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  • Efficient file buffering & scanning methods for large files in python

    - by eblume
    The description of the problem I am having is a bit complicated, and I will err on the side of providing more complete information. For the impatient, here is the briefest way I can summarize it: What is the fastest (least execution time) way to split a text file in to ALL (overlapping) substrings of size N (bound N, eg 36) while throwing out newline characters. I am writing a module which parses files in the FASTA ascii-based genome format. These files comprise what is known as the 'hg18' human reference genome, which you can download from the UCSC genome browser (go slugs!) if you like. As you will notice, the genome files are composed of chr[1..22].fa and chr[XY].fa, as well as a set of other small files which are not used in this module. Several modules already exist for parsing FASTA files, such as BioPython's SeqIO. (Sorry, I'd post a link, but I don't have the points to do so yet.) Unfortunately, every module I've been able to find doesn't do the specific operation I am trying to do. My module needs to split the genome data ('CAGTACGTCAGACTATACGGAGCTA' could be a line, for instance) in to every single overlapping N-length substring. Let me give an example using a very small file (the actual chromosome files are between 355 and 20 million characters long) and N=8 import cStringIO example_file = cStringIO.StringIO("""\ header CAGTcag TFgcACF """) for read in parse(example_file): ... print read ... CAGTCAGTF AGTCAGTFG GTCAGTFGC TCAGTFGCA CAGTFGCAC AGTFGCACF The function that I found had the absolute best performance from the methods I could think of is this: def parse(file): size = 8 # of course in my code this is a function argument file.readline() # skip past the header buffer = '' for line in file: buffer += line.rstrip().upper() while len(buffer) = size: yield buffer[:size] buffer = buffer[1:] This works, but unfortunately it still takes about 1.5 hours (see note below) to parse the human genome this way. Perhaps this is the very best I am going to see with this method (a complete code refactor might be in order, but I'd like to avoid it as this approach has some very specific advantages in other areas of the code), but I thought I would turn this over to the community. Thanks! Note, this time includes a lot of extra calculation, such as computing the opposing strand read and doing hashtable lookups on a hash of approximately 5G in size. Post-answer conclusion: It turns out that using fileobj.read() and then manipulating the resulting string (string.replace(), etc.) took relatively little time and memory compared to the remainder of the program, and so I used that approach. Thanks everyone!

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  • Poor performance / speed of regex with lookahead

    - by Hugo Zaragoza
    I have been observing extremely slow execution times with expressions with several lookaheads. I suppose that this is due to underlying data structures, but it seems pretty extreme and I wonder if I do something wrong or if there are known work-arounds. The problem is determining if a set of words are present in a string, in any order. For example we want to find out if two terms "term1" AND "term2" are somewhere in a string. I do this with the expresion: (?=.*\bterm1\b)(?=.*\bterm2\b) But what I observe is that this is an order of magnitude slower than checking first just \bterm1\b and just then \bterm2\b This seems to indicate that I should use an array of patterns instead of a single pattern with lookaheads... is this right? it seems wrong... Here is an example test code and resulting times: public static void speedLookAhead() { Matcher m, m1, m2; boolean find; int its = 1000000; // create long non-matching string char[] str = new char[2000]; for (int i = 0; i < str.length; i++) { str[i] = 'x'; } String test = str.toString(); // First method: use one expression with lookaheads m = Pattern.compile("(?=.*\\bterm1\\b)(?=.*\\bterm2\\b)").matcher(test); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); ; for (int i = 0; i < its; i++) { m.reset(test); find = m.find(); } time = System.currentTimeMillis() - time; System.out.println(time); // Second method: use two expressions and AND the results m1 = Pattern.compile("\\bterm1\\b").matcher(test); m2 = Pattern.compile("\\bterm2\\b").matcher(test); time = System.currentTimeMillis(); ; for (int i = 0; i < its; i++) { m1.reset(test); m2.reset(test); find = m1.find() && m2.find(); } time = System.currentTimeMillis() - time; System.out.println(time); } This outputs in my computer: 1754 150

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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • CodeIgniter Third party class not loading

    - by Jatin Soni
    I am trying to implement Dashboard widget class (found here: http://harpanet.com/programming/php/codeigniter/dashboard/index#installation) but it is giving me error Unable to load the requested class I have tried to add this class in autoload as well as menually to my controller $this->load->library('dash') but this also giving the same error. I have checked dash.php and found below method private function __example__() but can't understand what the developer is saying in comment. class Dash { private function __example__() { /* * This function is purely to show an example of a dashboard method to place * within your own controller. */ // load third_party hArpanet dashboard library $this->load->add_package_path(APPPATH.'third_party/hArpanet/hDash/'); $dash =& $this->load->library('dash'); $this->load->remove_package_path(APPPATH.'third_party/hArpanet/hDash/'); // configure dashboard widgets - format: type, src, title, cols, alt (for images) $dash->widgets = array( array('type'=>'oop', 'src'=>'test_dash', 'title'=>'Test OOP Widget', 'cols'=>3), // if 'title' is set to FALSE, the title block is omitted entirely // note: this is an 'html' widget but is being fed content from a local method array('type'=>'html', 'src'=>self::test_method(), 'title'=>false, 'cols'=>3), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_inv.htm', 'title'=>'Safety Investigation'), // multi-content widget - set widget title in outer array (also note use of CI anchor to create a link) array('title'=>anchor('tz', 'TARGET ZERO'), // sub-content follows same array format as single content widget // 'img' content can also have an 'alt' text array('type'=>'img', 'src'=>'saf_tzout.gif', 'alt'=>'Action Completed'), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_tz.htm'), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'ave_close.htm', 'title'=>'Average Time to Close') ), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_meet.htm', 'title'=>'Safety Meeting'), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_acc.htm', 'title'=>'Accident Investigation'), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_hazmat.htm', 'title'=>anchor('hazmat', 'HAZMAT')), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_cont.htm', 'title'=>'Loss of Containment'), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_worksinfo.htm', 'title'=>'Works Information'), // an action widget - 'clear' will generate a blank widget with a style of clear:both array('type'=>'clear'), // multi-content widget - width can be set using the 'cols' param in outer array array('title'=>'RAG Report', 'cols' => 2, array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_rag.htm'), array('type'=>'img', 'src'=>'ProcSaf.gif')), array('type'=>'file', 'src'=>'saf_chrom.htm', 'title'=>'Chrome checks'), ); // populate the view variable $widgets = $dash->build('safety'); // render the dashboard $this->load->view('layout_default', $widgets); } ................... } // end of Dash class Installation path is root/application/third_party/hArpanet/hDash/libraries/dash.php How can I load this class to my system and use widgets?

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • using LoadControl with object initializer to create properties

    - by lloydphillips
    In the past I've used UserControls to create email templates which I can fill properties on and then use LoadControl and then RenderControl to get the html for which to use for the body text of my email. This was within asp.net webforms. I'm in the throws of building an mvc website and wanted to do something similar. I've actually considered putting this functionality in a seperate class library and am looking into how I can do this so that in my web layer I can just call EmailTemplate.SubscriptionEmail() which will then generate the html from my template with properties in relevant places (obviously there needs to be parameters for email address etc in there). I wanted to create a single Render control method for which I can pass a string to the path of the UserControl which is my template. I've come across this on the web that kind of suits my needs: public static string RenderUserControl(string path, string propertyName, object propertyValue) { Page pageHolder = new Page(); UserControl viewControl = (UserControl)pageHolder.LoadControl(path); if (propertyValue != null) { Type viewControlType = viewControl.GetType(); PropertyInfo property = viewControlType.GetProperty(propertyName); if (property != null) property.SetValue(viewControl, propertyValue, null); else { throw new Exception(string.Format( "UserControl: {0} does not have a public {1} property.", path, propertyName)); } } pageHolder.Controls.Add(viewControl); StringWriter output = new StringWriter(); HttpContext.Current.Server.Execute(pageHolder, output, false); return output.ToString(); } My issue is that my UserControl(s) may have multiple and differing properties. So SubscribeEmail may require FirstName and EmailAddress where another email template UserControl (lets call it DummyEmail) would require FirstName, EmailAddress and DateOfBirth. The method above only appears to carry one parameter for propertyName and propertyValue. I considered an array of strings that I could put the varying properties into but then I thought it'd be cool to have an object intialiser so I could call the method like this: RenderUserControl("EmailTemplates/SubscribeEmail.ascs", new object() { Firstname="Lloyd", Email="[email protected]" }) Does that make sense? I was just wondering if this is at all possible in the first place and how I'd implement it? I'm not sure if it would be possible to map the properties set on 'object' to properties on the loaded user control and if it is possible where to start in doing this? Has anyone done something like this before? Can anyone help? Lloyd

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  • Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

    - by tbehunin
    When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • Parsing string logic issue c#

    - by N0xus
    This is a follow on from this question My program is taking in a string that is comprised of two parts: a distance value and an id number respectively. I've split these up and stored them in local variables inside my program. All of the id numbers are stored in a dictionary and are used check the incoming distance value. Though I should note that each string that gets sent into my program from the device is passed along on a single string. The next time my program receives that a signal from a device, it overrides the previous data that was there before. Should the id key coming into my program match one inside my dictionary, then a variable held next to my dictionaries key, should be updated. However, when I run my program, I don't get 6 different values, I only get the same value and they all update at the same time. This is all the code I have written trying to do this: Dictionary<string, string> myDictonary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); string Value1 = ""; string Value2 = ""; string Value3 = ""; string Value4 = ""; string Value5 = ""; string Value6 = ""; void Start() { myDictonary.Add("11111111", Value1); myDictonary.Add("22222222", Value2); myDictonary.Add("33333333", Value3); myDictonary.Add("44444444", Value4); myDictonary.Add("55555555", Value5); myDictonary.Add("66666666", Value6); } private void AppendString(string message) { testMessage = message; string[] messages = message.Split(','); foreach(string w in messages) { if(!message.StartsWith(" ")) outputContent.text += w + "\n"; } messageCount = "RSSI number " + messages[0]; uuidString = "UUID number " + messages[1]; if(myDictonary.ContainsKey(messages[1])) { Value1 = messageCount; Value2 = messageCount; Value3 = messageCount; Value4 = messageCount; Value5 = messageCount; Value6 = messageCount; } } How can I get it so that when programs recives the first key, for example 1111111, it only updates Value1? The information that comes through can be dynamic, so I'd like to avoid harding as much information as I possibly can.

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  • How would you implement this "WorkerChain" functionality in .NET?

    - by Dan Tao
    Sorry for the vague question title -- not sure how to encapsulate what I'm asking below succinctly. (If someone with editing privileges can think of a more descriptive title, feel free to change it.) The behavior I need is this. I am envisioning a worker class that accepts a single delegate task in its constructor (for simplicity, I would make it immutable -- no more tasks can be added after instantiation). I'll call this task T. The class should have a simple method, something like GetToWork, that will exhibit this behavior: If the worker is not currently running T, then it will start doing so right now. If the worker is currently running T, then once it is finished, it will start T again immediately. GetToWork can be called any number of times while the worker is running T; the simple rule is that, during any execution of T, if GetToWork was called at least once, T will run again upon completion (and then if GetToWork is called while T is running that time, it will repeat itself again, etc.). Now, this is pretty straightforward with a boolean switch. But this class needs to be thread-safe, by which I mean, steps 1 and 2 above need to comprise atomic operations (at least I think they do). There is an added layer of complexity. I have need of a "worker chain" class that will consist of many of these workers linked together. As soon as the first worker completes, it essentially calls GetToWork on the worker after it; meanwhile, if its own GetToWork has been called, it restarts itself as well. Logically calling GetToWork on the chain is essentially the same as calling GetToWork on the first worker in the chain (I would fully intend that the chain's workers not be publicly accessible). One way to imagine how this hypothetical "worker chain" would behave is by comparing it to a team in a relay race. Suppose there are four runners, W1 through W4, and let the chain be called C. If I call C.StartWork(), what should happen is this: If W1 is at his starting point (i.e., doing nothing), he will start running towards W2. If W1 is already running towards W2 (i.e., executing his task), then once he reaches W2, he will signal to W2 to get started, immediately return to his starting point and, since StartWork has been called, start running towards W2 again. When W1 reaches W2's starting point, he'll immediately return to his own starting point. If W2 is just sitting around, he'll start running immediately towards W3. If W2 is already off running towards W3, then W2 will simply go again once he's reached W3 and returned to his starting point. The above is probably a little convoluted and written out poorly. But hopefully you get the basic idea. Obviously, these workers will be running on their own threads. Also, I guess it's possible this functionality already exists somewhere? If that's the case, definitely let me know!

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  • Patterns: Local Singleton vs. Global Singleton?

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    There is a pattern that I use from time to time, but I'm not quite sure what it is called. I was hoping that the SO community could help me out. The pattern is pretty simple, and consists of two parts: A singleton factory, which creates objects based on the arguments passed to the factory method. Objects created by the factory. So far this is just a standard "singleton" pattern or "factory pattern". The issue that I'm asking about, however, is that the singleton factory in this case maintains a set of references to every object that it ever creates, held within a dictionary. These references can sometimes be strong references and sometimes weak references, but it can always reference any object that it has ever created. When receiving a request for a "new" object, the factory first searches the dictionary to see if an object with the required arguments already exits. If it does, it returns that object, if not, it returns a new object and also stores a reference to the new object within the dictionary. This pattern prevents having duplicative objects representing the same underlying "thing". This is useful where the created objects are relatively expensive. It can also be useful where these objects perform event handling or messaging - having one object per item being represented can prevent multiple messages/events for a single underlying source. There are probably other reasons to use this pattern, but this is where I've found this useful. My question is: what to call this? In a sense, each object is a singleton, at least with respect to the data it contains. Each is unique. But there are multiple instances of this class, however, so it's not at all a true singleton. In my own personal terminology, I tend to call the factory method a "global singleton". I then call the created objects "local singletons". I sometimes also say that the created objects have "reference equality", meaning that if two variables reference the same data (the same underlying item) then the reference they each hold must be to the same exact object, hence "reference equality". But these are my own invented terms, and I am not sure that they are good ones. Is there standard terminology for this concept? And if not, could some naming suggestions be made? Thanks in advance...

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  • Creating multiple heads in remote repository

    - by Jab
    We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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  • Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • whats wrong with this php mysql_real_escape_string

    - by skyhigh
    Hi Atomic Number Latin English Abbreviation * check the variables for content */ /*** a list of filters ***/ $filters = array( 'searchtext' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string'), 'fieldname' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string') ); /*** escape all POST variables ***/ $input = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, $filters); /*** check the values are not empty ***/ if(empty($input['fieldname']) || empty($input['searchtext'])) { echo 'Invalid search'; } else { /*** mysql hostname ***/ $hostname = 'localhost'; /*** mysql username ***/ $username = 'username'; /*** mysql password ***/ $password = 'password'; /*** mysql database name ***/ $dbname = 'periodic_table'; /*** connect to the database ***/ $link = @mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password); /*** check if the link is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($link)) { /*** select the database we wish to use ***/ if(mysql_select_db($dbname, $link) === TRUE) { /*** sql to SELECT information***/ $sql = sprintf("SELECT * FROM elements WHERE %s = '%s'", $input['fieldname'], $input['searchtext']); /*** echo the sql query ***/ echo '<h3>'.$sql.'</h3>'; /*** run the query ***/ $result = mysql_query($sql); /*** check if the result is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($result)) { /*** check if we have more than zero rows ***/ if(mysql_num_rows($result) !== 0) { echo '<table>'; while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr> <td>'.$row['atomicnumber'].'</td> <td>'.$row['latin'].'</td> <td>'.$row['english'].'</td> <td>'.$row['abbr'].'</td> </tr>'; } echo '</table>'; } else { /*** if zero results are found.. ***/ echo 'Zero results found'; } } else { /*** if the resource is not valid ***/ 'No valid resource found'; } } /*** if we are unable to select the database show an error ****/ else { echo 'Unable to select database '.$dbname; } /*** close the connection ***/ mysql_close($link); } else { /*** if we fail to connect ***/ echo 'Unable to connect'; } } } else { echo 'Please Choose An Element'; } ? I got this code from phppro.org tutorials site and i tried to run it. It gives Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established. .... Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO).... I went to php.net and look it up "Note: A MySQL connection is required before using mysql_real_escape_string() otherwise an error of level E_WARNING is generated, and FALSE is returned. If link_identifier isn't defined, the last MySQL connection is used." My questions are: 1-why they put single quotation around mysql_real_escape_string ? 2-They should establish a connection first, then use the $filter array statement with mysql_real_escape_string ?

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • Android Notification with AlarmManager, Broadcast and Service

    - by user2435829
    this is my code for menage a single notification: myActivity.java public class myActivity extends Activity { protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mylayout); cal = Calendar.getInstance(); // it is set to 10.30 cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 10); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 30); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); long start = cal.getTimeInMillis(); if(cal.before(Calendar.getInstance())) { start += AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES; } Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myReceiver.class); pIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); AlarmManager myAlarm = (AlarmManager)getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); myAlarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, start, AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES, pIntent); } } myReceiver.java public class myReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context c, Intent i) { Intent myService1 = new Intent(c, myAlarmService.class); c.startService(myService1); } } myAlarmService.java public class myAlarmService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); } @SuppressWarnings("deprecation") @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { super.onStart(intent, startId); displayNotification(); } @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); } public void displayNotification() { Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myActivity.class); PendingIntent pIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); NotificationManager nm = (NotificationManager) this.getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); Notification.Builder builder = new Notification.Builder(this); builder.setContentIntent(pIntent) .setAutoCancel(true) .setSmallIcon(R.drawable.ic_noti) .setTicker(getString(R.string.notifmsg)) .setContentTitle(getString(R.string.app_name)) .setContentText(getString(R.string.notifmsg)); nm.notify(0, builder.build()); } } AndroidManifest.xml <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WAKE_LOCK" /> ... ... ... <service android:name=".myAlarmService" android:enabled="true" /> <receiver android:name=".myReceiver"/> IF the time has NOT past yet everything works perfectly. The notification appears when it must appear. BUT if the time HAS past (let's assume it is 10.31 AM) the notification fires every time... when I close and re-open the app, when I click on the notification... it has a really strange behavior. I can't figure out what's wrong in it. Can you help me please (and explain why, if you find a solution), thanks in advance :)

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  • Google Maps API - Marker not showing

    - by popnbrown
    I'm trying to add markers for every single row from a table, that sits on the page. The page is http://www.sravanks.com/first/2013ftcmap.php This is the JS code that's loading the markers: $(document).ready(function() { var mapOptions = { center: new google.maps.LatLng(39.740, -89.503), zoom: 7 }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map-canvas"), mapOptions); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow(); /* City Markers */ var cityCircle = new Array(); var i = 0; $.each($('.events tr'), function(index, value) { var name = $(this).find('td:first()').html(); var address = $(this).find('.address').html(); var linkUrl = "http://www.sravanks.com/first/geocode.php?address=" + address; $.ajax({ url: linkUrl }).done(function(data){ var json = $.parseJSON(data.substring(0, data.length-1)); lat = json.results[0].geometry.location.lat; lng = json.results[0].geometry.location.lng; var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lng); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, icon: 'map-pointer-medium.gif' }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent(name); infowindow.open(map, marker); cityCircle[i] = new google.maps.Circle({strokeColor: '#00FF00', strokeOpacity: 0.8, strokeWeight: 2, fillColor: '#00FF00', fillOpacity: 0.35, map: map, center: latlng, radius: 144841}); i++; }); }); }); /*Team Markers*/ var markers = {}; var teamName, teamNumber, lat, lng, content; $.each($('.list tr'), function(index, value) { teamName = $(this).find('td.name').html(); teamNumber = $(this).find('td.number').html(); markers[teamNumber] = {}; lat = parseFloat($(this).find('td.lat').html()); lng = parseFloat($(this).find('td.lng').html()); content = "Name: " + teamName + "<br />Number: " + teamNumber; markers[teamNumber]['latlng'] = new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lng); markers[teamNumber]['marker'] = new google.maps.Marker({ position: markers[teamNumber]['latlng'], map: map }); google.maps.event.addListener(markers[teamNumber]['marker'], 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent(content); infowindow.open(map, markers[teamNumber]['marker']); }); }); google.maps.event.addListener(infowindow, 'closeclick', function() { for(var i=0;i<cityCircle.length;i++){ cityCircle[i].setMap(null); } }); }); I've got no errors, but the Team Markers do not show up. The strange thing is that the City Markers do show up. Some more info, the City Markers ajax call is just to a proxy that calls the google geocoding api. Again the link's at http://www.sravanks.com/first/2013ftcmap.php

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  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

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  • Problem persisting inheritance tree

    - by alaiseca
    I have a problem trying to map an inheritance tree. A simplified version of my model is like this: @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class BaseEmbedded implements Serializable { @Column(name="BE_FIELD") private String beField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class DerivedEmbedded extends BaseEmbedded { @Column(name="DE_FIELD") private String deField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseClass implements Serializable { @Embedded protected BaseEmbedded embedded; public BaseClass() { this.embedded = new BaseEmbedded(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @Table(name="MYTABLE") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public class DerivedClass extends BaseClass { @Id @Column(name="ID", nullable=false) private Long id; @Column(name="TYPE", nullable=false, insertable=false, updatable=false) private String type; public DerivedClass() { this.embedded = new DerivedClass(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("A") public class DerivedClassA extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassA extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_A") private String fieldClassA; } public DerivedClassA() { this.embedded = new NestedClassA(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class DerivedClassB extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassB extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_B") private String fieldClassB; } public DerivedClassB() { this.embedded = new NestedClassB(); } // Getters and setters follow } At Java level, this model is working fine, and I believe is the appropriate one. My problem comes up when it's time to persist an object. At runtime, I can create an object which could be an instance of DerivedClass, DerivedClassA or DerivedClassB. As you can see, each one of the derived classes introduces a new field which only makes sense for that specific derived class. All the classes share the same physical table in the database. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass, I expect fields BE_FIELD, DE_FIELD, ID and TYPE to be persisted with their values and the remaining fields to be null. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass A, I expect those same fields plus the FIELD_CLASS_A field to be persisted with their values and field FIELD_CLASS_B to be null. Something equivalent for an object of type DerivedClassB. Since the @Embedded annotation is at the BaseClass only, Hibernate is only persisting the fields up to that level in the tree. I don't know how to tell Hibernate that I want to persist up to the appropriate level in the tree, depending on the actual type of the embedded property. I cannot have another @Embedded property in the subclasses since this would duplicate data that is already present in the superclass and would also break the Java model. I cannot declare the embedded property to be of a more specific type either, since it's only at runtime when the actual object is created and I don't have a single branch in the hierarchy. Is it possible to solve my problem? Or should I resignate myself to accept that there is no way to persist the Java model as it is? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to page multiple data sets in ASP.NET MVC

    - by REA_ANDREW
    On a single view I will have three sets of paged data. Which means for each model I will have The Objects The Page Index The Page Size My initial thought was for example: public class PagedModel<T> where T:class { public IList<T> Objects { get; set; } public int ModelPageIndex { get; set; } public int ModelPageSize { get; set; } } Then having a model which is to be supplied to the action as for example: public class TypesViewModel { public PagedModel<ObjectA> Types1 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectB> Typed2 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectC> Types3 { get; set; } } So if I then for example have the Index view inherit from the type: System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<uk.co.andrewrea.forum.Web.Models.TypesViewModel> Now my initial aciton method for the index is simply: public ActionResult Index() { var forDisplayPurposes = new TypesViewModel(); return View(forDisplayPurposes); } If I then want to page, it is here where I am struggling to decide which action to take. Lets say that I select the next page of the Types2 PageModel. What should the action look like for this in order to return the new view showing the second page of the Types2 PageModel I was thinking possibly to duplicate the action but use it with POST [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(TypesViewModel model) { return View(model); } Is this a good way to approach it. I understand there is always Session, but I was just wondering how such a thing is achieved currently out there. If any best methods have been mutually accepted and things. So simply, one page with multiple paged models. How to persist the data for each using a wrapper model. Which way should you pass in the model and which way should you page the data, i.e. Form Post Lastly, I have seen the routes take this into account i.e. {controller}/{action}/{id}/{pageindex}/{pagesize} but this only accounts for one model and I do not really wwant to repeat the pagesize and pageindex values for the number of models I have inside the wrapper model. Thanks for your time!! Andrew

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