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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • JQuery Ajax Get passing parameters

    - by George
    Hi, I am working on my first MVC application and am running into a bit of a problem. I have a data table that when a row is clicked, I want to return the detail from that row. I have a function set up as: function rowClick(item) { $("#detailInfo").data("width.dialog", 800); $.ajax({ type: "GET", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "<%= Url.Action("GetDetails", "WarningRecognition")%>", data: "", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {//do some stuff...and show results} } The problem I am running into is the passing of the "item". I calls the Controller function that looks like this: public JsonResult GetDetails(string sDetail) { Debug.WriteLine(Request.QueryString["sDetail"]); Debug.WriteLine("sDetail: " + sDetail); var myDetailsDao = new WarnRecogDetailsDao(); return new JsonResult { Data = myDetailsDao.SelectDetailedInfo(Convert.ToInt32(sDetail)) }; } But it never shows anything as the the "sDetail". It does hit the function but nothing is passed to it. So, I have read where you pass the parameter via the data but I have tried every combination I can think of and it never shows up. Tried: data: {"item"} data: {sDetail[item]} data: {sDetail[" + item + "]} Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Geo...

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • Python FTP grabbing and saving images issue

    - by PylonsN00b
    OK So I have been messing with this all day long. I am fairly new to Python FTP. So I have searched through here and came up w/ this: images = notions_ftp.nlst() for image_name in image_names: if found_url == False: try: for image in images: ftp_image_name = "./%s" % image_name if ftp_image_name == image: found_url = True image_name_we_want = image_name except: pass # We failed to find an image for this product, it will have to be done manually if found_url == False: log.info("Image ain't there baby -- SKU: %s" % sku) return False # Hey we found something! Open the image.... notions_ftp.retrlines("RETR %s" % image_name_we_want, open(image_name_we_want, "rb")) 1/0 So I have narrowed the error down to the line before I divide by zero. Here is the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 6, in <module> File "<console>", line 39, in insert_image IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '411483CC-IT,IM.jpg' So if you follow the code you will see that the image IS in the directory because image_name_we_want is set if found in that directory listing on the first line of my code. And I KNOW it's there because I am looking at the FTP site myself and ...it's freakin there. So at some point during all of this I got the image to save locally, which is most desired, but I have long since forgot what I used to make it do that. Either way, why does it think that the image isn't there when it clearly finds it in the listing.

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  • Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

    - by AVH
    I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • NHibernate is not connecting to sql server.

    - by user177883
    When i set up a regular connection, it works, however when i try to use nhibernate, hibernate.cfg.xml, i m getting the following error. Message="A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" Source=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" What would be the reason for this and how can i resolve it ? I doubt that it s a network or sql server configuration error. <?xml version="1.0" ?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2005Dialect</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Server=(ServerName\DEV_ENV);Initial Catalog=dbName;User Id=SA;Password=PASS</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration>

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  • Having trouble parsing XML with jQuery

    - by Jack
    Hi Guys, I'm trying to parse some XML data using jQuery, and as it stands I have extracted the 'ID' attribute of the required nodes and stored them in an array, and now I want to run a loop for each array member and eventually grab more attributes from the notes specific to each ID. The problem currently is that once I get to the 'for' loop, it isn't looping, and I think I may have written the xml path data incorrectly. It runs once and I recieve the 'alert(arrayIds.length);' only once, and it only loops the correct amount of times if I remove the subsequent xml path code. Here is my function: var arrayIds = new Array(); $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "question.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find("C").each(function(){ $("#attr2").append($(this).attr('ID') + "<br />"); arrayIds.push($(this).attr('ID')); }); for (i=0; i<arrayIds.length; i++) { alert(arrayIds.length); $(xml).find("C[ID='arrayIds[i]']").(function(){ // pass values alert('test'); }); } } }); }); Any ideas?

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  • OpenSocial create activity from submit click

    - by russp
    Hi I'm "playing with OpsnSocial" and think I get a lot of it (well thanks to Googles' bits) but one question if I may. Creating an activity Lets say I have a form like this (simple) <form> <input type="text" name="" id="testinput" value=""/> <input type="submit" name="" id="" value=""/> </form> And I want to post the value of the text field (and or a message i.e "just posted" to the "users" activity. Do I use a function like this? function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + ' VALUE FROM FORM '}); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; If so, how do I pass the text field value to it - is it something like this? var testinput = document.getElementById("testinput"); so the function may look like function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + testinput }); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; And how do I trigger the function by using the submit button. In my basic JQuery I would use $('#submitID').submit(function(){ 'bits in here '}); Is at "simple as that i.e. use the createActivity function and it will use the OS framework to "post" to the activity.xml

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  • Should uni provide "correct answer" after programming assignment is due?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is my very first subjective question. And I think it is programming related - the assignment is to be written in a programming language. I am not for "getting the full marks out of a subject". I am actually not for a "correct answer", but for a "better solution", so that I can compare, and can improve. I reckon it is good that I practice programming first and check the solution later to pick up the things I've done wrong/bad. Without a "benchmark" to against, this would be much harder. Unfortunately as far as I know, not all programming subjects taught in uni would kindly provide the students with a "correct answer" in the end, after the assignment is due. One bad metaphor for this is like someone asks you a question which they don't have a clear answer themselves and hope to take advantage of your answer as the basis for their answer. Personally, I feel having a assignment solution provided by the academic staff is essential to students. I do appreciate this, and I feel I might not be the only one. I am a very proactive student in uni. I learn more, I practice more, an assignment for me is more like a challenge to achieve "the best solution I can come up with", not something "I have to pass"... The cause of this question is that for the past few days I have crafted 500+ lines of Perl code, for a tiny assignment. I feel pain when I look at my solution(not finished yet) and I feel like I am an idiot doing some crap code. I know there must be a much better solution. And I reckon it is better for the lecturer in this subject to get me one, rather than asking for an answer here, even I would shamelessly add the link to my solution apart from the assignment requirements. I know in SO, there are a lot of tutors/lecturers for programming subjects/courses. I'd like to hear your words on this question.

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  • IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

    - by Hitesh Riziya
    I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

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  • How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

    - by stimpy77
    Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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  • Modify existing struct alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to modify the member alignment of an existing struct in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instance to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I do not want to copy the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. The commented line does not work of course. Thanks for help!

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • How to return ArrayList results from an IntentService

    - by gcl1
    I have an IntentService that loads up an ArrayList with data from a network source (AWS SDB tables). The ArrayList is in a global space -- accessible to both the calling Activity and the IntentService (like this: appState = ((App)getApplicationContext())). When the IntentService is done, it notifies the Activity through a ResultReceiver, and the Activity calls adapter.notifyDataChanged() to update the ListView. This solution works most of the time, ... but it violates the rule that only the UI thread should make changes to data underlying a ListView. So as it is, I sometimes get an error: "The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification." I think this must be a common situation. Please let me know if you have any suggestions or best practices for this problem. Here are three options I'm aware of: Keep the IntentService, and have it store the results in another "working" ArrayList, also in the global space. When the result is ready, the IntentService calls the ResultReceiver (on the UI thread), which can then: a) copy the result to the ArrayList associated with the ListView, and b) call adapter.notifyDataChanged(). CONS: I don't like the idea of putting temp/working data in a global space, and copying the result list seems inefficient. Keep the IntentService, and have it pass the results back through a bundle loaded with a ParcelableArrayList. CONS: I'm not sure if this approach would scale for very large result sets. It also requires copying the result list. Switch to a Service which builds a local copy of the result list. Have the Activity directly access the address space of the Service in order to read the result list. CON: Still requires copying results to the ArrayList associated with the ListView. Thank you.

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  • How might one cope with the ambiguous value produced by GetDllDirectory?

    - by Integer Poet
    GetDllDirectory produces an ambiguous value. When the string this call produces is empty, it means one of the following: nobody has called SetDllDirectory somebody passed NULL to SetDllDirectory somebody passed an empty string to SetDllDirectory The first two cases are equivalent for my purposes, but the third case is a problem. If I want to write save/restore code (call GetDllDirectory to save the "old" value, SetDllDirectory to set a "new" value temporarily, and later SetDllDirectory again to restore the "old" value), I run the risk of reversing some other programmer's intent. If the other programmer intended for the current working directory to be in the DLL search order (in other words, one of the first two bullets is true), and I pass an empty string to SetDllDirectory, I will be taking the current working directory out of the DLL search order, reversing the other programmer's intent. Can anyone suggest an approach to eliminate or work around this ambiguity? P.S. I know having the current working directory in the DLL search order could be interpreted as a security hole. Nevertheless, it is the default behavior, and my code is not in a position to undo that; my code needs to be compatible with the expectations of all potential callers, many of which are large and old and beyond my control.

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  • Fun with casting and inheritance

    - by Vaccano
    NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

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  • Custom Server to communicate with my software?

    - by Zachary Brown
    I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • iphone file download not working

    - by Anonymous
    Hi, In my app I 'm first connecting to a web service, which in return sends a url for a file. I use the url to download the file and then display it on the new view. I get the correct URL but not able to download file from that location. I have another test app which will download file from the same location and it works like a charm. following is my code for webservice-file download. This is a snippet of the code where i 'm parsing the web service xml and then pass the result to NSData for file download. Any suggestions where am i going wrong -- I 'm referring to the following tutorials. Web Service PDF Viewer if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"PRHPdfResultsResult"]) { NSLog(soapResults); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Report downloaded from:" message:soapResults delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSData *pdfData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:soapResults]]; //Store the Data locally as PDF File NSString *resourceDocPath = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByDeletingLastPathComponent] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Documents"]]; NSString *filePath = [resourceDocPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPDF.pdf"]; [pdfData writeToFile:filePath atomically:YES]; [alert show]; [alert release]; [soapResults setString:@""]; elementFound = FALSE; }

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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