Search Results

Search found 13070 results on 523 pages for 'simply tom'.

Page 440/523 | < Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >

  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

    Read the article

  • XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

    - by user323772
    This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

    Read the article

  • How do I tile and overlay images in WPF?

    - by imnlfn
    I'm very new to WPF and trying to port an application from VB6 to C# and XAML. What I need to do now is create one big image out of a number of small ones, arranged like a series of "tiles." Some of these smaller ones will have overlays superimposed on them. In VB6, accomplishing both the tiling and overlaying would simply be a matter of using the PaintPicture method with the PictureBox control. This is my attempt at the tiling and overlaying in one step (though really the overlaying could occur beforehand): ImageDrawing Drawing1 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\one.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(0, 0, 40, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing2 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\two.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing3 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\overlay.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); DrawingGroup myDrawingGroup = new DrawingGroup(); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing1); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing2); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing3); myImage.Source = new DrawingImage(myDrawingGroup); The tiling works fine, but the overlay is a no-go. I was wondering if someone could point me towards a means of accomplishing the overlays and someone could indicate whether this is the best way to do the tiling. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Peculiar JRE behaviour running RMI server under load, should I worry?

    - by darri
    I've been developing a minimalistic Java rich client CRUD application framework for the past few years, mostly as a hobby but also actively using it to write applications for my current employer. The framework provides database access to clients either via a local JDBC based connection or a lightweight RMI server. Last night I started a load testing application, which ran 100 headless clients, bombarding the server with requests, each client waiting only 1 - 2 seconds between running simple use cases, consisting of selecting records along with associated detail records from a simple e-store database (Chinook). This morning when I looked at the telemetry results from the server profiling session I noticed something which to me seemed strange (and made me keep the setup running for the remainder of the day), I don't really know what conclusions to draw from it. Here are the results: Memory GC activity Threads CPU load Interesting, right? So the question is, is this normal or erratic? Is this simply the JRE (1.6.0_03 on Windows XP) doing it's thing (perhaps related to the JRE configuration) or is my framework design somehow causing this? Running the server against MySQL as opposed to an embedded H2 database does not affect the pattern. I am leaving out the details of my server design, but I'll be happy to elaborate if this behaviour is deemed erratic.

    Read the article

  • IE8 error when using dyanamic form actions

    - by user330711
    Hello all: Please go here to see an iframe based web app. Click on the map of Australia, choose a city, then buy some tickets. Now you will see the cart form located on the lower right corner. The problem is in IE8, I cannot delete checked rows from the table; whereas in other browsers such as FireFox3.6, Opera10, Safari4 and Chrome4, this action is all right. Below is the related javascript. It doesn't use jQuery, as part of the requirement is no framework allowed! And iframes are the my best bet, ajax will simply kill me under this restriction. /* cartForm.js */ function toDeleteRoutes() //this function is executed before form is to be submitted. { if(document.getElementsByClassName('delete_box').length > 0) //there're rows to delete { document.getElementById('cartForm').action ="./deleteRoutes.php"; document.getElementById('cartForm').target ="section4"; return true; //this enables the form to be submitted as usual. } else return false; //there is no more row in table to delete! } function toSendEmail() //this function is executed before form is to be submitted. { document.getElementById('cartForm').action ="./sendEmail.php"; document.getElementById('cartForm').target ="section3"; document.getElementById('delete_btn').disabled = true; //disable delete button now return true; //this enables the form to be submitted as usual. } function toCancelPurchase() { document.getElementById('cartForm').action ="./cancelPurchase.php"; document.getElementById('cartForm').target ="section4"; return true; //this enables the form to be submitted as usual. } I don't know which part is wrong, or this is just because IE8 screws all?

    Read the article

  • System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

    - by mijatovic
    Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Deleting items from datagrid (xml)

    - by Tonz
    Hello, I have a datagrid buttoncolumn which acts as delete buttons for my xml nodes. The elements are simply displayed in a boundcolumn, so there names get displayed. Each item generated gets a unique id (each time one is made id+++). My question his how can i remove a item (the entire element node with that certain id) when i click on one of the buttons in the bound column? <root> <element id="0"> <name>One</name> </element> <element id="1"> <name>Two</name> </element> </root> protected void dg_DeleteCommand(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { XmlFunctions.Remove(index); }/*dg_DeleteCommand*/ (function on other class, where all my xml methods are written) public static void Remove(string index) { XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); var node = nav.SelectSingleNode("/test/one[@id='" +???+ "']"); node.DeleteSelf(); XMLDoc.Save(XMLFile); } Edit: added datagrid <asp:View ID="viewDelete" runat="server"> <asp:DataGrid ID="dgDelete runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" OnDeleteCommand="dg_DeleteCommand"> <Columns> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="name" HeaderText="names" /> <asp:ButtonColumn ButtonType="PushButton" Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete" ></asp:ButtonColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> </asp:View>

    Read the article

  • Python script web service timeout

    - by Robert
    We have had a Python script running for many months now that simply scans through a directory of files, and posts each file to our web site via a web service call. The web site is also written in Python. For no apparent reason, this morning this script started throwing the following error: urllib2.URLError: <urlopen error (10060, 'Operation timed out')> The site itself is up and running just fine. There are no indications of any errors. The developer that was working on this site is no longer with us, and we do not have a strong Python developer on staff as we are moving away from that. Before I do an all nighter and rewrite this thing in C#, I wanted to see if anyone had any experience dealing with this issue. I do know that the script is connecting to a secure site (HTTPS), so I am not sure if something has come up with that, and I honestly dont know where to look to determine that. As I said before, the site itself isn't showing any signs of error, including SSL. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Optimizing near-duplicate value search

    - by GApple
    I'm trying to find near duplicate values in a set of fields in order to allow an administrator to clean them up. There are two criteria that I am matching on One string is wholly contained within the other, and is at least 1/4 of its length The strings have an edit distance less than 5% of the total length of the two strings The Pseudo-PHP code: foreach($values as $value){ foreach($values as $match){ if( ( $value['length'] < $match['length'] && $value['length'] * 4 > $match['length'] && stripos($match['value'], $value['value']) !== false ) || ( $match['length'] < $value['length'] && $match['length'] * 4 > $value['length'] && stripos($value['value'], $match['value']) !== false ) || ( abs($value['length'] - $match['length']) * 20 < ($value['length'] + $match['length']) && 0 < ($match['changes'] = levenshtein($value['value'], $match['value'])) && $match['changes'] * 20 <= ($value['length'] + $match['length']) ) ){ $matches[] = &$match; } } } I've tried to reduce calls to the comparatively expensive stripos and levenshtein functions where possible, which has reduced the execution time quite a bit. However, as an O(n^2) operation this just doesn't scale to the larger sets of values and it seems that a significant amount of the processing time is spent simply iterating through the arrays. Some properties of a few sets of values being operated on Total | Strings | # of matches per string | | Strings | With Matches | Average | Median | Max | Time (s) | --------+--------------+---------+--------+------+----------+ 844 | 413 | 1.8 | 1 | 58 | 140 | 593 | 156 | 1.2 | 1 | 5 | 62 | 272 | 168 | 3.2 | 2 | 26 | 10 | 157 | 47 | 1.5 | 1 | 4 | 3.2 | 106 | 48 | 1.8 | 1 | 8 | 1.3 | 62 | 47 | 2.9 | 2 | 16 | 0.4 | Are there any other things I can do to reduce the time to check criteria, and more importantly are there any ways for me to reduce the number of criteria checks required (for example, by pre-processing the input values), since there is such low selectivity?

    Read the article

  • Could git do not store history of specific folders when working with git-svn?

    - by Timofey Basanov
    In short: Is there a way to disable storing full history for specific folders in git-svn repo? We have pretty large SVN repo with big checkout. I would like to migrate it to Git for my local development, because Git speeds up update and status commands orders of magnitude. When I simply do git svn clone it creates very big repo. Big enough to be bigger then my whole HDD. The problem lies in binary directories for which history is too large. Latest binaries are required for proper local build, but history is not required at all for my development process. I will never change them myself. I would like to store only latest versions for specific folders, or may be a history, but for no more than a week. I could only found filter for git svn fetch, which excludes specific folders at all. This is not exactly what I need. It's OK with me to have Cron task which deletes history from specific folders, but I do not know how to make one. Also Cron does not solve problem of first git svn clone. P.S. SVN repository structure could not be changed by any means.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Custom/User Control With Children

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want a create a custom/user control that has children (NOT a template control). For Example, I want my control to have the following markup: <div runat="server" id="div"> <label runat="server" id="label"></label> <div class="field"> <!-- INSERT CHILDREN HERE --> </div> </div> and when I want to use it on a page I simply: <ctr:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="myControl"> <span>This is a child</span> <div>And another <b>child</b> </ctr:MyUserControl> The child controls inside my user control will be inserted into my user control somewhere. What is the best way to accomplish this. The functionality is similar to a asp:PlaceHolder but I want to add a couple more options as well as additional markup and the such. Also the child controls still need to be able to be accessed by the page.

    Read the article

  • matching images inside a link in regex

    - by user225269
    What is wrong with regex pattern that I created: $link_image_pattern = '/\<a\shref="([^"]*)"\>\<img\s.+\><\/a\>/'; preg_match_all($link_image_pattern, $str, $link_images); What I'm trying to do is to match all the links which has images inside of them. But when I try to output $link_images it contains everything inside the first index: <pre> <?php print_r($link_images); ?> </pre> The markup looks something like this: Array ( [0] = Array ([0] = " <p>&nbsp;</p> <p><strong><a href="url">Title</a></strong></p> <p>Desc</p> <p><a href="{$image_url2}"><img style="background-image:none;padding-left:0;padding-right:0;display:inline;padding-top:0;border-width:0;" title="image" border="0" alt="image" src="{$image_url2}" width="569" height="409"></a></p> But when outputting the contents of the matches, it simply returns the first string that matches the pattern plus all the other markup in the page like this: <a href="{$image_url}"><img style="background-image:none;padding-left:0;padding-right:0;display:inline;padding-top:0;border-width:0;" title="image" border="0" alt="image" src="{$image_url}" width="568" height="347"></a></p> <p>&nbsp;</p> <p><strong><a href="url">Title</a></strong></p> <p>Desc</p> <p><a href="{$image_url2}"><img style="background-image:none;padding-left:0;padding-right:0;display:inline;padding-top:0;border-width:0;" title="image" border="0" alt="image" src="{$image_url2}" width="569" height="409"></a></p>")

    Read the article

  • Website badge system

    - by linkyndy
    I am currently working on a widget-based website, built entirely on user socialization. Since a reputation system pays off for attracting users, I decided to implement one of these. Now, I would like to hear some solutions on how should this be implemented the right way (take, for example, Foursquare's badge system). Basically, I need to be able to do the following: have a badges table, where I can add, edit and delete badges; be able to enable and disable a badge; be able to introduce a new badge, but without writing new code - simply give some parameters to the add badge form regarding what should be followed in order for a user to receive a badge; be able to give badges in real time - meaning that whenever a user accomplishes whatever it needs to receive a badge, the system should know immediately to give the badge to that user; also, the system should not be overloaded with "badge listeners" - I believe interrogating each user request with every badge requirements is time consuming; These being said, I would like to hear your opinions on how to implement the right way a badge system (logic, database schema, methods etc.) Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • Cookies not working for password-protected Pages on WordPress

    - by KaOSoFt
    Initially I had the issue reported in this question. Now, what I noticed is that there are some browsers that accept the password, and there are some which don't. Difference? For some reason the cookie is generated when I log in into the Administration module, but it isn't when I write down the password to access the page, forcing it to simply reload. I can see the cookie created for the log-in, but I can see none for the password-protected Page. These happens on Internet Explorer, both version 7 and 8; only on some machines, though, but most of them fail this. I already tried white-listing the URL, and even letting it accept ALL cookies, to no avail. What may be the cause? If perhaps it's got something to do with question above, please help me! Thanks in advance. PS: If you know of another, cookie-free method to make a simple authentication, please link me to it. Thanks. Oh, and by the way, this is inside an Intranet with static, class C IPs.

    Read the article

  • HTML5 card game [closed]

    - by ChrisCa
    I created a card game in silverlight a year or so ago in order to learn a bit about Silverlight. I am now wanting to make a HTML5 version of the game in an effort to learn a little bit more about that. I am thinking I'd like to take advantage of stuff like Knockout.js and WebSockets and the canvas element. Now what I'm confused about is how to lay out the cards on the screen. With Silverlight I was able to make a "Hand" control, which was made up of two sub controls - the cards the player has in their hand and the ones they have on the table. And they in turn were made up of Card controls. Now I don't believe there is the concept on a User Control in javascript. So I am possibly thinking about this in entirely the wrong way. So my question is - how could I lay out some cards on the table and perhaps make reuse of something for each player? I have a client side JSON object called game, which contains an array of players. Each player has a hand which is made up of an array of in-hand cards and on-table cards. Ideally I would like to bind these to something using Knockout.js - but I don't know what I could bind to. Would I simply position images (of cards) on a canvas? Is there a way to make some kind of Hand object that each player could have and that I could bind to? Any advice? Or sample code you've seen elsewhere?

    Read the article

  • Background loading javascript into iframe with using jQuery/Ajax?

    - by user210099
    I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • What are good examples of perfectly acceptable approaches to development that are NOT test driven development (TDD)?

    - by markbruns
    The TDD cycle is test, code, refactor, (repeat) and then ship. TDD implies development that is driven by testing, specifically that means understanding requirements and then writing tests first before developing or writing code. My natural inclination is a philosophical bias in favor of TDD; I would like to be convinced that there are other approaches that now work well or even better than TDD so I have asked this question. What are examples of perfectly acceptable approaches that NOT test driven development? I can think of plenty approaches that are not TDD but could be a lot more trouble than what they are worth ... it's not moral judgement, it's just that they are cost more than they are worth ... the following are simply examples of things that might be ok as learning exercises, but approaches I'd find to be NOT acceptable in serious production and NOT TDD might include: Inspecting quality into your product -- Focusing efforts on developing a proficiency in testing/QA can be problematic, especially if you don't work on the requirements and development side first ... symptom of this include bug triaging where the developers have so many different bugs to deal with it, it is necessary to employ a form of triage -- each development cycle gets worse and worse, programmers work more and more hours, sleep less and less, struggle to keep going in death march until they are consumed. Superstition ... believing in things that you don't understand -- this would involve borrowing code that you believe has been proven or tested from somewhere, e.g. legacy code, a magic code starter wizard or an open source project, and you go forward hacking up a storm of modifications, sliding FaceBook Connect into your the user interface, inventing some new magic features on the fly (e.g. a mashup using the Twitter API, GoogleMaps API and maybe Zappos API), showing off your cool new "product" to a few people and then writing up a simple "specification" and list of "test cases" and turning that over to Mechanical Turk for testing.

    Read the article

  • Struts2 Value Stack

    - by vipul12389
    I want to understand Struts 2 value stack vs request scope. I want the struts2 value stack to work same as request scope. for e.g. i have invoked action1 in struts 2, the action performs some db task and gets back. it performs some operation on a object called cases (type Cases, where Cases is bean class with getters and setters). cases object is declared at class level. action1 led a view to be rendered say jsp1. jsp1 again has some action called as action2. action2 leads to the same java file as of action1 but has different method. Now, i want to access the object which was used in action1. during action1 cases was pushed to Value Stack and was accessed on jsp1. I simply tried accessing its getter methods, but it returns a null value....!! any solution on how to do ??? or is it possible ?? i know if its possible then what is the difference between vs and request scope...

    Read the article

  • MySQL datetime fields and daylight savings time -- how do I reference the "extra" hour?

    - by Aaron
    I'm using the America/New York timezone. In the Fall we "fall back" an hour -- effectively "gaining" one hour at 2am. At the transition point the following happens: it's 01:59:00 -04:00 then 1 minute later it becomes: 01:00:00 -05:00 So if you simply say "1:30am" it's ambiguous as to whether or not you're referring to the first time 1:30 rolls around or the second. I'm trying to save scheduling data to a MySQL database and can't determine how to save the times properly. Here's the problem: "2009-11-01 00:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 00:30:00 -04:00 "2009-11-01 01:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 01:30:00 -05:00 This is fine and fairly expected. But how do I save anything to 01:30:00 -04:00? The documentation does not show any support for specifying the offset and, accordingly, when I've tried specifying the offset it's been duly ignored. The only solutions I've thought of involve setting the server to a timezone that doesn't use daylight savings time and doing the necessary transformations in my scripts (I'm using PHP for this). But that doesn't seem like it should be necessary. Many thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Overhead of calling tiny functions from a tight inner loop? [C++]

    - by John
    Say you see a loop like this one: for(int i=0; i<thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE).count(); ++i) { thing.getData().insert( thing.GetData().Count(), thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE)[i].getName() ); } if this was Java I'd probably not think twice. But in performance-critical sections of C++, it makes me want to tinker with it... however I don't know if the compiler is smart enough to make it futile. This is a made up example but all it's doing is inserting strings into a container. Please don't assume any of these are STL types, think in general terms about the following: Is having a messy condition in the for loop going to get evaluated each time, or only once? If those get methods are simply returning references to member variables on the objects, will they be inlined away? Would you expect custom [] operators to get optimized at all? In other words is it worth the time (in performance only, not readability) to convert it to something like: ElementContainer &source = thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE); int num = source.count(); Store &destination = thing.getData(); for(int i=0;i<num;++i) { destination.insert(thing.GetData().Count(), source[i].getName(); } Remember, this is a tight loop, called millions of times a second. What I wonder is if all this will shave a couple of cycles per loop or something more substantial? Yes I know the quote about "premature optimisation". And I know that profiling is important. But this is a more general question about modern compilers, Visual Studio in particular.

    Read the article

  • How to efficiently get all instances from deeper level in Cocoa model?

    - by Johan Kool
    In my Cocoa Mac app I have an instance A which contains an unordered set of instances B which in turn has an ordered set of instances C. An instance of C can only be in one instance B and B only in one A.   I would like to have an unordered set of all instances C available on instance A. I could enumerate over all instances B each time, but that seems expensive for something I need to do often. However, I am a bit worried that keeping track of instances C in A could become cumbersome and be the cause of  inconsistencies, for example if an instance C gets removed from B but not from A.  Solution 1 Use a NSMutableSet in A and add or remove C instances whenever I do the same operation in B.  Solution 2 Use a weak referenced NSHashTable in A. When deleting a C from B, it should disappear for A as well.  Solution 3 Use key value observing in A to keep track of changes in B, and update a NSMutableSet in A accordingly.  Solution 4 Simply iterate over all instances B to create the set whenever I need it.   Which way is best? Are there any other approaches that I missed?  NB I don't and won't use CoreData for this app.

    Read the article

  • has_many :through default values

    - by David Lyod
    I have a need to design a system to track users memberships to groups with varying roles (currently three). class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :users, :through => :memberships end class Role < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :users, :through => :memberships end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :role belongs_to :group end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :groups, :through => :memberships end Ideally what I want is to simply set @group.users << @user and have the membership have the correct role. I can use :conditions to select data that has been manually inserted as such : :conditions => ["memberships.grouprole_id= ? ", Grouprole.find_by_name('user')] But when creating the membership to the group the grouprole_id is not being set. Is there a way to do this as at present I have a somewhat repetitive piece of code for each user role in my Group model.

    Read the article

  • What's a good way to organize a large collection of personal scripts using git?

    - by spooky note
    I have a large collection of my personal scripts that I would like to start versioning using Git. I've previously organized my code as follows: ~/code/python/projects/ (for large stuff, each project contained in an individual folder) ~/code/python/scripts/ (single file scripts all contained in this directory) ~/code/python/sandbox/ (my testing area) ~/code/python/docs/ (downloaded documentation) ~/code/java/... (as above) Now i'm going to start versioning my code using git, so that I can have history and backup all my code to a remote server. I know if I were using SVN I would just keep my entire "~/code/" directory in a large repository, but I understand this is not a good way to do things with Git. Most info I've seen online suggests keeping all my project folders in a single place (as in, no separate directories for python or java) with each project containing it's own git repository, and simply having a "snippets" directory containing all single-file scripts/experiments that can be converted into projects at a later date. But I'm not sure how I feel about consolidating all of my code directories into one area. Is there a good way to keep my separate code directories intact, or is it not worth the effort? Maybe I'm just attached to the separate code directories because I've never known anything else... Also (as a side note), I'd like to quickly be able to see a chronological history of all my projects and scripts. So I can see which projects I created most recently. I used to do this by keeping a number at the beginning of all my projects, 002project, 003project. Is there automatic or easy way to do this in git without having to add a number to all of the project names? I'm open to any practical or philosophical code organizing advice you have. Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • Joomla User Login Question

    - by user277127
    I would like to enable users of my existing web app to login to Joomla with the credentials already stored in my web app's database. By using the Joomla 1.5 authentication plugin system -- http://docs.joomla.org/Tutorial:Creating_an_Authentication_Plugin_for_Joomla_1.5 -- I would like to bypass the Joomla registration process and bypass creating users in the Joomla database altogether. My thought had been that I could simply populate a User object, which would be stored in the Session, and that this would replace the need to store a user in the Joomla database. After looking through the code surrounding user management in Joomla, it seems like any time you interact with the User object, the database is being queried. It therefore seems like my initial idea won't work. Is that right? It looks like, in order to achieve the effect I want, I will have to actually register a user from within the authentication plugin at the time they first login. This is not ideal, so before I go forward with it, I wanted to check with Joomla developers whether it is possible to do what I described above. Thanks in advance -- I am new to Joomla and greatly appreciate your help!

    Read the article

  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >