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  • Looking for a 'pick a-or-b' voting system script

    - by user324455
    Apologies: this is my first time on stackoverflow and I'm starting with a question and seeking advice. Sorry. Caveats: I know HTML and CSS pretty well. Javascript and PHP are not completely alien, but I'm really pretty basic on those. That said, I'm pretty sharp and willing to search for explanations independently. Ok, so my question is this: I want to create a site with a voting system very much like the one on kittenwar.com - the page loads 2 random images from a db of some sort and you click on the one you want to 'win'. Ranked pairs kind of deal. Then there is a leaderboard of those images which have the highest win-loss ratio. There also needs to be an uploader for peeps to upload their own images and have them go into an approval workflow, and from there into the db that feeds the voting thing. I tried a pre-made solution ('photo battle') but found it was completely standalone, so trying to integrate it or change any of the options was a nightmare, plus it was buggy. i'm sure there has to be a relatively easy way to do this, right? Ideally I'd like to build my site in Joomla and integrate this functionality somehow. I'd be very grateful for any advice on this. Thanks Tom

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  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

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  • Retaining Managed objects - more general retaining objects

    - by Luuk D. Jansen
    A quick question regarding Managed Objects. I created an Array with Managed Objects (in Object 1: TableViewConbtroller), and pass one of those objects to another class/object (object 2: TableCell). The original array should still be retained in the original caller class. Then Object 2 is released, does that mean that that particular item in the array is released as well, as the reference to it in Object 2 was released? I am trying to better understand how to work with ManagedObjects as I get 'Object was released' errors. [EDIT] After some experimenting I came across the following scenario: I have the main AppDelegate. In a different class I create an AppDelegate to obtain the ManagedObjectContext. appDelegate = (iDomsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [self setContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext]]; When the class is finished, and I release it, the variable in the class 'appDelegate' is also released. But then the ManagedObjectContext is closed, and obvious any future attempt to use it will cause a crash. So should I leave the appDelegate unreleased? This comes to the same question as the above about when and how to release in those situations where an objects is used from another class. I think a way of putting it is, how to know when you own an object and when not.

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  • How can I generate an "unlimited" world?

    - by snowlord
    I would like to create a game with an endless (in reality an extremely large) world in which the player can move about. Whether or not I will ever get around to implement the game is one matter, but I find the idea interesting and would like some input on how to do it. The point is to have a world where all data is generated randomly on-demand, but in a deterministic way. Currently I focus on a large 2D map from which it should be possible to display any part without knowledge about the surrounding parts. I have implemented a prototype by writing a function that gives a random-looking, but deterministic, integer given the x and y of a pixel on the map (see my recent question about this function). Using this function I populate the map with "random" values, and then I smooth the map using a simple filter based on the surrounding pixels. This makes the map dependent on a few pixels outside its edge, but that's not a big problem. The final result is something that at least looks like a map (especially with a good altitude color map). Given this, one could maybe first generate a coarser map which is used to generate bigger differences in altitude to create mountain ranges and seas. Anyway, that was my idea, but I am sure that there exist ways to do this already and I also believe that given the specification, many of you can come up with better ideas. EDIT: Forgot the link to my question.

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  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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  • ControlCollection extension method optimization

    - by Johan Leino
    Hi, got question regarding an extension method that I have written that looks like this: public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance) where T : class { T control; foreach (Control ctrl in instance) { if ((control = ctrl as T) != null) { yield return control; } foreach (T child in FindControlsOfType<T>(ctrl.Controls)) { yield return child; } } } public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance, Func<T, bool> match) where T : class { return FindControlsOfType<T>(instance).Where(match); } The idea here is to find all controls that match a specifc criteria (hence the Func<..) in the controls collection. My question is: Does the second method (that has the Func) first call the first method to find all the controls of type T and then performs the where condition or does the "runtime" optimize the call to perform the where condition on the "whole" enumeration (if you get what I mean). secondly, are there any other optimizations that I can do to the code to perform better. An example can look like this: var checkbox = this.Controls.FindControlsOfType<MyCustomCheckBox>( ctrl => ctrl.CustomProperty == "Test" ) .FirstOrDefault();

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

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  • Problem registering a COM server written for Excel registered on client machine (can't set full path

    - by toytrains
    In this previous question <How to get COM Server for Excel written in VB.NET installed and registered in Automation Servers list? there is an example of how to create the full path to a registry key using VS 2008. Everything in the previous answer works correctly except the full path that I am setting (using the registry editor in VS) for mscoree.dll is not working (meaning it seems to do nothing). The full registry path is: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID{my_GUID}\InprocServer32(default) and the value I am setting is: [SystemFolder]mscoree.dll I can put anything (including hardcoding the full path) but the setting does not seem to matter and the registry always contains mscoree.dll without any path. I have tried adding another value to the registry path via VS and that works correctly including having the full path as specified by [SystemFolder]. The reason I need the full path (as explained in the previous question) is that without the path, Excel generates an error when the automation server is selected as it cannot find mscoree.dll (interestingly even though I receive an error the registration works OK). I am doing the install via a setup project which otherwise works fine. I am installing on a VISTA*64 system but have gotten the same error on other OS's. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?

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  • How does the receiver of a cipher text know the IV used for encryption?

    - by PatrickL
    If a random IV is used in encrypting plain text, how does the receiver of the cipher text know what the IV is in order to decrypt it? This is a follow-up question to a response to the previous stackoverflow question on IVs here. The IV allows for plaintext to be encrypted such that the encrypted text is harder to decrypt for an attacker. Each bit of IV you use will double the possibilities of encrypted text from a given plain text. The point is that the attacker doesn't know what the IV is and therefore must compute every possible IV for a given plain text to find the matching cipher text. In this way, the IV acts like a password salt. Most commonly, an IV is used with a chaining cipher (either a stream or block cipher). ... So, if you have a random IV used to encrypt the plain text, how do you decrypt it? Simple. Pass the IV (in plain text) along with your encrypted text. Wait. You just said the IV is randomly generated. Then why pass it as plain text along with the encrypted text?

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  • Inheritance and type parameters of Traversable

    - by Jesper
    I'm studying the source code of the Scala 2.8 collection classes. I have questions about the hierarchy of scala.collection.Traversable. Look at the following declarations: package scala.collection trait Traversable[+A] extends TraversableLike[A, Traversable[A]] with GenericTraversableTemplate[A, Traversable] trait TraversableLike[+A, +Repr] extends HasNewBuilder[A, Repr] with TraversableOnce[A] package scala.collection.generic trait HasNewBuilder[+A, +Repr] trait GenericTraversableTemplate[+A, +CC[X] <: Traversable[X]] extends HasNewBuilder[A, CC[A] @uncheckedVariance] Question: Why does Traversable extend GenericTraversableTemplate with type parameters [A, Traversable] - why not [A, Traversable[A]]? I tried some experimenting with a small program with the same structure and got a strange error message when I tried to change it to Traversable[A]: error: Traversable[A] takes no type parameters, expected: one I guess that the use of the @uncheckedVariance annotation in GenericTraversableTemplate also has to do with this? (That seems like a kind of potentially unsafe hack to force things to work...). Question: When you look at the hierarchy, you see that Traversable inherits HasNewBuilder twice (once via TraversableLike and once via GenericTraversableTemplate), but with slightly different type parameters. How does this work exactly? Why don't the different type parameters cause an error?

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  • Synchronous Android activities

    - by rayman
    Ive made mis-leading topic in my last question, so i open this new question to clear what I realy want. sorry for the inconvenience. I wanna run two system(Android) activities one after another in specific order from my main activity. now as we know, startActivity is an asynchronous operation, so i cant keep on a specific order. so i thought maybe I should try to do it with dialogBox in the middle but also running a dialogBox is an asynchronous. now as i said the activities which i try to run are Android activities, so i cant even start them with startActivityForResult (or mybe i can, but i dont get any result back to my main(calling) activity) Any tricks how could i manage with this issue? Some code: first activity: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setAction(Settings.ACTION_APPLICATION_SETTINGS); startActivity(intent); second activity: Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(tmpPackageFile .getAbsoluteFile()), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); startActivity(intent); as you can see, i dont have any access to those activites, i can just run thire intents from my main activity.

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  • Edit Settings in web.config

    - by Scott Selby
    I didn't know how to title this question - I am making a request to PayPal's Express Payment API. I am using their dll that helps make the request and parse the response. The instructions for their code to work is to add you authorization credentials in the web.config file. I have done so. My problem is that I want to be able to edit these credentials that are being set dynamically ( probably get from SQL ) because we are going to allow different users to enter their API credentials. Sending the request to PayPal looks like this Dim wrapper As New SetExpressCheckoutReq() wrapper.SetExpressCheckoutRequest = request Dim service As New PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() Dim setECResponse As SetExpressCheckoutResponseType = service.SetExpressCheckout(wrapper) There's not much room in there to edit the header of the request , because PayPalAPIInterfaceServiceService() is defined in their dll and applies its own header based on the credentials in the web.config. So, my question is , is there a way to point in the web.config to another location when it looks in web.config? I'm not to sure this is possible , also is there any way to edit the header of a request that is defined in a dll without changing the dll (to stay pci compliant) The line in the web.config is here: <account apiUsername="****" apiPassword="****" apiSignature="****"/>

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  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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  • What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

    - by Yishai
    It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

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  • Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

    - by Scott Vercuski
    This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

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  • Make TBODY scrollable in Webkit browsers

    - by Andrew
    I'm aware of this question, but none of the answers work in Safari, Chrome, etc. The accepted strategy (as demonstrated here) is to set the tbody height and overflow properties like so: <table> <thead> <tr><th>This is the header and doesn't scroll</th></tr> </thead> <tbody style="height:100px; overflow:auto;"> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> </tbody> </table> Unfortunately, this does not work in any webkit browsers. There is a bug report about it that doesn't seem to be a high priority (reported June 05). So my question is: are there alternate strategies that do actually work? I've tried the two-table approach, but it's impossible to guarantee that the header will line up with the content. Do I just have to wait for Webkit to fix it?

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  • php form submit and the resend infromation screen

    - by Para
    Hello, I want to ask a best practice question. Suppose I have a form in php with 3 fields say name, email and comment. I submit the form via POST. In PHP I try and insert the date into the database. Suppose the insertion fails. I should now show the user an error and display the form filled in with the data he previously inserted so he can correct his error. Showing the form in it's initial state won't do. So I display the form and the 3 fields are now filled in from PHP with echo or such. Now if I click refresh I get a message saying "Are you sure you want to resend information?". OK. Suppose after I insert the data I don't carry on but I redirect to the same page but with the necessary parameters in the query string. This makes the message go away but I have to carry 3 parameters in the query string. So my question is: How is it better to do this? I want to not carry around lots of parameters in the query string but also not get that error. How can this be done? Should I use cookies to store the form information.

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  • problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

    - by Spiderman
    in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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  • asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

    - by andrew
    I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

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  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

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  • Most efficient way to make an activity log

    - by Nathan
    I am making a "recent activity" tab to profiles on my site and I also am going to have a log for moderators to see everything that happens on the site. This would require making an activity log of some sort. I just don't know what would be better. I have 2 options: Make a table called "activity" and then every time someone does something, add a record to it with the type of action, user id, timestamp, etc. Problem: table could get very long. Join all 3 tables (questions, answers, answer_comments) and then somehow show all these on the page in the order in which the action was taken. Problem: this would be extremely hard because I have no clue how I could make it say "John commented on an answer on Question Title Here" by just joining 3 tables. Does anyone know of a better way of making an activity log in this situation? I am using PHP and MySQL. If this is either too inefficient or hard I will probably just forget the Recent Activity tab on profiles but I still need an activity log for moderators. Here's some SQL that I started making for option 2, but this would not work because there is no way of detecting whether the action is a comment, question, or answer when I echo the info in a while loop: SELECT q.*, a.*, ac.* FROM questions q JOIN answers a ON a.questionid = q.qid JOIN answer_comments ac ON c.answerid = a.ans_id WHERE q.user = $userid AND a.userid = $userid AND ac.userid = $userid ORDER BY q.created DESC, a.created DESC, ac.created DESC Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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