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• Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

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• RewitePath on IIS7 with .Net 3.5 or 4.0 - The resource cannot be found.

  - by Renso

  In Global.asax handle errors by trying to redirect users to another page without changing the url in the address bar, that's why I am using RewritePath and not Redirect. void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs Context.RewritePath("~/Error.aspx", false); } Error.apsx in same root folder as About.aspx, and Default.aspx pages which of course work. Not sure I am having this issue. Have the following web.config file settings that I thought may be relevant: IIS7 settings: Application "TestRewriteUrl" under Default Web Site on DefaultAppPool. This example my seem trivial but I cannot use IIS7 HTTP Redirect as I actually was using this example to keep it simple. What I want to ultimately do is have a user type in http://www.somesite.com/myownpage and have it rewrite the path to another page in the same application directory by looking up the "myownpage" in the database to see what database id they have and redirect them to the correct "microsite" based on that without the user noticing a url change. Kind of like when you go to a blogging engine and no matter where in your blog you go the url remains the same. I don't want the user to go from http://www.mysite.com/tomshardware to http://www.mysite.com?id=8734656856. So that is why I used the simply example above to try and understand why the rewrite path does not work.

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• Qt: How to use QTimer to print a message to a QTextBrowser every 10 seconds?

  - by Aaron McKellar

  Hello, I have working at this for hours and cannot figure it out nor can I find any help online that works. Basically the gist of what I am trying to accomplish is to have a Qt GUI with a button and a QTextBrowser. When I push the button I want it to diplay a message and then keep printing this message every 10 seconds. I figured I would use QTimer because it makes sense to have a timer to diplay the message every 10 seconds. When I originally implemented this into my buttonClicked() SLOT it caused the program to freeze. I looked online for a solution and found QApplication::processEvents(). So basically in my function I had something like this: while(1) { QTimer *timer; connect(...) //omitted parameters for this example timer.start(10000); ui->diplay->append("Message"); while(timer.isActive()) { QApplication::processEvents() } } I figured it would break out of the timer.isActive() while loop but it won't it simply stays in there. So I figured this is a threading issue. So I figured out how to use QThreads but I still can't get it to work. Basically when I create a thread with a timer on it and the thread tells the timer to start, the program closes and the console says "The program has unexpectedly finished". There has to be an easy way to do this but my track record with Qt has always been that th

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• Emacs hide/show support for C++ triple-slash Doxygen markup?

  - by jsyjr

  I use Doxygen's triple-slash syntax to markup my C++ code. There are two important cases which arise: 1) block markup comments which are the sole element on the line and may or may not begin flush left; e.g. class foo /// A one sentence brief description of foo. The elaboration can /// continue on for many lines. { ... }; void foo::bar /// A one sentence brief description of bar. The elaboration can /// continue on for many lines. () const { ... } 2) trailing markup comments which always follow some number of C++ tokens earlier on the first line but may still spill over onto subsequent lines; e.g. class foo { int _var1; ///< A brief description of _var1. int _var2; ///< A brief description of _var2 ///< requiring additional lines. } void foo::bar ( int arg1 ///< A brief description of arg1. , int arg2 ///< A brief description of arg2 ///< requiring additional lines. ) const { ... } I wonder what hide/show support exists to deal with these conventions. The most important cases are the block markup comments. Ideally I would like to be able to eliminate these altogether, meaning that I would prefer not to waste a line simply to indicate presence of a folded block markup comment. Instead I would like a fringe marker, a la http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/hideshowvis.el /john

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• How can i design a DB where the user can define the fields and types of a detail table in a M-D rela

  - by Simon

  My application has one table called 'events' and each event has approx 30 standard fields, but also user defined fields that could be any name or type, in an 'eventdata' table. Users can define these event data tables, by specifying x number of fields (either text/double/datetime/boolean) and the names of these fields. This 'eventdata' (table) can be different for each 'event'. My current approach is to create a lookup table for the definitions. So if i need to query all 'event' and 'eventdata' per record, i do so in a M-D relaitionship using two queries (i.e. select * from events, then for each record in 'events', select * from 'some table'). Is there a better approach to doing this? I have implemented this so far, but most of my queries require two distinct calls to the DB - i cannot simply join my master 'events' table with different 'eventdata' tables for each record in in 'events'. I guess my main question is: can i join my master table with different detail tables for each record? E.g. SELECT E.*, E.Tablename FROM events E LEFT JOIN 'E.tablename' T ON E._ID = T.ID If not, is there a better way to design my database considering i have no idea on how many user defined fields there may be and what type they will be.

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• Allowing Xform controls for optional XML elements

  - by Cam

  Hi, In designing an XForm interface to an XML database (using eXist and XSLTForms), I'd like to include an input control for an optional element. The XML data records already exist and while some contain the optional element, others don't. To update a record, I'm using the existing XML record as the model instance. The problem is that the form control is not displayed when the optional element is not present, which is logical, but presents a problem when a user wants to add data to the optional element. To be more explicit, here's an example data record, data.xml: <a> <b>content</b> </a> with RNC schema: start = element a { element b { text }, element notes { text }? } XForms model: <xf:model> <xf:instance xmlns="" src="data.xml"/> <xf:submission id="save" method="post" action="update.xq" /> </xf:model> And control: <xf:input ref="/a/notes"> <xf:label>Notes (optional): </xf:label> </xf:input> The problem is that the 'Notes' input control is simply not displayed. An obvious solution is to add a trigger button to allow the user to insert the element if needed, but it is preferable to just have the input control appear, and be empty. My question is: is there some subtle combination of lesser-know attributes/binds/multiple instances/xpath expressions that will cause the control to always be displayed? Thanks

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• Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

  - by Marc Gravell

  It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

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• Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

  - by Kyle Cronin

  I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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• Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

  - by WesleyE

  Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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• How to move positions within an array?

  - by Jade Mulholland

  A program that simply moves array elements. Two variables: userInputVariable and blankSpaceVariable. I have a 2D array named table. Defined as table[userInputVariable + 1][6] I am printing out this array in a table format, and the far left column is numbered by whatever number the user entered at the beginning of the program. I then ask the user where they would like to enter a blank space within the array. This blank space acts like a divider for all the other information in the array. For example, if the user enters 10 at the start for the userInputVariable, and then enters 5 for the blank space. Once printed, the numbers should go like this: 1, 2, 3, 4, --, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10. My plan has been to create a for loop and try to move all the numbers in the array back a position starting from the blank space variable. What I currently have, but does not work: for (int i = blankSpaceVariable; i < table.length - 1; i++) { table[i] = table[i + 1]; } table[blankSpaceVariable] = "--"; With my current code, the numbers go like this: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Tried completing this a few different ways also, but the other info within my 2D array didn't move with the numbers. So I thought that this approach can hopefully move all the info within my 2D array down, and make way for a blank section. All help is greatly appreciated!

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• Call instance method with objc_msgSend

  - by user772349

  I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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• JavaScript: Changing src-attribute of a embed-tag

  - by Mike

  I have the following scenario. I show the user some audio files from the server. The user clicks on one, then onFileSelected is eventually executed with both the selected folder and file. What the function does is change the source from the embedded object. So in a way, it is a preview of the selected file before accepting it and save the user's choice. A visual aid. HTML <embed src="/resources/audio/_webbook_0001/embed_test.mp3" type="audio/mpeg" id="audio_file"> JavaScript function onFileSelected(file, directory) { jQuery('embed#audio_file').attr('src', '/resources/audio/'+directory+'/'+file); }; Now, this works fine in Firefox, but Safari and Chrome simply refuse to change the source, regardless of Operating System. jQuery finds the object (jQuery.size() returns 1), it executes the code, but no change in the HTML Code. Why does Safari prevent me from changing the <embed> source and how can I circumvent this?

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• MSBuild - How to build a .NET solution file (in an XML task script) from pre-written command line commands

  - by Devtron

  Hello. I have been studying MSBuild as I have the need to automate my development shop's builds. I was able to easily write a .BAT file that invokes the VS command prompt and passes my MSBuild commands to it. This works rather well and is kinda nifty. Here is the contents of my .BAT build file: call "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin\amd64\vcvars64.bat" cd C:\Sandbox\Solution msbuild MyTopSecretApplication.sln /p:OutputPath=c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT /p:Configuration=Release,Platform=x86 pause ^ This works well but I now have the need to use the MSBuild task for TeamCity CI. I have tried to write a few MSBuild scripts but I cannot get them to work the same. What is the equivalent build script to the command I am using in my .BAT file? Any ideas? I have tried using something like this, but no success (I know this is wrong): <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="Hello Build World" default="run" basedir="."> <target name="build"> <mkdir dir="mybin" /> <echo>Made mybin directory!</echo> <csc target="exe" output="c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT"> <sources> <include name="MyTopSecretApplication.sln"/> </sources> </csc> <echo>MyTopSecretApplication.exe was built!</echo> </target> <target name="clean"> <delete dir="mybin" failonerror="false"/> </target> <target name="run" depends="build"> <exec program="mybin\MyTopSecretApplication.exe"/> </target> What I simply need is an MSBuild XML build script that compiles a single solution for Release mode to a specified output directory. Any help?

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• Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

  - by John

  I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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• Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

  - by Krisc

  Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

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• Why does applying this gradient style break my silverlight app ?

  - by Robotsushi

  I am having some issues with applying a gradient to a RadButton. I have a gradient definition in my styles resource dictionairy like so : <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="GridView_HeaderBackground" EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF868686"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0.42"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF0E0E0E" Offset="0.43"/> </LinearGradientBrush> When i apply this gradient directly to the background of a RadButton everything works. Here is the button and the template definition: Button <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" Background="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> However when applying this gradient in the resource dictionary, my application will not load it simply gets to the silverlight loading screen and then never proceeds Here is the button and template which breaks my app. Button: <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> When i observe the js error console in google chrome i notice the following error is produced: "Cannot find a resource with the name/key ResourceWrapper"

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• Are workflows good for web service business logic?

  - by JL

  I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

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• How to terminate a request in JSP (not the "return;")

  - by Genom

  I am programming a website with JSP. There are pages where user must be logged in to see it. If they are not logged in, they should see a login form. I have seen in a php code that you can make a .jsp page (single file), which checkes, whether the user is logged in or not. If not it will show the login form. If the user is logged in, nothing will be done. So in order to do that I use this structure in my JSPs: Headers, menus, etc. etc... normal stuff which would be shown such as body, footer to a logged in user. This structure is very easy to apply to all webpages. So I don't have to apply checking algorithm to each webpage! I can simply add this "" and the page is secure! So my problem is that if the user is not logged in, then only the log in form should be shown and the footer. So code should bypass the body. Therefore structured my checklogin.jsp so: If user is not logged in show the login form and footer and terminate request. The problem is that I don't know how to terminate the request... If I use "return;" then only the checklogin.jsp stops but server continues to process parent page! Therefore page has 2 footers! (1 from parent page and 1 from checklogin.jsp). How can I avoid this? (There is exit(); in php for this by the way!) Thanks for any suggestions!

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• Make form redirect users after posting

  - by Liso22

  I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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• Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

  - by MikeH

  I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

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• Java Persistence: Cast to something the result of Query.getResultList() ?

  - by GuiSim

  Hey everyone, I'm new to persistence / hibernate and I need your help. Here's the situation. I have a table that contains some stuff. Let's call them Persons. I'd like to get all the entries from the database that are in that table. I have a Person class that is a simple POJO with a property for each column in the table (name, age,..) Here's what I have : Query lQuery = myEntityManager.createQuery("from Person") List<Person> personList = lQuery.getResultList(); However, I get a warning saying that this is an unchecked conversion from List to List<Person> I thought that simply changing the code to Query lQuery = myEntityManager.createQuery("from Person") List<Person> personList = (List<Person>)lQuery.getResultList(); would work.. but it doesn't. Is there a way to do this ? Does persistence allow me to set the return type of the query ? (Through generics maybe ? )

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• Echo a multidimensional array in PHP

  - by Jennifer

  I have a multidimensional array and I'm trying to find out how to simply "echo" the elements of the array. The depth of the array is not known, so it could be deeply nested. In the case of the array below, the right order to echo would be: This is a parent comment This is a child comment This is the 2nd child comment This is another parent comment This is the array I was talking about: Array ( [0] => Array ( [comment_id] => 1 [comment_content] => This is a parent comment [child] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [comment_id] => 3 [comment_content] => This is a child comment [child] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [comment_id] => 4 [comment_content] => This is the 2nd child comment [child] => Array ( ) ) ) ) ) ) [1] => Array ( [comment_id] => 2 [comment_content] => This is another parent comment [child] => Array ( ) ) )

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• in haskell, why do I need to specify type constraints, why can't the compiler figure them out?

  - by Steve

  Consider the function, add a b = a + b This works: *Main> add 1 2 3 However, if I add a type signature specifying that I want to add things of the same type: add :: a -> a -> a add a b = a + b I get an error: test.hs:3:10: Could not deduce (Num a) from the context () arising from a use of `+' at test.hs:3:10-14 Possible fix: add (Num a) to the context of the type signature for `add' In the expression: a + b In the definition of `add': add a b = a + b So GHC clearly can deduce that I need the Num type constraint, since it just told me: add :: Num a => a -> a -> a add a b = a + b Works. Why does GHC require me to add the type constraint? If I'm doing generic programming, why can't it just work for anything that knows how to use the + operator? In C++ template programming, you can do this easily: #include <string> #include <cstdio> using namespace std; template<typename T> T add(T a, T b) { return a + b; } int main() { printf("%d, %f, %s\n", add(1, 2), add(1.0, 3.4), add(string("foo"), string("bar")).c_str()); return 0; } The compiler figures out the types of the arguments to add and generates a version of the function for that type. There seems to be a fundamental difference in Haskell's approach, can you describe it, and discuss the trade-offs? It seems to me like it would be resolved if GHC simply filled in the type constraint for me, since it obviously decided it was needed. Still, why the type constraint at all? Why not just compile successfully as long as the function is only used in a valid context where the arguments are in Num? Thank you.

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• mutableCopyWithZone updating a property value.

  - by Jim

  I have a Class that I need to copy with the ability to make changes the value of a variable on both Classes. Simply put the classes need to remain clones of each other at all times. My understanding of the documentation is that I can do this using a shallow copy of the Class which has also been declared mutable. By shallow copying the pointer value for the variable will be cloned so that it is an exact match in both classes. So when I update the variable in the original the copy will be updated simultaneously. Is this right? As you can see below I have used mutableCopyWithZone in the class I want to copy. I have tried both NSCopyObject and allocWithZone methods to get this to work. Although I'm able to copy the class and it appears as intended, when updating the variable it is not changing value in the copied Class. - (id)mutableCopyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { //ReviewViewer *copy = NSCopyObject(self, 0, zone); ReviewViewer *copy = [[[self class] allocWithZone:zone] init]; copy->infoTextViews = [infoTextViews copy]; return copy; } infoTextViews is a property declared as nonatomic, retain in the header file of the class being copied. I have also implemented the NSMutableCopying protocol accordingly. Any help would be great.

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• Need help getting buttons to work...

  - by Mike Droid

  I am trying to get my first button to update a display number in my view when clicked. This view will have several buttons and "outputs" displayed. After reading examples and Q's here, I finally put something together that runs, but my first button is still not working; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.ship_layout); mSwitcher = (TextSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.eng_val); } private TextSwitcher mSwitcher; // Will be connected with the buttons via XML void onClick(View v){ switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.engplus: engcounter++; updateCounter(); break; case R.id.engneg: engcounter--; updateCounter(); break; } } private void updateCounter() { mSwitcher.setText(String.valueOf(engcounter)); } The .xml for this button is; <TextSwitcher android:id="@+id/eng_val" android:visibility="visible" android:paddingTop="9px" android:paddingLeft="50px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/build" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/engeq" android:textColor="#DD00ff00" android:textSize="24sp"/> This is within a Relative Layout that appears otherwise OK. When I had set the view to have a TextView with the number set as a string , the number displayed, but I could not figure out how to update the text with a numerical field. That may be my real problem. I have gone through many examples generally referenced from the dev. site (UI, Common Tasks, various samples), and I am still not seeing the connection here... Again, this is simply a try at getting variables to respond to buttons and update on the view. So, a few Q's for anyone that can help; 1) Is there any easier way of doing this (ie. send numerical value to View) ? 2) Why isn't my TextSwitcher displaying the number? 3) Should I be using a TextSwitcher here? 4) Any examples of this you can point me to?

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