Search Results

Search found 16162 results on 647 pages for 'property attribute'.

Page 583/647 | < Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >

  • Deleting from 2 arrays of dictionaries

    - by Matt Winters
    I have an array of dictionaries loaded from a plist (below) called arrayHistory. <plist version="1.0"> <array> <dict> <key>item</key> <string>1</string> <key>result</key> <string>8.1</string> <key>date</key> <date>2009-12-15T19:36:59Z</date> </dict> ... </array> </plist> I filter this array based on 'item' so that a second array, arrayHistoryDetail has the same structure as arrayHistory but only contains e.g. 'item's equal to '1'. These detail items are successfully displayed in a tableView. I then want to select an item from the tableView, and delete it from the tableView data source, arrayHistoryDetail (line 2 in the code below) - works, then I want to delete the item from the tableView itself (line 3 in the code below) - also works. My problem is that I also need to delete it from the original arrayHistory, so I tried the following: created a temporary dictionary as an ivar: NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; Then my thinking was to make a copy in line 1 and remove it from the original array in line 4. 1 tempDict = [arrayHistoryDetail objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 2 [arrayHistoryDetail removeObjectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 3 [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; 4 [arrayHistory removeObject:tempDict]; Didn't work. Could someone please guide me in the right direction. I'm thinking that tempDict is a pointer and that removeObject needs a copy? I don't know. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I show grouping in a WPF Data Grid with multiple levels?

    - by Keith
    I am relatively new to WPF, so I understand about Styles and setters, but I am having trouble on this one. I am using a WPF Data Grid and need to show multiple levels of grouping. I would like the 2nd and 3rd group levels to be more indented than the top level. The following code will show group levels, but it shows them one right on top of the other and makes the fact that they are nested group levels impossible to tell. <Style x:Key="GroupHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Expander IsExpanded="True"> <Expander.Header> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"/> </Expander.Header> <ItemsPresenter /> </Expander> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> How can I get the group header to indent based on level?

    Read the article

  • Problem with inheritance and List<>

    - by Jagd
    I have an abstract class called Grouping. I have a subclass called GroupingNNA. public class GroupingNNA : Grouping { // blah blah blah } I have a List that contains items of type GroupingNNA, but is actually declared to contain items of type Grouping. List<Grouping> lstGroupings = new List<Grouping>(); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Joe" }); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Jane" }); The Problem: The following LINQ query blows up on me because of the fact that lstGroupings is declared as List< Grouping and fName is a property of GroupingNNA, not Grouping. var results = from g in lstGroupings where r.fName == "Jane" select r; Oh, and this is a compiler error, not a runtime error. Thanks in advance for any help on this one! More Info: Here is the actual method that won't compile. The OfType() fixed the LINQ query, but the compiler doesn't like the fact that I'm trying to return the anonymous type as a List< Grouping. private List<Grouping> ApplyFilterSens(List<Grouping> lstGroupings, string fSens) { // This works now! Thanks @Lasse var filtered = from r in lstGroupings.OfType<GroupingNNA>() where r.QASensitivity == fSens select r; if (filtered != null) { **// Compiler doesn't like this now** return filtered.ToList<Grouping>(); } else return new List<Grouping>(); }

    Read the article

  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

    Read the article

  • Which is better Span that runat server or default asp lable ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I have a simple asp.net web page that contain a table with about 5 TR and each row have 2 TD .. in the page load I get user data ( 5 property ) and view them in this page the following are first 2 rows : <table> <tr> <td> FullName </td> <td> <span id="fullNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Username </td> <td> <span id="userNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> </table> I always used <asp:Label to set value by code but i always notice that label converted in runtime to span so i decided to user span by making him runat=server to be accessed by code, so Which is better to use asp:label or span with runat=server ??

    Read the article

  • datagridviewcomboboxcolumn with datasource issue?

    - by Sarrrva
    i have some propblem in datagridviewcombobocolumn with custom datasource property in vb.net. when i add datasource it does not populate in datagridview combobox column it giving nothing.. any one please help me out from this problem... code comboboxcell: Public Overrides Sub InitializeEditingControl(ByVal rowIndex As Integer, ByVal initialFormattedValue As Object, ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) ' Set the value of the editing control to the current cell value. MyBase.InitializeEditingControl(rowIndex, initialFormattedValue, dataGridViewCellStyle) Dim ctl As ComboEditingControl = CType(DataGridView.EditingControl, ComboEditingControl) ctl.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDown ctl.AutoCompleteSource = AutoCompleteSource.ListItems ctl.AutoCompleteMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoCompleteMode.Suggest If (Me.DataGridView.Rows(rowIndex).Cells(0).Value <> Nothing) Then Dim GetValueFromRowToUseForBuildingCombo As String = Me.DataGridView.Rows(rowIndex).Cells(0).Value.ToString() ctl.Items.Clear() Dim dt As New DataTable() Try dt = TryCast(DirectCast(Me.DataGridView.Columns(ColumnIndex), ComboColumn).DataSource, DataTable) Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("error") End Try If (dt Is Nothing) Then ctl.Items.Add("") Else Dim thing As DataRow For Each thing In dt.Rows ctl.Items.Add(thing(0).ToString) Next End If If Me.Value Is Nothing Then ctl.SelectedIndex = -1 Else ctl.SelectedItem = Me.Value End If ctl.EditingControlDataGridView = Me.DataGridView End If End Sub from code: Dim widgets As New WidgetDataHandler Dim obj = widgets.GetAllWigetTypes() Dim dt As New DataTable Dim ListofmyObjects As New List(Of widget_types)(obj) Dim objList As New cObjectToTable(Of widget_types)(ListofmyObjects) dt = objList.GetTable() Dim obj1 For Each obj1 In obj blPersons.Add(obj1) Next Dim col1 As New DataGridViewTextBoxColumn col1.DisplayIndex = 0 col1.DataPropertyName = "Id" col1.HeaderText = "Id" dgvi00.Columns.Add(col1) Dim col2 As New ComboColumn col2.DisplayIndex = 1 col2.SortMode = DataGridViewColumnSortMode.Automatic col2.HeaderText = "Name" col2.DataPropertyName = "Name" col2.ToolTipText = "Select something from my combo" Dim dst As New DataSet 'Dim dt1 As New DataTable 'dt1.Columns.Add(col2.HeaderText) 'For Each thing In dt.Rows ' MsgBox(thing(1).ToString) ' dt1.Rows.Add(thing(1).ToString) 'Next dst.Tables.Add(dt) col2.DataSource = dst.Tables(0) col2.DisplayMember = "Name" Me.dgvi00.Columns.AddRange(col2) dgvi00.DataSource = blPersons.BindingSource 'setup the bindings for the binding navigator Dim bn As New _365_Media_Library.BindingNavigatorWithFilter bn.Dock = DockStyle.Bottom bn.GripStyle = ToolStripGripStyle.Hidden Me.Controls.Add(bn) bn.BindingSource = blPersons.BindingSource note : its working good in standalone application regards and thanks sarva

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 having problems with namespaces when used as type in Generic coolection

    - by patrick
    I just upgraded last week from Visual Studio 2005 to 2008. I am having an issue with compiler resolving namespaces when I use a class as a type in a Generic collection. Intellisense recognizes the class and the compiler generates no errors when I use the class except when it is a type in a Generic collection declaration either as return type for a Property or as a parameter to a method. This is happening in my only project that is targeting the 3.5 framework, but changing the project containing the class to use the 3.5 framework doesn't fix the problem. Examples Compile fine MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); SortedList <DateTime,MyClass> listOfClasses = new SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> Compile error - Namespace could not be found public SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> ClassList { get; set; } private void DoSomethingToLists(SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> classList) Intellisense has no problem resolving the namespace, only the compiler. Is this a known bug or am I missing something obvious? Will SP1 fix it? I was able to create a new library containing just this class targeting 3.5 and am now able to successfully use this in both 3.5 and 2.0 projects. My guess is that even though I tried to change the target of my original library, since it was still referencing 2.0 projects there was some conflict.

    Read the article

  • a way to use log4j pass values like java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my code

    - by raticulin
    I need to pass some value to enable certain code in may app (in this case is to optionally enable writing some stats to a file in certain conditions, but it might be anything generally). My java app is installed as a service. So every way I have thought of has some drawbacks: Add another param to main(): cumbersome as customers already have the tool installed, and the command line would need to be changed every time. Adding java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my command line: same as above. Set an environment variable: service should at least be restarted, and even then you must take care of what user is the service running under etc. Adding the property in the config file: I prefer not to have this visible on the config file so the user does not see it, it is something for debugging etc. So I thought maybe there is some way (or hack) to use log4j loggers to pass that value to my code. I have thought of one way already, although is very limited: Add a dummy class to my codebase com.dummy.DevOptions public class DevOptions { public static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(DevOptions.class); In my code, use it like this: if (DevOptions.logger.isInfoEnabled()){ //do my optional stuff } //... if (DevOptions.logger.isDebugEnabled()){ //do other stuff } This allows me to use discriminate among various values, and I could increase the number by adding more loggers to DevOptions. But I wonder whether there is a cleaner way, possibly by configuring the loggers only in log4j.xml??

    Read the article

  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

    Read the article

  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

    Read the article

  • Problem with derived ControlTemplates in WPF

    - by Frank Fella
    The following xaml code works: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> Now, if you define the following data template: using System.Windows.Controls; namespace DerivedTemplateBug { public class DerivedTemplate : ControlTemplate { } } And then swap the ControlTemplate for the derived class: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <local:DerivedTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </local:DerivedTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> You get the following error: Invalid ContentPropertyAttribute on type 'DerivedTemplateBug.DerivedTemplate', property 'Content' not found. Can anyone tell me why this is the case?

    Read the article

  • Problem: Movie Clip contains just one frame

    - by Doug
    I'm a newbie at Flash, so started playing with a pretty standard code sample: one layer contains a movie clip with a flying rectangle, another layer has a button to control it. All script code is in Main.as file. The rectangle was named square1 through the Property window. Here is the problem: the constructor for Main has a line: square1.stop(); to prevent clip from playing, but it doesn't help - it plays. I know the constructor fires, because it has trace("stuff") in it. The code does check that the stage has been created. What strange is that square1.currentFrame always returns 1, and square1.totalFrames returns 1 as well. The layer has 24 frames on the timeline. I tried a tween with just 2 keyframes, then converted whole tween into frames - same result. I mean, the thing is flying before my eyes, how can it be 1 frame??? I even added a listener: square1.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, onFrameChange); The event fires all the time, i.e. the frames change, but currentFrame is still 1. Also, tried to name individual frames and use square1.gotoAndStop("begin") and stuff like that. Nothing helps. I am really stuck with this stupid problem.

    Read the article

  • Programatically adding,changing and removing controls bound to model objects (MVVM)

    - by Ittai
    I have the following scenario and I'm trying to decide how it can and should be implemented in silverlight and c# via MVVM. Scenario: I have the following objects in my scenario: MyModel, MyModelControl, MyView and MyViewModel. MyModelcontrol is a custom UserControl of mine and the rest I think are pretty much self explanatory. MyViewModel is a Subscriber of a message which hands it a Collection<MyModel> newCol and let's mark curCol as the current Collection<MyModel> that MyViewModel holds. I then want to programatically add MyModelControl controls for each MyModel instance which belongs to newCol and not to curCol. I also want to bind the MyModelControl instance to the corresponding MyModel instance. In a similar manner I want to remove the controls which don't belong now to the collection and I want to update a property for those which belong to both. I do not want to remove all controls which belong to curCol and then add all controls for newCol as the creation of MyModelControl is "expensive". I'd appreciate help with how this should be implemented in SL as I'm new to it and to the MVVM pattern. Comments regarding the design would also be welcomed. B.T.W This will run on Windows Phone 7 so I think there are some limitations on versions, if this is an issue please comment and I'll verify which versions exactly I can use on the phone.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Objects Having Each Other as Properties

    - by mwt
    Let's say we have two objects. Furthermore, let's assume that they really have no reason to exist without each other. So we aren't too worried about re-usability. Is there anything wrong with them "knowing about" each other? Meaning, can each one have the other as a property? Is it OK to do something like this in a mythical third class: Foo *f = [[Foo alloc] init]; self.foo = f; [f release]; Bar *b = [[Bar alloc] init]; self.bar = b; [b release]; foo.bar = bar; bar.foo = foo; ...so that they can then call methods on each other? Instead of doing this, I'm usually using messaging, etc., but sometimes this seems like it might be a tidier solution. I hardly ever see it in example code (maybe never), so I've shied away from doing it. Can somebody set me straight on this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Java Detect Variable Change Using PropertyChangeSupport and PropertyChangeListener

    - by Sam
    I'm trying to print out debug statements when some third party code changes a variable. For example, consider the following: public final class MysteryClass { private int secretCounter; public synchronized int getCounter() { return secretCounter; } public synchronized void incrementCounter() { secretCounter++; } } public class MyClass { public static void main(String[] args) { MysteryClass mysteryClass = new MysteryClass(); // add code here to detect calls to incrementCounter and print a debug message } I don't have the ability to change the 3rd party MysteryClass, so I thought that I could use PropertyChangeSupport and PropertyChangeListener to detect changes to the secretCounter: public class MyClass implements PropertyChangeListener { private PropertyChangeSupport propertySupport = new PropertyChangeSupport(this); public MyClass() { propertySupport.addPropertyChangeListener(this); } public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { System.out.println("property changing: " + evt.getPropertyName()); } public static void main(String[] args) { MysteryClass mysteryClass = new MysteryClass(); // do logic which involves increment and getting the value of MysteryClass } } Unfortunately, this did not work and I have no debug messages printed out. Does anyone see what is wrong with my implementation of the PropertyChangeSupport and Listener interfaces? I want to print a debug statement whenever incrementCounter is called or the value of secretCounter changes.

    Read the article

  • Array Indexing Properties of A Class

    - by Chris
    I have a class that has several properties: class Person { string Name; int Age; DateTime BirthDate; } Then I have a sort of wrapper class with a List<Person>. Within this wrapper class I want to be able to do something like Wrapper["Name"] that returns a new List<string> using .Select(x=>x.Name). How do I create a wrapper class around an IEnumerable that supports mapping a string to the Property name? Something like the pseudo code below, but obviously it doesn't work. I'm 99.9% sure the solution will have to use Reflection and thats fine. class Wrapper { List<Person> PersonList; List<dynamic> this[string Column] { return PersonList.Select(x => x.[Column]).ToList(); } } This may not seem like a good design, but its a fix to eventually enable the correct design from .NET 2.0 days. As I have it right now, the data is stored in Columns, so there is actually a List of Lists within my class right now. Using the above example there would be three ILists (with a string Title) Name, Age, and Birthdate. Everything is currently predicated on addressing the columns by their "string" name. I'm trying to convert the data structure to row based with an IEnumberable interface to allow Linq eventually while still maintaining the functionality of my current code. Is converting the code to a Row based IEnumberable a good idea?

    Read the article

  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

    Read the article

  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

    Read the article

  • C# textbox cursor positioning

    - by Jim
    I feel like I am just missing a simple property, but can you set the cursor to the end of a line in a textbox? private void txtNumbersOnly_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (Char.IsDigit(e.KeyChar) || e.KeyChar == '\b' || e.KeyChar == '.' || e.KeyChar == '-') { TextBox t = (TextBox)sender; bool bHandled = false; _sCurrentTemp += e.KeyChar; if (_sCurrentTemp.Length > 0 && e.KeyChar == '-') { // '-' only allowed as first char bHandled = true; } if (_sCurrentTemp.StartsWith(Convert.ToString('.'))) { // add '0' in front of decimal point t.Text = string.Empty; t.Text = '0' + _sCurrentTemp; _sCurrentTemp = t.Text; bHandled = true; } e.Handled = bHandled; } After testing for '.' as first char, the cursor goes before the text that is added. So instead of "0.123", the results are "1230." without moving the cursor myself. I also apologize if this is a duplicate question.

    Read the article

  • custom *arbitrary* TemplateField definitions

    - by end-user
    I'm building a GridView on the fly, and I'd like to pre-define the TemplateFields to be included ondemand. So, what I'd like to do is have a declarative file that defines how the different templates look for a specific column. Like: <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a text column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> data goes here </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox Text="databindhere" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a bool column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> if(true) "yes" else "no" </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox Checked="databindme" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> So, if my query had a text and two bool fields, I could push the appropriate TemplateFields in the the Columns property as needed. (I hope I'm making sense here) So, how would I go about creating declarative files for the above definitions? And then, how would I reference those definitions programmatically?

    Read the article

  • My UL child label elements disappear in IE on accordion menu opening

    - by Scott B
    I've got an app that's working pretty flawlessly in Chrome and FF, however, when I view it in IE, all is well until I click on a header element to activate it (jQuery accordion). What happens then is that I see a brief flash where the content is there, then suddenly the entire left column disappears. This column is generated by a floated label element with a class of ".left" as seen below... <ul class="menu collapsible"> <li class='expand sectionTitle'><a href='#'>General Settings</a> <ul class='acitem'> <li class="section"> <label class="left">This item if floated left with a defined width of 190px via css. This is the item that's disappearing after a brief display</label> <input class="input" value="input element here" /> <label class="description">This element has a margin-left:212px; set via css in order to be positioned to the right of the label element as if in an adjacent table cell. When I add a max-width property to this element, it disappears in IE too!</label> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> As you can see from the comments in the code above (for the two label elements) the description label disappears once I set a max-width on it. It shows up fine otherwise.

    Read the article

  • What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

    - by ccornet
    I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

    - by Blake Blackwell
    In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >