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  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • c++-to-python swig caused memory leak! Related to Py_BuildValue and SWIG_NewPointerObj

    - by usfree74
    Hey gurus, I have the following Swig code that caused memory leak. PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer return Py_BuildValue( "(fO)", match, SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 0 /* own */)); } I figured that ptr is not freed properly. So I did the following: PyObject* FindBestMatch(const Bar& fp) { Foo* ptr(new Foo()); float match; // call a function to fill the foo pointer *PyObject *o = SWIG_NewPointerObj(ptr, SWIGTYPE_p_Foo, 1 /* own */);* <------- 1 means pass the ownership to python PyObject *result = Py_BuildValue("(fO)", match, o); Py_XDECREF(o); return result; } But I am not very sure whether this will cause memory corruption. Here, Py_XDECREF(o) will decrease the ref count, which can free memory used by object "o". But o is part of the return value "result". Freeing "o" can cause data corrupt, I guess? I tried my change. It works fine and the caller (python code) does see the expected data. But this could be because nobody else overwrites to that memory area. So what's the right way to deal with memory management of the above code? I search the swig docs, but don't see very concrete description. Please help! Thanks, xin

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  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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  • Native Endians and Auto Conversion

    - by KnickerKicker
    so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • How to specialize template for type derived from particular type

    - by relaxxx
    I have class World which manages creation of object... After creation it calls afterCreation method and I the created object is user-defined type derived from Entity (eg. MyEntity), I want to call addEntity. I the object was something else, I want to do nothing. addEntity must be called with appropriate T, because it generates unique IDs for every derived class etc. Here is my solution: template <int v> struct ToType { enum { value = v }; }; template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t) { afterCreation(t, ToType<std::is_base_of<Entity, T>::value>()); } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<true>) { addEntity(t); //here I cant pass Entity *, I need the real type, eg. MyEntity } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<false>) { } My question is - Can in be done better way? How can I simulate following code without ToType or similar? template <typename T> void afterCreation(){/*generic impl*/} template <typename T where T is derived from Entity> void afterCreation(){/*some specific stuff*/} "specialize" in the title is only to describe my intention, no need to solve problem with template specialization

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • Really Need a Facebook App to post to Facebook Page Wall?

    - by Lee Englestone
    Hi, I'm using the Facebook API Graph (C# & ASP.NET) to try to dynamically post to a Facebook page I created. Looking at the code samples floating around.. they suggest creating a Facebook App first (which I have done).. However.. I have 3 different pages I want to post to.. Do I need to create an app for each? (I want to post different things to the 3 pages, not the same posts to each) I just want messages & links to appear as Wall posts. I'm not bothered about having an 'app' that has 'canvas' that is placed in an IFrame. Question : So do I still need to write one or more Facebook Apps to post to my 3 different Facebook pages?? Where I am so far.. I can pass in my apps credentials and get back the access_token. But my posts don't appear to be going anywhere. I'd rather drop the 'facebook application /canvas' approach if possible If I can post directly to a wall (For the above reasons). Oh, and before you ask. I don't want to post to my Apps Wall page, I want to post to my other pages (Unless I have to post to my Apps Wall page first?). I'm sure loads of people have the same questions.. Thanks in advance. -- Lee

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  • Python: Errors saving and loading objects with pickle module

    - by Peterstone
    Hi, I am trying to load and save objects with this piece of code I get it from a question I asked a week ago: Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle. The piece of code is this: class Fruits: pass banana = Fruits() banana.color = 'yellow' banana.value = 30 import pickle filehandler = open("Fruits.obj","wb") pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) filehandler.close() file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') object_file = pickle.load(file) file.close() print(object_file.color, object_file.value, sep=', ') At a first glance the piece of code works well, getting load and see the 'color' and 'value' of the saved object. But, what I pursuit is to close a session, open a new one and load what I save in a past session. I close the session after putting the line filehandler.close() and I open a new one and I put the rest of your code, then after putting object_file = pickle.load(file) I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#5>", line 1, in <module> object_file = pickle.load(file) File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'Fruits' Can anyone explain me what this error message means and telling me how to solve this problem? Thank so much and happy new year!!

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  • File streaming in PHP - How to replicate this C#.net code in PHP?

    - by openid_kenja
    I'm writing an interface to a web service where we need to upload configuration files. The documentation only provides a sample in C#.net which I am not familiar with. I'm trying to implement this in PHP. Can someone familiar with both languages point me in the right direction? I can figure out all the basics, but I'm trying to figure out suitable PHP replacements for the FileStream, ReadBytes, and UploadDataFile functions. I believe that the RecService object contains the URL for the web service. Thanks for your help! private void UploadFiles() { clientAlias = “<yourClientAlias>”; string filePath = “<pathToYourDataFiles>”; string[] fileList = {"Config.txt", "ProductDetails.txt", "BrandNames.txt", "CategoryNames.txt", "ProductsSoldOut.txt", "Sales.txt"}; RecommendClient RecService = new RecommendClient(); for (int i = 0; i < fileList.Length; i++) { bool lastFile = (i == fileList.Length - 1); //start generator after last file try { string fileName = filePath + fileList[i]; if (!File.Exists(fileName)) continue; // file not found } // set up a file stream and binary reader for the selected file and convert to byte array FileStream fStream = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(fStream); byte[] data = br.ReadBytes((int)numBytes); br.Close(); // pass byte array to the web service string result = RecService.UploadDataFile(clientAlias, fileList[i], data, lastFile); fStream.Close(); fStream.Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log an error message } } }

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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  • C Programming: malloc() inside another function

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, I need help with malloc() inside another function. I'm passing a pointer and size to the function from my main() and I would like to allocate memory for that pointer dynamically using malloc() from inside that called function, but what I see is that.... the memory which is getting allocated is for the pointer declared withing my called function and not for the pointer which is inside the main(). How should I pass a pointer to a function and allocate memory for the passed pointer from inside the called function? Can anyone throw light on this? Help!!! Vikram I have written the following code and I get the output as shown below SOURCE: main() { unsigned char *input_image; unsigned int bmp_image_size = 262144; if(alloc_pixels(input_image, bmp_image_size)==NULL) printf("\nPoint2: Memory allocated: %d bytes",_msize(input_image)); else printf("\nPoint3: Memory not allocated"); } signed char alloc_pixels(unsigned char *ptr, unsigned int size) { signed char status = NO_ERROR; ptr = NULL; ptr = (unsigned char*)malloc(size); if(ptr== NULL) { status = ERROR; free(ptr); printf("\nERROR: Memory allocation did not complete successfully!"); } printf("\nPoint1: Memory allocated: %d bytes",_msize(ptr)); return status; } PROGRAM OUTPUT: Point1: Memory allocated ptr: 262144 bytes Point2: Memory allocated input_image: 0 bytes

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  • Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

    - by JimBadger
    I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

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  • C++ Implicit Conversion Operators

    - by Imbue
    I'm trying to find a nice inheritance solution in C++. I have a Rectangle class and a Square class. The Square class can't publicly inherit from Rectangle, because it cannot completely fulfill the rectangle's requirements. For example, a Rectangle can have it's width and height each set separately, and this of course is impossible with a Square. So, my dilemma. Square obviously will share a lot of code with Rectangle; they are quite similar. For examlpe, if I have a function like: bool IsPointInRectangle(const Rectangle& rect); it should work for a square too. In fact, I have a ton of such functions. So in making my Square class, I figured I would use private inheritance with a publicly accessible Rectangle conversion operator. So my square class looks like: class Square : private Rectangle { public: operator const Rectangle&() const; }; However, when I try to pass a Square to the IsPointInRectangle function, my compiler just complains that "Rectangle is an inaccessible base" in that context. I expect it to notice the Rectangle operator and use that instead. Is what I'm trying to do even possible? If this can't work I'm probably going to refactor part of Rectangle into MutableRectangle class. Thanks.

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  • Best practice accessing an array set within a class

    - by user350599
    I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

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