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• How can I layout a sidebar or pullquote?

  - by Rich

  I have 4 divs in a fixed width layout: a, b, c, and d, and they are ordered in the html like this: <div id="a"> </div> <div id="b"> </div> <div id="c"> </div> <div id="d"> </div> Using CSS, I want them to be laid out with divs a, b, and d in a vertical column, and div c to the right of and top-aligned with div b, like this: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbbccc bbbccc ddd ddd ddd I need this layout to work even though the divs contain unknown content, and so could be of varying length: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbbccc dddccc dddccc ddd or: aaa aaa aaa bbbccc bbb bbb ddd ddd ddd or even (if possible): aaa aaa bbbccc dddccc eeeccc eee I can't simply float div c to the right and then move it up, because, without using Javascript, I don't know the height of div b, and so don't know how much to move it up by. Is this possible in HTML and CSS, without reordering the divs?

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• javascript unable to locate a form using the ID tag

  - by ihake

  Here's my problem: I'm trying to set up a simple mobile contact form with a captcha built in. The page I'm working on can be found here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/contact.php I'm using the following php contact form: http://www.html-form-guide.com/contact-form/php-email-contact-form.html I want to first say that I'm not the only one to run into this problem. After googling the issue, I've found multiple people struggling with this, but no-one seems to have an answer. Now for the problem... As you can see if you visit the page, each time the page is accessed, an error appears that says "Error: couldnot get Form object contact_form". I cannot--for the life of me--figure out why the javascript can't find the form I pass it. I call the function that generates this error at the top of the page: var frmvalidator = new Validator("contact_form"); The form I'm referencing is as follows in the HTML code: <div data-role="page" data-theme="e" id="contact_form" name="contact_form" data-position="inline"> ... And the function that is called that generates the error can be found in an external .js file here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/scripts/gen_validatorv31.js Is there something that I am simply not seeing? Why can't the javascript locate the form? Thanks so much to anyone that helps with this.

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• Need help getting buttons to work...

  - by Mike Droid

  I am trying to get my first button to update a display number in my view when clicked. This view will have several buttons and "outputs" displayed. After reading examples and Q's here, I finally put something together that runs, but my first button is still not working; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.ship_layout); mSwitcher = (TextSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.eng_val); } private TextSwitcher mSwitcher; // Will be connected with the buttons via XML void onClick(View v){ switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.engplus: engcounter++; updateCounter(); break; case R.id.engneg: engcounter--; updateCounter(); break; } } private void updateCounter() { mSwitcher.setText(String.valueOf(engcounter)); } The .xml for this button is; <TextSwitcher android:id="@+id/eng_val" android:visibility="visible" android:paddingTop="9px" android:paddingLeft="50px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/build" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/engeq" android:textColor="#DD00ff00" android:textSize="24sp"/> This is within a Relative Layout that appears otherwise OK. When I had set the view to have a TextView with the number set as a string , the number displayed, but I could not figure out how to update the text with a numerical field. That may be my real problem. I have gone through many examples generally referenced from the dev. site (UI, Common Tasks, various samples), and I am still not seeing the connection here... Again, this is simply a try at getting variables to respond to buttons and update on the view. So, a few Q's for anyone that can help; 1) Is there any easier way of doing this (ie. send numerical value to View) ? 2) Why isn't my TextSwitcher displaying the number? 3) Should I be using a TextSwitcher here? 4) Any examples of this you can point me to?

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• Does this code depend on string interning to work?

  - by Nick Gotch

  I'm creating a key for a dictionary which is a structure of two strings. When I test this method in a console app, it works, but I'm not sure if the only reason it works is because the strings are being interned and therefore have the same references. Foo foo1 = new Foo(); Foo foo2 = new Foo(); foo1.Key1 = "abc"; foo2.Key1 = "abc"; foo1.Key2 = "def"; foo2.Key2 = "def"; Dictionary<Foo, string> bar = new Dictionary<Foo, string>(); bar.Add(foo1, "found"); if(bar.ContainsKey(foo2)) System.Console.WriteLine("This works."); else System.Console.WriteLine("Does not work"); The struct is simply: public struct Foo { public string Key1; public string Key2; } Are there any cases which would cause this to fail or am I good to rely on this as a unique key?

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• Low Throughput on Windows Named Pipe Over WAN

  - by MichaelB76

  I'm having problems with low performance using a Windows named pipe. The throughput drops off rapidly as the network latency increases. There is a roughly linear relationship between messages sent per second and round trip time. It seems that the client must ack each message before the server will send the next one. This leads to very poor performance, I can only send 5 (~100 byte) messages per second over a link with an RTT of 200 ms. The pipe is asynchronous, using multiple overlapped write operations (and multiple overlapped reads at the client end), but this is not improving throughput. Is it possible to send messages in parallel over a named pipe? The pipe is created using PIPE_TYPE_MESSAGE, would PIPE_READMODE_BYTE work better? Is there any other way I can improve performance? This is a deployed solution, so I can't simply replace the pipe with a socket connection (I've read that Windows named pipe aren't recommended for use over a WAN, and I'm wondering if this is why). I'd be grateful for any help with this matter.

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• Is this a good way to generically deserialize objects?

  - by Damien Wildfire

  I have a stream onto which serialized objects representing messages are dumped periodically. The objects are one of a very limited number of types, and other than the actual sequence of bytes that arrives, I have no way of knowing what type of message it is. I would like to simply try to deserialize it as an object of a particular type, and if an exception is thrown, try again with the next type. I have an interface that looks like this: public interface IMessageHandler<T> where T : class, IMessage { T Handle(string message); } // elsewhere: // (These are all xsd.exe-generated classes from an XML schema.) public class AppleMessage : IMessage { ... } public class BananaMessage : IMessage { ... } public class CoconutMessage : IMessage { ... } Then I wrote a GenericHandler<T> that looks like this: public class GenericHandler<T> : IMessageHandler<T> where T: class, IMessage { public class MessageHandler : IMessageHandler { T IMessageHandler.Handle(string message) { T result = default(T); try { // This utility method tries to deserialize the object with an // XmlSerializer as if it were an object of type T. result = Utils.SerializationHelper.Deserialize<T>(message); } catch (InvalidCastException e) { result = default(T); } return result; } } } Two questions: Using my GenericHandler<T> (or something similar to it), I'd now like to populate a collection with handlers that each handle a different type. Then I want to invoke each handler's Handle method on a particular message to see if it can be deserialized. If I get a null result, move onto the next handler; otherwise, the message has been deserialized. Can this be done? Is there a better way to deserialize data of unknown (but restricted) type?

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• Implementing IEnumeralbe on Non-Listed Items

  - by Stacey

  I have a class that contains a static number of objects. This class needs to be frequently 'compared' to other classes that will be simple List objects. public partial class Sheet { public Item X{ get; set; } public Item Y{ get; set; } public Item Z{ get; set; } } the items are obviously not going to be "X" "Y" "Z", those are just generic names for example. The problem is that due to the nature of what needs to be done, a List won't work; even though everything in here is going to be of type Item. It is like a checklist of very specific things that has to be tested against in both code and runtime. This works all fine and well; it isn't my issue. My issue is iterating it. For instance I want to do the following... List<Item> UncheckedItems = // Repository Logic Here. UncheckedItems contains all available items; and the CheckedItems is the Sheet class instance. CheckedItems will contain items that were moved from Unchecked to Checked; however due to the nature of the storage system, items moved to Checked CANNOT be REMOVED from Unchecked. I simply want to iterate through "Checked" and remove anything from the list in Unchecked that is already in "Checked". So naturally, that would go like this with a normal list. foreach(Item item in Unchecked) { if( Checked.Contains(item) ) Unchecked.Remove( item ); } But since "Sheet" is not a 'List', I cannot do that. So I wanted to implement IEnumerable so that I could. Any suggestions? I've never implemented IEnumerable directly before and I'm pretty confused as to where to begin.

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• image transistion

  - by Jeff Main

  Hi all. I've gotten stuck again. I've got an image (album cover) that I'll be changing in code behind, and wish to basicaly do the following. When a new album cover image is determine and aquired, I want the current image in the image control to fade out, get updated with the new cover, and then fade back in. I'm not seeing very many good examples on how to accomplish this in code behind. The following was my latest failed attempt... if (currentTrack != previousTrack) { BitmapImage image = new BitmapImage(); image.BeginInit(); image.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; image.CreateOptions = BitmapCreateOptions.IgnoreImageCache; image.UriSource = new Uri(Address, UriKind.Absolute); image.EndInit(); Storyboard MyStoryboard = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation FadeOut = new DoubleAnimation(); FadeOut.From = 1.0; FadeOut.To = 0.0; FadeOut.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(FadeOut); Storyboard.SetTargetName(FadeOut, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(FadeOut, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); CoverArt.Source = image; DoubleAnimation Fadein = new DoubleAnimation(); Fadein.From = 0.0; Fadein.To = 1.0; Fadein.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(Fadein); Storyboard.SetTargetName(Fadein, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(Fadein, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); MyStoryboard.Begin(this); } I'd prefer to do this in code behind simply because that is where I'm aquiring the image. Otherwise, I'm not sure how I'd trigger it. An example would be greatly appriciated. Thanks.

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• Need an advice for ASP.NET MVC2 Newsletter Project

  - by ck3g

  I'm new in ASP.NET MVC2. But I want to develop a simply Newsletter site. The main problem which stuck me is how correctly use MVC pattern in News details and comments list. For example: I have a NewsController and action Details inside. And two model classes News and Comments. I want show all comments belongs to this News record and textarea for adding new comments. I wand display all this content in /News/Details/ How can i do it? I tried use PartialViews in Details View: one for Adding Comment and another for Comment list. I have passed comment object thorough ViewData["Comment"]. But i have problems with my models (think I cant use two models in View) Again. How can I display Single Post + Comments + add comment view at single page using ASP.NET MVC2? Another Example is stackoverflow.com. Here is an question + answers + write answer. I need same structure

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• java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError thrown with my own packages in Android 1.5

  - by TiGer

  Hi, I have developed an application which has several packages within it's project... A class in one of those packages is called right away in the first line of code, which throws the dreaded java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError error... I don't get it, the package simply is within the project, and it works fine on my Android 1.6 device, but won't work with my 1.5 device... I do have to say that the project was originally set for 1.6, but then I changed the within the manifest from 4 to 3... Is that bad practice ? Or maybe it has nothing to do with the platform version ? Also I do get these lines as wel from the DDMS : 05-04 17:24:59.921: WARN/dalvikvm(2041): VFY: unable to resolve static field 2 (MANUFACTURER) in Landroid/os/Build; 05-04 17:24:59.921: WARN/dalvikvm(2041): VFY: rejecting opcode 0x62 at 0x0034 05-04 17:24:59.921: WARN/dalvikvm(2041): VFY: rejected Lmobilaria/android/managementModule/Management;.getDeviceSpecifics ()V 05-04 17:24:59.921: WARN/dalvikvm(2041): Verifier rejected class Lmobilaria/android/managementModule/Management; Thats the ManagementModule which also tries to retrieve several info-fields of the device itself... Again, this works just fine on the 1.6 device, even though thats a development device whilst my 1.5 device is a non-development device...

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• Security benefits from a second opinion, are there flaws in my plan to hash & salt user passwords vi

  - by Tchalvak

  Here is my plan, and goals: Overall Goals: Security with a certain amount of simplicity & database-to-database transferrability, 'cause I'm no expert and could mess it up and I don't want to have to ask a lot of users to reset their passwords. Easy to wipe the passwords for publishing a "wiped" databased of test data. (e.g. I'd like to be able to use a postgresql statement to simply reset all passwords to something simple so that testers can use that testing data for themselves). Plan: Hashing the passwords Account creation records the original email that an account is created with, forever. A global salt is used, e.g. "90fb16b6901dfceb73781ba4d8585f0503ac9391". An account specific salt, the original email the account was created with, is used, e.g. "[email protected]". The users's password is used, e.g. "password123" (I'll be warning against weak passwords in the signup form) The combination of the global salt, account specific salt, and password is hashed via some hashing method in postgresql (haven't been able to find documentation for hashing functions in postgresql, but being able to use sha-2 or something like that would be nice if I could find it). The hash gets stored in the database. Recovering an account To change their password, they have to go through standard password reset (and that reset email gets sent to the original email as well as the most recent account email that they have set). Flaws? Are there any flaws with this that I need to address? And are there best practices to doing hashing fully within postgresql?

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• JSONP not firing on IPad

  - by Gemtag

  After trying everything possible I've come to the conclusion this is an issue with IPad Safari. This works in FF, IE, Chrome, and Safari on MacBook. Below is my dumbed-down code. I have 2 separate JSONP calls, This first one works in all browsers including IPad. This simply calls a function based on a blur event $('#gender').blur(function() { reTarget(); }); function reTarget() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } Below is where things break. On the same page as the above code is the following, which calls a function based on a submit button click. $(':submit').bind('click', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); $('form').bind('submit', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); function checkThis() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm.aspx?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } This code will not fire. I've put alerts right before it and they fire. I look at the web logs and there is no entry for this json call. I would take any suggestions on this. At this point I fear it's a problem with firing jsonp from a submit event.

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• Google Chrome forgetting registration cookie immediately

  - by Ryan Giglio

  I'm having trouble with cookies on my site's registration form. When a user creates an account, PHP sets one cookie with their user id, and one cookie with a hash containing their user agent and a few other things. Both of these cookies are set to expire in an hour. This is the code that sets the cookie after creating your account $registerHash = hash( "sha512", $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'] . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] . $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] ); setcookie("register_user_id", $newUserID, time() + 7200, "/"); setcookie("register_hash", $registerHash, time() + 7200, "/"); The next page is a confirmation page which sends an email and then optionally lets the user go on to fill out more account information. If the user goes on to fill out more, it uses the cookie to know what account to save it to. It works correctly in Firefox and IE, but in Chrome the cookie is forgotten as soon as you go to the next page. The cookie simply doesn't exist. You can see the problem here: http://crewinyourcode.com/register/paid/ If you use Chrome, you will get a registration timeout error as soon as you try to advance past the confirmation page. However on Firefox it works fine.

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• While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

  - by Mahn

  I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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• Identify words with ascending characters from text file

  - by user2914000

  I am having a fair amount of trouble trying to write a program that counts the amount of ascending words (words in which each character is larger than the previous character) in a text file. I have tried a few different methods to solve this but cannot seem to get it working. If anyone could help me revise the code to work properly it would be appreciated. The code will print about 5 of the words from the list of nearly 20000, but none considered are ascending (the file does have many ascending words) and it sometimes prints the same word twice. I am printing theWord to the console simply to see if the code works. import java.util.Scanner; import java.io.*; public class { public static void main (String [] args) throws FileNotFoundException{ String theWord; Scanner inputFile = new Scanner(new File("file.txt")); boolean ascending = true; int i = 1; while(inputFile.hasNextLine()){ theWord = inputFile.nextLine(); if(theWord.length() >= 2){ while(i < theWord.length() - 1){ if(theWord.charAt(i) <= theWord.charAt(i + 1)){ ascending = true; System.out.println("+ " + theWord); totalNum = totalNum + 1; } else{ ascending = false; System.out.println("= " + theWord); } i++; } } }

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• Controlling race condition at startup.

  - by Will Hartung

  I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

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• How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

  - by Nadar

  I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

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• Why won't my code segfault on Windows 7?

  - by Trevor

  This is an unusual question to ask but here goes: In my code, I accidentally dereference NULL somewhere. But instead of the application crashing with a segfault, it seems to stop execution of the current function and just return control back to the UI. This makes debugging difficult because I would normally like to be alerted to the crash so I can attach a debugger. What could be causing this? Specifically, my code is an ODBC Driver (ie. a DLL). My test application is ODBC Test (odbct32w.exe) which allows me to explicitly call the ODBC API functions in my DLL. When I call one of the functions which has a known segfault, instead of crashing the application, ODBC Test simply returns control to the UI without printing the result of the function call. I can then call any function in my driver again. I do know that technically the application calls the ODBC driver manager which loads and calls the functions in my driver. But that is beside the point as my segfault (or whatever is happening) causes the driver manager function to not return either (as evidenced by the application not printing a result). One of my co-workers with a similar machine experiences this same problem while another does not but we have not been able to determine any specific differences.

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• HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

  - by arik-so

  Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

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• Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

  - by John

  I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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• (Python/Pyramid) Better ways to have standard list/form editors?

  - by badcat

  I'm working on a number of Pyramid (former Pylons) projects, and often I have the need to display a list of some content (let's say user accounts, log entries or simply some other data). A user should be able to paginate through the list, click on a row and get a form where he/she can edit the contents of that row. Right now I'm always re-inventing the wheel by having Mako templates which use webhelpers for the pagination, Jquery UI for providing a dialog and I craft the editor form and AJAX requests on the client and server side by hand. As you may know, this eats up painfully much time. So what I'm wondering is: Is there a better way of providing lists, editor dialog and server/client communication about this, without having to re-invent the wheel every time? I heard Django takes off a big load of that by providing user accounts and other stuff out of the box; but in my case it's not just about user accounts, it can be any kind of data that is stored on the server-side in a SQL database, which should be able to be edited by a user. Thanks in advance!

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• Add to a table with javascript

  - by incrediman

  I have a table which looks like this: <table id='t'> <thead> .... </thead> <tbody id='t_tbody'> </tbody> </table> thead is filled with content tbody is empty I want to use javascript to add this (for example) to t_tbody: <tr> <td>Name</td> <td>Points</td> <td>Information</td> </tr> How can I do this? I need a function which adds the above to t_tbody. Note that simply using document.getElementById('t_tbody').innerHtml+="<tr>...</tr>" works fine in FF, but not in IE. Also note that I need to use raw javascript (ie. no frameworks) for this project, as I am finishing a project which has already been mostly completed using raw javascript.

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• XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

  - by user323772

  This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

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• Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

  - by Tyler

  I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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• Display web page from another site in asp page.

  - by Daniel

  hi all, Our customer has a requirement to extend the functionality of their existing large government project. It is an ASP.NET 3.5 (recently upgraded from 2.0) project. The existing solution is quite a behemoth that is almost unmaintainable so they have decided that they want to provide the new functionality by hosting it on another website that is shown within the existing website. As to how this is best to be done I'm not quite sure right now and if there is any security issues preventing it or that need to be considered. Essentially the user would log on to the existing web site as normal and when cliicking on a certain link the page would load as normal with some kind of frame or control that has within it the contents of the page from the other site. IE. They do not want to simply redirect to the other site they want to show it embedded within the current one such that the existing menus etc are still available. I believe if information needed to be passed to the embedded page it would be done using query strings as I'm not sure if there is even another way to accomplish this. Can anyone give me some pointers on where to start at looking to implement this or any potential pitfalls I should be aware of. Thanks

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