ....\unit tests\test.xml, but that's kind of silly). As I said before, the tests run great in NUnit. But that's because the unit tests are part of the project. When running the unit tests from TeamCity, I am executing them against the assemblies that get copied to the main app's output folder. These unit test XML files should not be copied willy-nilly to the output folder just to make the tests pass. Can anyone suggest a better method of organizing my unit tests in each project (which are dependencies for the main app), such that I can execute the unit tests from NUnit and from the TeamCity build runner? The only other option I can come up with is to just put the testing XML data in code, rather than loading it from a file. I would rather not do this.

    Read the article

  • Zend Form - how do I create these custom form elements?

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    This is a very specific instance where I'm having difficulty getting Zend Form to produce the correct output and supply the correct validation. I may have to go create a composite element but thought I'd ask here first. Here is the HTML I'm trying to get Zend Form to produce. I'd like this to be able to work where if the validation doesn't pass that the error messages still show up inline with the field that produced the error. <tr> <td>Budget</td> <td> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="unlimited" /> unlimited <br /> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="limited" /> $ <input type="text" name="budget_amount" /> every <select name="budget_period"> <option value="day">day</option> <option value="week">week</option> <option value="month">month</option> <option value="year">year</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="include_weekends" value="yes" /> include weekends?</td> </tr> The user can choose either unlimited or limited for the budget value, however, if they choose limited, then they are required to enter a value for the budget amount field and choose a value from the select for the budget period field.

    Read the article

  • wscript.shell running file with space in path with PHP

    - by ermac2014
    I was trying to use wscript.shell through COM objects with php to pass some cmd commands to cURL library (the DOS version). here is what I use to perform this task: function windExec($cmd,$mode=''){ // Setup the command to run from "run" $cmdline = "cmd /C $cmd"; // set-up the output and mode if ($mode=='FG'){ $outputfile = uniqid(time()) . ".txt"; $cmdline .= " > $outputfile"; $m = true; } else $m = false; // Make a new instance of the COM object $WshShell = new COM("WScript.Shell"); // Make the command window but dont show it. $oExec = $WshShell->Run($cmdline, 0, $m); if ($outputfile){ // Read the tmp file. $retStr = file_get_contents($outputfile); // Delete the temp_file. unlink($outputfile); } else $retStr = ""; return $retStr; } now when I run this function like: windExec("\"C:/Documents and Settings/ermac/Desktop/my project/curl\" http://www.google.com/", 'FG'); curl doesn't run because there is a problem with the path. but when I remove the spaces from the path it works great. windExec("\"C:/curl\" http://www.google.com/", 'FG'); so my question is how can I escape these spaces in wscript.shell commands? is there anyway I can fix this? thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Python: Convert format string to regular expression

    - by miracle2k
    The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

    Read the article

  • Bad performance function in PHP. With large files memory blows up! How can I refactor?

    - by André
    Hi I have a function that strips out lines from files. I'm handling with large files(more than 100Mb). I have the PHP Memory with 256MB but the function that handles with the strip out of lines blows up with a 100MB CSV File. What the function must do is this: Originally I have the CSV like: Copyright (c) 2007 MaxMind LLC. All Rights Reserved. locId,country,region,city,postalCode,latitude,longitude,metroCode,areaCode 1,"O1","","","",0.0000,0.0000,, 2,"AP","","","",35.0000,105.0000,, 3,"EU","","","",47.0000,8.0000,, 4,"AD","","","",42.5000,1.5000,, 5,"AE","","","",24.0000,54.0000,, 6,"AF","","","",33.0000,65.0000,, 7,"AG","","","",17.0500,-61.8000,, 8,"AI","","","",18.2500,-63.1667,, 9,"AL","","","",41.0000,20.0000,, When I pass the CSV file to this function I got: locId,country,region,city,postalCode,latitude,longitude,metroCode,areaCode 1,"O1","","","",0.0000,0.0000,, 2,"AP","","","",35.0000,105.0000,, 3,"EU","","","",47.0000,8.0000,, 4,"AD","","","",42.5000,1.5000,, 5,"AE","","","",24.0000,54.0000,, 6,"AF","","","",33.0000,65.0000,, 7,"AG","","","",17.0500,-61.8000,, 8,"AI","","","",18.2500,-63.1667,, 9,"AL","","","",41.0000,20.0000,, It only strips out the first line, nothing more. The problem is the performance of this function with large files, it blows up the memory. The function is: public function deleteLine($line_no, $csvFileName) { // this function strips a specific line from a file // if a line is stripped, functions returns True else false // // e.g. // deleteLine(-1, xyz.csv); // strip last line // deleteLine(1, xyz.csv); // strip first line // Assigna o nome do ficheiro $filename = $csvFileName; $strip_return=FALSE; $data=file($filename); $pipe=fopen($filename,'w'); $size=count($data); if($line_no==-1) $skip=$size-1; else $skip=$line_no-1; for($line=0;$line<$size;$line++) if($line!=$skip) fputs($pipe,$data[$line]); else $strip_return=TRUE; return $strip_return; } It is possible to refactor this function to not blow up with the 256MB PHP Memory? Give me some clues. Best Regards,

    Read the article

  • google chrome extension update text after response callback

    - by Jerome
    I am writing a Google Chrome extension. I have reached the stage where I can pass messages back and forth readily but I am running into trouble with using the response callback. My background page opens a message page and then the message page requests more information from background. When the message page receives the response I want to replace some of the standard text on the message page with custom text based on the response. Here is the code: chrome.extension.sendRequest({cmd: "sendKeyWords"}, function(response) { keyWordList=response.keyWordsFound; var keyWords=""; for (var i = 0; i FIRST QUESTION: This all seems to work fine but the text on the page doesn't change. I am almost certainly because the callback completes after the page is finished loading and the rest of the code finishes before the callback completes, too. How do I update the page with the new text? Can I listen for the callback to complete or something like that? SECOND QUESTION: The procedure I am pursuing first opens the message page and then the message page requests the keyword list from background. Since I always want the keyword list, it makes more sense to just send it when I create the tab. Can I do that? Here is the code from background that opens the message page: //when request from detail page to open message page chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if(request.cmd == "openMessage") { console.log("Received Request to Open Message, Profile Score: "+request.keyWordsFound.length); keyWordList=request.keyWordsFound; chrome.tabs.create({url: request.url}, function(tab){ msgTabId=tab.id; //needed to determine if message tab has later been closed chrome.tabs.executeScript(tab.id, {file: "message.js"}); }); console.log("Opening Message"); } });

    Read the article

  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

    Read the article

  • How do i make divs go into another row when full?

    - by acidzombie24
    My code is something like the below. When theres 3 images everything is fine once theres 4 it gets full and moves the entire div.top into another row. How do i make the div inside top just start a new row instead? I tried writing .top width=500px but once it hits or passes it instead the images inside are squeeze together instead of each being 150x150. I tried max-width on top instead and in opera and chrome i see the border of top as 500width but the images continue to render pass it. (i have a firefox problem with my div so the width looks fixed to something else). So how do i make these divs go into another row? and not try to squeeze together <div class="top"> <div><a href><img/></a></div> <div><a href><img/></a></div> <div><a href><img/></a></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Using WordPress as a CMS

    - by tonsils
    Hi, Hoping someone can assist but I am currently teaching myself WordPress and working on my own CMS site. My site will consist of approx 5 pages where the header/sidebar menu/footer will be seen on all these 5 pages. Newbie here and questions are as follows: 1) All these 5 pages will consist of different content, for example, every page will have a image banner representing the menu option just clicked, for example, "About Us" on page 5, "Promotions" on page 4 etc and then some text beneath that and then possibly some images inside a carousel set up. Within WordPress, how would I tackle this, i.e. do I just create a page in WordPress, position the banner image at the top of the page, then have a few breaks and then insert the carousel of images - is this correct? If not, do I need to create a separate php file called aboutUs.php that has this markup and then somehow link it to a WordPress page? 2) On my landing page of my site ONLY (page 1), just above the footer, I want to display a div section that displays all the sponsors of the website along with a URL to click to their websites - how would I go about doing this in WordPress? If there are any sites that people know that will somehow answer my queries, pls pass them on. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • gpg error - connection already closed?

    - by OopsForgotMyOtherUserName
    omg... hope someone can help me because I am so lost as to what to try next.... I don't know what is causing the error to happen, and I don't see how to figure it out... Keep going between the pgloader.conf examples and what I have, and I don't understand why I keep getting the 'connection already closed' error? The first few lines of my fr.conf is at the very end... I'd really appreciate / love some guidance here... Been trying to get this thing going all morning, and am even getting stuck just on this part... Running this command at the command line: /usr/bin/pgloader -c /var/mybin/pgconfs/fr.conf Yields this in the pgloader.log (with the process just hanging) more /tmp/pgloader.log 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Logger initialized 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Reformat path is ['/usr/share/python-support/pgloader/reformat'] 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO Will consider following sections: 27-03-2010 12:22:53 pgloader INFO fixed 27-03-2010 12:22:54 fixed INFO fixed processing 27-03-2010 12:22:54 pgloader INFO All threads are started, wait for them to terminate 27-03-2010 12:22:57 fixed ERROR connection already closed 27-03-2010 12:22:57 fixed INFO closing current database connection [pgsql] host = localhost port = 5432 base = frdb user = username pass = password [fixed] table = fr format = fixed filename = /var/www/fr.txt ...

    Read the article

  • How to upload video to favorite/playlist using gdata in objective c

    - by Swati
    hi, i am trying to upload a video to favorite in my account but it shows Invalid request Uri and status code =400 i dont understand how should i format my request my code NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/username/favorite]; ASIFormDataRequest *request = [ASIFormDataRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setPostValue:@"gdata.youtube.com" forKey:@"Host"]; [request setPostValue:@"application/atom+xml" forKey:@"Content-Type"]; [request setPostValue:@"CONTENT_LENGTH" forKey:@"Content-Length"]; [request setPostValue:@"" forKey:@"AuthSubToken"]; [request setPostValue:@"2" forKey:@"GData-Version"]; [request setPostValue:developer_key forKey:@"X-GData-Key"]; [request setPostValue:xml_data forKey:@"API_XML_Request"]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setDidFailSelector:@selector(requestFailed:)]; [request setDidFinishSelector:@selector(gotTheResponse:)]; [[networkQueue go]; i have auth token and developer key, VIDEO_ID.but m not sure how to pass xml data in post request: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <entry xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <id>VIDEO_ID</id> </entry> NSString *xml_data = contains xml data in string form

    Read the article

  • Passing PHP variables trough functions?

    - by Mateus Nunes
    I'm facing some troubles to pass php variables value trough functions,every time i try to use a variable inside one of my functions its value becomes nil,let me be more specific.I have the following code in my php file: $myvar = $Session['username']; function updateuserinformation(){ if(trim($_FILES["fileUpload"]["tmp_name"]) != ""){ $images = $_FILES["fileUpload"]["tmp_name"]; $new_images = "thumbnails_".$_FILES["fileUpload"]["name"]; copy($_FILES["fileUpload"]["tmp_name"],"Photos/".$_FILES["fileUpload"]["name"]); $width=200; //*** Fix Width & Heigh (Autu caculate) ***// $size=GetimageSize($images); $height=round($width*$size[1]/$size[0]); $images_orig = ImageCreateFromJPEG($images); $photoX = ImagesX($images_orig); $photoY = ImagesY($images_orig); $images_fin = ImageCreateTrueColor($width, $height); ImageCopyResampled($images_fin, $images_orig, 0, 0, 0, 0, $width+1, $height+1, $photoX, $photoY); ImageJPEG($images_fin,"Photos/".$new_images); ImageDestroy($images_orig); ImageDestroy($images_fin); print $data["foo"]; echo"$myvar"; mysql_query("UPDATE users SET userpictureaddress = 'http://www.litsdevelopment.com/litsapplication/userimages/MATEUS' WHERE username = 'Mateus' "); } } I trying to use the $myvar value in my function but every time i run the code it just doesn't work,i've already tried global,globals,arrays and session for nothing worked.Of corse i'm making a little mistake in some part of it,but anyone know what is the correct way to do this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >