Search Results

Search found 18191 results on 728 pages for 'single board'.

Page 683/728 | < Previous Page | 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690  | Next Page >

• Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

  - by denial

  Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

  Read the article

• Java template classes using generator or similar?

  - by Hugh Perkins

  Is there some library or generator that I can use to generate multiple templated java classes from a single template? Obviously Java does have a generics implementation itself, but since it uses type-erasure, there are lots of situations where it is less than adequate. For example, if I want to make a self-growing array like this: class EasyArray { T[] backingarray; } (where T is a primitive type), then this isn't possible. This is true for anything which needs an array, for example high-performance templated matrix and vector classes. It should probably be possible to write a code generator which takes a templated class and generates multiple instantiations, for different types, eg for 'double' and 'float' and 'int' and 'String'. Is there something that already exists that does this? Edit: note that using an array of Object is not what I'm looking for, since it's no longer an array of primitives. An array of primitives is very fast, and uses only as much space a sizeof(primitive) * length-of-array. An array of object is an array of pointers/references, that points to Double objects, or similar, which could be scattered all over the place in memory, require garbage collection, allocation, and imply a double-indirection for access. Edit2: good god, voted down for asking for something that probably doesn't currently exist, but is technically possible and feasible? Does that mean that people looking for ways to improve things have already left the java community? Edit3: Here is code to show the difference in performance between primitive and boxed arrays: int N = 10*1000*1000; double[]primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } Object[] objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } tic(); primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); tic(); objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); Results: double[] array: 148 ms Double[] array: 4614 ms Not even close!

  Read the article

• Listfield layout question - blackberry

  - by Kai

  I'm having an interesting anomaly when displaying a listfield on the blackberry simulator: The top item is the height of a single line of text (about 12 pixels) while the rest are fine. Does anyone know why only the top item is being drawn this way? Also, when I add an empty venue in position 0, it still displays the first actual venue this way (item in position 1). Not sure what to do. Thanks for any help. The layout looks like this: ----------------------------------- | *part of image* | title | ----------------------------------- | | title | | * full image * | address | | | city, zip | ----------------------------------- The object is called like so: listField = new ListField( venueList.size() ); listField.setCallback( this ); listField.setSelectedIndex(-1); _middle.add( listField ); Here is the drawListRow code: public void drawListRow( ListField listField, Graphics graphics, int index, int y, int width ) { listField.setRowHeight(90); Hashtable item = (Hashtable) venueList.elementAt( index ); String venue_name = (String) item.get("name"); String image_url = (String) item.get("image_url"); String address = (String) item.get("address"); String city = (String) item.get("city"); String zip = (String) item.get("zip"); EncodedImage img = null; try { String filename = image_url.substring( image_url.indexOf("crop/") + 5, image_url.length() ); FileConnection fconn = (FileConnection) Connector.open( "file:///SDCard/Blackberry/project1/" + filename, Connector.READ); if ( !fconn.exists() ) { } else { InputStream input = fconn.openInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[(int)fconn.fileSize()]; input.read(data); input.close(); if(data.length > 0) { EncodedImage rawimg = EncodedImage.createEncodedImage(data, 0, data.length); int dw = Fixed32.toFP(Display.getWidth()); int iw = Fixed32.toFP(rawimg.getWidth()); int sf = Fixed32.div(iw, dw); img = rawimg.scaleImage32(sf * 4, sf * 4); } else { } } } catch(IOException ef) { } graphics.drawText( venue_name, 140, y, 0, width ); graphics.drawText( address, 140, y + 15, 0, width ); graphics.drawText( city + ", " + zip, 140, y + 30, 0, width ); if(img != null) { graphics.drawImage(0, y, img.getWidth(), img.getHeight(), img, 0, 0, 0); } }

  Read the article

• Interconnecting Emulator Instances Android

  - by blah01

  Hi all I want to communicate two emulators via DatagramSocket in Android. Each of them is a Node in a P2P system. Thus each of them has a server Thread and client Thread (created per GUI event). This is how I create server public static final String SERVERIP = "10.0.2.15"; //... run() { InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName(SERVERIP); DatagramSocket socket = new DatagramSocket(SERVERPORT,serverAddr); while(true) { byte[] buf = new byte[29]; DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buf, buf.length); socket.receive(packet); //... } } The port is given by the user during initializing application. The client part (requesting some data) InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName("10.0.2.2"); //... Log.i("Requester", "Trying to connect to device port = "+target); DatagramSocket socketJ = new DatagramSocket(); byte[] bufJ = Adaptor.createStringMsg(Adaptor.createJoingMsg(id, Location.getX(), Location.getY())).getBytes(); DatagramPacket packetJ = new DatagramPacket(bufJ, bufJ.length, serverAddr, target); Log.i("Requester", "Sending: '" + new String(bufJ) + "'"); socketJ.send(packetJ); Log.i("Requester", "Done."); Some additional info. The Node1 (emulatorA) has a server on port 8000 and Node2 (emulatorB) has a server on port 8001. The target port for "client part" is read properly. What tried to do is to set the redirection as such: //emulatorA redir add tcp:8000:8000 //emulatorB redir add tcp:8001:8001 However I can not get any communication beetwen those 2 emulators. As far as I understood the android tutorial about it should work like this redir add tcp:localhostPort:emulatorPort. I'm stuck with it :/. Can anyone point me the mistake or give some good advice. For the record while I was testing communication on a single device (client faking other node) everything worked, so I don't think there is a bug in the code. Btw does any one knows how can I get 2 set of logs for those 2 emulators (logA, logB)? It would help me a lot.

  Read the article

• Correct use of a "for...in" loop in javascript?

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody, before I ask my question I wanted to let everybody know that I appreciate the fact that there's always somebody out there willing to help, and on my end I'll try to give back to the community as much as I can. Thanks Now, I would like to get some pointers as to how to properly take advantage of the "for...in" loop in JavaScript, I already did some research and tried a couple things but it is still not clear to me how to properly use it. Let's say I have a random number of "select" tags in an HTML form, and I don't require the user to select an option for all of them, they can leave some untouched if they want. However I need to know if they selected none or at least one. The way I'm trying to find out if the user selected any of them is by using the "for...in" loop. For example: var allSelected = $("select option:selected"); var totalSelected = $("select option:selected").length; The first variable produces an array of all the selected options. The second variable tells me how many selected options I have in the form (select tags could be more than one and it changes every time). Now, in order to see if any has been selected I loop through each element (selected option), and retrieve the "value" attribute. The default "option" tag has a value="0", so if any selected option returns a value greater than 0, I know at least one option has been selected, however it does not have to be in order, this is my loop so far: for(var i = 0; i < totalSelected; i++){ var eachOption = $(allSelected[i]).val(); var defaultValue = 0; if(eachOption == defaultValue){ ...redirect to another page }else if(eachOption > defaultValue){ ... I display an alert } } My problem here is that as soon as the "if" matches a 0 value, it sends the user to the next page without testing the rest of the elements in the array, and the user could have selected the second or third options. What I really want to do is check all the elements in the array and then take the next action, in my mind this is how I could do it, but I'm not getting it right: var randomValue = 25; for(randomValue in allSelected){ var found = true; var notFound = false if(found){ display an alert }else{ redirect to next page } } This loop or the logic I'm using are flawed (I'm pretty sure), what I want to do is test all the elements in the array against a single variable and take the next action accordingly. I hope this makes some sense to you guys, any help would be appreciated. Thanks, JC

  Read the article

• Code to generate random numbers in C++

  - by user1678927

  Basically I have to write a program to generate random numbers to simulate the rolling of a pair of dice. This program should be constructed in multiple files. The main function should be in one file, the other functions should be in a second source file, and their prototypes should be in a header file. First I write a short function that returns a random value between 1 and 6 to simulate the rolling of a single 6-sided die.Second, i write a function that pretends to roll a pair of dice by calling this function twice. My program starts by asking the user how many rolls should be made. Then I write a function to simulate rolling the dice this many times, keeping a count of exactly how many times the values 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12(each number is the sum of a pair of dice) occur in an array. Later I write a function to display a small bar chart using these counts that ideally would look something like below for a sample of 144 rolls, where the number of asterisks printed corresponds to the count: 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * Next, to see how well the random number generator is doing, I write a function to compute the average value rolled. Compare this to the ideal average of 7. Also, print out a small table showing the counts of each roll made by the program, the ideal count based on the frequencies above given the total number of rolls, and the difference between these values in separate columns. This is my incomplete code so far: "Compiler visual studio 2010" int rolling(){ //Function that returns a random value between 1 and 6 rand(unsigned(time(NULL))); int dice = 1 + (rand() %6); return dice; } int roll_dice(int num1,int num2){ //it calls 'rolling function' twice int result1,result2; num1 = rolling(); num2 = rolling(); result1 = num1; result2 = num2; return result1,result2; } int main(void){ int times,i,sum,n1,n2; int c1,c2,c3,c4,c5,c6,c7,c8,c9,c10,c11;//counters for each sum printf("Please enter how many times you want to roll the dice.\n") scanf_s("%i",&times); I pretend to use counters to count each sum and store the number(the count) in an array. I know i need a loop (for) and some conditional statements (if) but m main problem is to get the values from roll_dice and store them in n1 and n2 so then i can sum them up and store the sum in 'sum'.

  Read the article

• chained selects with one table

  - by Owen

  I know I am going about this in an unusual way, every tut I've seen uses multiple tables, but due to the way the rest of my site works I would like to create a chained select which operates using a single table. My table structure is: ---------------------- |Catagory|SubCategory| |01|cat1 |subcat1 | |02|cat1 |subcat2 | |03|cat2 |subcat1 | |04|cat2 |subcat2 | ---------------------- The code I have so far looks like: <tr> <td class="shadow"><strong>Category:</strong> </td> <td class="shadow"> <select id="category" name="category" style="width:150px"> <option selected="selected" value="<?php echo $category ?>"><?php echo $category?></option> <?php include('connect.php'); $result1 = mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT category FROM categories") or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array( $result1 )) { $category = $row['category']; echo "<option value='". $row['category'] ."'>". $row['category'] ."</option>"; } ?> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="shadow"><strong>Sub Category:</strong> </td> <td class="shadow"> <select id="sub_catgory" name="sub_category" style="width:150px;"> <option selected="selected" value="<?php echo $sub_category ?>"><?php echo $sub_category ?></option> <?php include('connect.php'); $result2 = mysql_query("SELECT sub_category FROM categories WHERE ") or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array ($result2 )){ echo "<option value='" . $row['sub_category'] . "'>". $row['sub_category']. "</option>"; } ?> </select> </td> </tr> On the second select I am not sure how to state the WHERE clause. I need it to display the subcategories which have the same category as selected in the first select. PART 2 how would I include AJAX in this to preload the data so i don't need to refresh the page. Could someone either help me finish what I've started here or point me to a good tutorial. thanks

  Read the article

• How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

  - by Shane

  As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

  Read the article

• Is it OK to put a standard, pure C header #include directive inside a namespace?

  - by mic_e

  I've got a project with a class log in the global namespace (::log). So, naturally, after #include <cmath>, the compiler gives an error message each time I try to instantiate an object of my log class, because <cmath> pollutes the global namespace with lots of three-letter methods, one of them being the logarithm function log(). So there are three possible solutions, each having their unique ugly side-effects. Move the log class to it's own namespace and always access it with it's fully qualified name. I really want to avoid this because the logger should be as convenient as possible to use. Write a mathwrapper.cpp file which is the only file in the project that includes <cmath>, and makes all the required <cmath> functions available through wrappers in a namespace math. I don't want to use this approach because I have to write a wrapper for every single required math function, and it would add additional call penalty (cancelled out partially by the -flto compiler flag) The solution I'm currently considering: Replace #include <cmath> by namespace math { #include "math.h" } and then calculating the logarithm function via math::log(). I have tried it out and it does, indeed, compile, link and run as expected. It does, however, have multiple downsides: It's (obviously) impossible to use <cmath>, because the <cmath> code accesses the functions by their fully qualified names, and it's deprecated to use in C++. I've got a really, really bad feeling about it, like I'm gonna get attacked and eaten alive by raptors. So my question is: Is there any recommendation/convention/etc that forbid putting include directives in namespaces? Could anything go wrong with diferent C standard library implementations (I use glibc), different compilers (I use g++ 4.7, -std=c++11), linking? Have you ever tried doing this? Are there any alternate ways to banish the math functions from the global namespace? I've found several similar questions on stackoverflow, but most were about including other C++ headers, which obviously is a bad idea, and those that weren't made contradictory statements about linking behaviour for C libraries. Also, would it be beneficial to additionally put the #include <math.h> inside extern "C" {}?

  Read the article

• Using KnockoutJS 2.2.0 & jQuery 1.8.2 remove all bindings from all children of #someDiv

  - by Nukeface

  I'm wanting to delete All bindings (ko.cleanNode) from all child elements of a certain div. Must be a noobie question but I can't figure out how to use jQuery to loop through all childre, grand-children, great-grand-children, etc. whilst having KnockoutJS remove the bindings of all the DOM elements. I do NOT want to remove the elements from the DOM. This is a single page application, therefore the elements are pre-loaded as embedded resources and don't get resend to a client if they were to visit the page again. If a client revisits that part of the application I'll have a function rebind the necessary elements, which currently works fine. Current setup: <html> <head> //loading all resources </head> <body> //load first element using some obscure setup <div id="firsPage" data-role="page"> <div data-role="header">@Global.header</div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="firstInput" /> <input id="firstInput some other stuff /> </div> <div data-role="datebox <!-- some settings --> > //creates table using jQuery mobile (lots of (great-)(grand-)children) </div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <div id="secondInput"> <div class="checklist"> <ul> <li /> <li /> </ul> </div> </div> </div> </div> //Here the whole thing starts again <div id="secondPage" data-role="page"> <!-- repeat above innerHTML in your mind ;) --> </div> //And here again! and again... </body> The problem I'm having is that bindings of the children don't seem to get "cleaned up" when i use ko.cleanNode($('#firstPage')[0]); Or when I get the Element into a variable and then format it to ko.cleanNode($element). Is there a way to do this? Been staring at it for a good few hours now, so probably overlooking a way too obvious way of doing it... Thanks!

  Read the article

• Redirecting users in JSP from within a includes - java syntax error

  - by Mark Hazlett

  Hey everyone, So my setup for my web application is that I have a general header and footer and then I just include them in all my other pages so that all the common elements for all the pages are in a single page. The only problem I'm running into is when I want to redirect the user back to a login page if the "username" session has not already been created. The problem that I"m running into is that I have an if statement at the top of my header.jsp and then I have the else in the footer.jsp and it is giving me a java syntax error. Any ideas? Here is the code I'm referring to... <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <% if(session.getAttribute("username") != null) { %> <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <!-- CSS files --> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <title>Insert title here</title> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <div id="header"> <div id="headerTitle">Title</div> </div> </div> <%} %> And then here is the footer <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </head> <body> <div id="footer"></div> </body> </html> <% else { response.sendRedirect("../wa_login/login.jsp"); } %> However it is giving me an error on the else statement because the else doesn't have an if statement because it's in the header file.

  Read the article

• Cannot .Count() on IQueryable (NHibernate)

  - by Bruno Reis

  Hello, I'm with an irritating problem. It might be something stupid, but I couldn't find out. I'm using Linq to NHibernate, and I would like to count how many items are there in a repository. Here is a very simplified definition of my repository, with the code that matters: public class Repository { private ISession session; /* ... */ public virtual IQueryable<Product> GetAll() { return session.Linq<Product>(); } } All the relevant code in the end of the question. Then, to count the items on my repository, I do something like: var total = productRepository.GetAll().Count(); The problem is that total is 0. Always. However there are items in the repository. Furthermore, I can .Get(id) any of them. My NHibernate log shows that the following query was executed: SELECT count(*) as y0_ FROM [Product] this_ WHERE not (1=1) That must be that "WHERE not (1=1)" clause the cause of this problem. What can I do to be able .Count() the items in my repository? Thanks! EDIT: Actually the repository.GetAll() code is a little bit different... and that might change something! It is actually a generic repository for Entities. Some of the entities implement also the ILogicalDeletable interface (it contains a single bool property "IsDeleted"). Just before the "return" inside the GetAll() method I check if if the Entity I'm querying implements ILogicalDeletable. public interface IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll(); ... } public abstract class Repository<TEntity, TId> : IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { public virtual IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll() { if (typeof (ILogicalDeletable).IsAssignableFrom(typeof (TEntity))) { return session.Linq<TEntity>() .Where(x => (x as ILogicalDeletable).IsDeleted == false); } else { return session.Linq<TEntity>(); } } } public interface ILogicalDeletable { bool IsDeleted {get; set;} } public Product : Entity<Product, int>, ILogicalDeletable { ... } public IProductRepository : IRepository<Product, int> {} public ProductRepository : Repository<Product, int>, IProductRepository {} Edit 2: actually the .GetAll() is always returning an empty result-set for entities that implement the ILogicalDeletable interface (ie, it ALWAYS add a WHERE NOT (1=1) clause. I think Linq to NHibernate does not like the typecast.

  Read the article

• A new MEF error I've not seen before -- "The export is not assignable to type..."

  - by Dave

  I was very surprised to get this error today, as it's one that I've never encountered before. Everything in the code looked okay, so I did some searches. The previous questions and their respective answers didn't help. This one was solved when the poster made sure his assembly references were consistent. I don't have this issue right now because I'm currently referencing another project in my solution. This one was solved when the poster was instructed to use ImportMany, but I am already using it (I think properly, too) to try to load multiple plugins This one was solved when the poster realized that there was a platform target mismatch. I've already gone through my projects to ensure that everything targets x86. So here's what I am trying to do. I have a plugin that owns a connection to a device. I might also need to be able to share that connection with another plugin. I decided that the cleanest way to do this was to create an interface that would allow the slave plugin to request its own connection to the device. Let's just call it IConnectionSharer. If the slave plugin does not need to borrow this connection and has its own, then it should use its own implementation of IConnectionSharer to connect to the device. My "master" plugin (the one that owns the connection to the device) implements IConnectionSharer. It also exports this via ExportAttribute. My "slave" plugin assembly defines a class that also implements and exports IConnectionSharer. When the application loads, the intent is for my slave plugin, via MEF, to enumerate all IConnectionSharers and store them in an IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer>. It does so like this: [ImportMany] public IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer> AllSharedConnections { get; set; } But during part composition, I get the error the export 'Company.MasterPlugin (ContractName="IConnectionSharer")' is not assignable to type 'IConnectionSharer'. The error message itself seems clear enough -- it's as if MEF thinks my master plugin doesn't inherit from IConnectionSharer... but it does! Can anyone suggest further debugging strategies? I'm going to start the painful process of single stepping through the MEF source.

  Read the article

• Return the Largest Span in a given Array -Core Java and Arrays Question

  - by Deepak

  Hi Stack People, Merry Christmas and hope you are in great Spirits,I have a Question in Java-Arrays as shown below.Im stuck up with this struggling to get it rite. Consider the leftmost and righmost appearances of some value in an array. We'll say that the "span" is the number of elements between the two inclusive. A single value has a span of 1. Write a **Java Function** that returns the largest span found in the given array. **Example: maxSpan({1, 2, 1, 1, 3}) ? 4,answer is 4 coz MaxSpan between 1 to 1 is 4 maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 1, 4}) ? 6,answer is 6 coz MaxSpan between 4 to 4 is 6 maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 4, 4}) ? 6,answer is 6 coz Maxspan between 4 to 4 is 6 which is greater than MaxSpan between 1 and 1 which is 4,Hence 64 answer is 6. I have the code which is not working,it includes all the Spans for a given element,im unable to find the MaxSpan for a given element. Please help me out. Results of the above Program are as shown below Expected This Run maxSpan({1, 2, 1, 1, 3}) ? 4 5 X maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 1, 4}) ? 6 8 X maxSpan({1, 4, 2, 1, 4, 4, 4}) ? 6 9 X maxSpan({3, 3, 3}) ? 3 5 X maxSpan({3, 9, 3}) ? 3 3 OK maxSpan({3, 9, 9}) ? 2 3 X maxSpan({3, 9}) ? 1 1 OK maxSpan({3, 3}) ? 2 3 X maxSpan({}) ? 0 1 X maxSpan({1}) ? 1 1 OK ::Code:: public int maxSpan(int[] nums) { int count=1;//keep an intial count of maxspan=1 int maxspan=0;//initialize maxspan=0 for(int i=0;i<nums.length;i++){ for(int j=i+1;j<nums.length;j++){ if(nums[i] == nums[j]){ //check to see if "i" index contents == "j" index contents count++; //increment count maxspan=count; //make maxspan as your final count int number = nums[i]; //number=actual number for maxspan } } } return maxspan+1; //return maxspan }

  Read the article

• Add a fadein fade out in jQuery, on multiple conditional statements

  - by Matthew Harwood

  Task: On click of li navigation filter show and hide content with a transitional fadein fade out. Problem I'm just guessing and checking on where to place this fadein//fadeout transition. Furthermore, I feel like my code is too inefficiency because I'm using 4 conditional statements. Would stack lead me in creating a solution to improve the overall logic of this script so I can just make a pretty transition :c? LIVE CODE jQuery Script $(document).ready(function () { //attach a single click listener on li elements $('li.navCenter').on('click', function () { // get the id of the clicked li var id = $(this).attr('id'); // match current id with string check then apply filter if (id == 'printInteract') { //reset all the boxes for muliple clicks $(".box").find('.video, .print, .web').closest('.box').show(); $(".box").find('.web, .video').closest('.box').hide(); $(".box").find('.print').show(); } if (id == 'webInteract') { $(".box").find('.video, .print, .web').closest('.box').show(); $(".box").find('.print, .video').closest('.box').hide(); $(".box").find('.web').show(); } if (id == 'videoInteract') { $(".box").find('.video, .print, .web').closest('.box').show(); $(".box").find('.print, .web').closest('.box').hide() $(".box").find('.video').show(); } if (id == 'allInteract') { $(".box").find('.video, .print, .web').closest('.box').show(); } }); HTML Selected <nav> <ul class="navSpaces"> <li id="allInteract" class="navCenter"> <a id="activeAll" class="navBg" href="#"><div class="relativeCenter"><img src="asset/img/logo30px.png" /><h3>all</h3></div></a> </li> <li id="printInteract" class="navCenter"> <a id="activePrint" class="navBg" href="#"><div class="relativeCenter"><img src="asset/img/print.gif" /><h3>print</h3></div></a> </li> <li id="videoInteract" class="navCenter"> <a id="activeVideo" class="navBg" href="#"><div class="relativeCenter"><img src="asset/img/video.gif" /><h3>video</h3></div></a> </li> <li id="webInteract" class="navCenter"> <a id="activeWeb" class="navBg" href="#"><div class="relativeCenter"><img src="asset/img/web.gif" /><h3>web</h3></div></a> </li> </ul> ps. Sorry for the newbie question

  Read the article

• Preg_replace regex, newlines, connection resets

  - by bob_the_destroyer

  I have mixed html, custom code, and regular text I need to examine and change frequently on several, long wiki pages. I'm working with a proprietary wiki-like application and have no control over how the application functions or validates user input. The layout of pages that users add must follow a very specific standard layout and always include very specific text in only certain places - a standard which frequently changes. If users add pages that are so far out of the standard, they will be deleted. The fact that all this is obviously a complete waste of time when alternative platforms to do exactly what's needed here exist is already understood. I've built a PHP based API to automate this post-validation and frequent restandardization process for me. I've been able set up regex patterns to handle all this mixed text, and they all work fine for handling single lines. The problem I have is this: Poorly formed regex against long text with line breaks can lead to unexpected results, such as connection resets. I have no access to server-side logs to troubleshoot. How do I overcome this? This is just one example of what I currently have: {column} and {section} tags I'm searching for below can have any number of attributes, and wrap any text. {section} may or may not exist and may or may not be one or more lines under {column}, but it has to be wrapped inside {column}. {column} itself may or may not exist, and if it doesn't, I don't care. I want to grab the inner section contents and wrap it in an html div tag. I can't recall the exact pattern I'm using offhand at the moment, but it's close enough... $pattern = "/\{column:id=summary([|]?([a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[:][a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[ ]?))\}(.*)({section([|]([a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[:][a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[ ]?))\}(.*)\{section\}(.*))?{column\}/s"; $replacement = "{html}<div id='summary'$7</div{html}"; $text = preg_replace($pattern, $replacement, $subject); Handling the {column} and {section} attributes and passing only valid HTML parameters to the new html div or a subtext of it is itself a challenge, but my main focus above right now is getting that (.*) value within {section} above without causing a connection reset. Any pointers?

  Read the article

• Authenticating users in iPhone app

  - by Myron

  I'm developing an HTTP api for our web application. Initially, the primary consumer of the API will be an iPhone app we're developing, but I'm designing this with future uses in mind (such as mobile apps for other platforms). I'm trying to decide on the best way to authenticate users so they can access their accounts from the iPhone. I've got a design that I think works well, but I'm no security expert, so I figured it would be good to ask for feedback here. The design of the user authentication has 3 primary goals: Good user experience: We want to allow users to enter their credentials once, and remain logged in indefinitely, until they explicitly log out. I would have considered OAuth if not for the fact that the experience from an iPhone app is pretty awful, from what I've heard (i.e. it launches the login form in Safari, then tells the user to return to the app when authentication succeeds). No need to store the user creds with the app: I always hate the idea of having the user's password stored in either plain text or symmetrically encrypted anywhere, so I don't want the app to have to store the password to pass it to the API for future API requests. Security: We definitely don't need the intense security of a banking app, but I'd obviously like this to be secure. Overall, the API is REST-inspired (i.e. treating URLs as resources, and using the HTTP methods and status codes semantically). Each request to the API must include two custom HTTP headers: an API Key (unique to each client app) and a unique device ID. The API requires all requests to be made using HTTPS, so that the headers and body are encrypted. My plan is to have an api_sessions table in my database. It has a unique constraint on the API key and unique device ID (so that a device may only be logged into a single user account through a given app) as well as a foreign key to the users table. The API will have a login endpoint, which receives the username/password and, if they match an account, logs the user in, creating an api_sessions record for the given API key and device id. Future API requests will look up the api_session using the API key and device id, and, if a record is found, treat the request as being logged in under the user account referenced by the api_session record. There will also be a logout API endpoint, which deletes the record from the api_sessions table. Does anyone see any obvious security holes in this?

  Read the article

• How to pass an int value on UIButton click inside UITableView

  - by Toran Billups

  So I have a view controller with a single UITableView that shows a string to the user. But I needed a way to have the user select this object by id using a normal UIButton so I added it as a subview and the click event works as expected. The issue is this - how can I pass an int value to this click event? I've tried using attributes of the button like button.tag or button.accessibilityhint without much success. How do the professionals pass an int value like this? Also it's important that I can get the actual [x intValue] from the int later in the process. A while back I thought I could do this with a simple NSLog(@"the actual selected hat was %d", [obj.idValue intValue]); But this doesn't appear to work (any idea how I can pull the actual int value directly from the variable?). The working code I have is below - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if ([self.hats count] > 0) { Hat* obj = [self.hats objectAtIndex: [indexPath row]]; NSMutableString* fullName = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; [fullName appendFormat:@"%@", obj.name]; [fullName appendFormat:@" %@", obj.type]; cell.textLabel.text = fullName; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; //add the button to subview hack UIButton* button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(50, 5, 50, 25); [button setTitle:@"Select" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; button.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; button.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; button.tag = obj.idValue; //this is my current hack to add the id but no dice :( [button addTarget:self action:@selector(action:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [cell.contentView addSubview:button]; //hack } return cell; } - (void)action:(id)sender { int* hatId = ((UIButton *)sender).tag; //try to pull the id value I added above ... //do something w/ the hatId }

  Read the article

• c++ property class structure

  - by Without me Its just Aweso

  I have a c++ project being developed in QT. The problem I'm running in to is I am wanting to have a single base class that all my property classes inherit from so that I can store them all together. Right now I have: class AbstractProperty { public: AbstractProperty(QString propertyName); virtual QString toString() const = 0; virtual QString getName() = 0; virtual void fromString(QString str) = 0; virtual int toInteger() = 0; virtual bool operator==(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; virtual bool operator!=(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; virtual bool operator<(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; virtual bool operator>(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; virtual bool operator>=(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; virtual bool operator<=(const AbstractProperty &rightHand) = 0; protected: QString name; }; then I am implementing classes such as PropertyFloat and PropertyString and providing implementation for the comparator operators based on the assumption that only strings are being compared with strings and so on. However the problem with this is there would be no compiletime error thrown if i did if(propertyfloat a < propertystring b) however my implementation of the operators for each derived class relies on them both being the same derived class. So my problem is I cant figure out how to implement a property structure so that I can have them all inherit from some base type but code like what I have above would throw a compile time error. Any ideas on how this can be done? For those familiar with QT I tried using also a implementation with QVariant however QVariant doesn't have operators < and defined in itself only in some of its derived classes so it didn't work out. What my end goal is, is to be able to generically refer to properties. I have an element class that holds a hashmap of properties with string 'name' as key and the AbstractProperty as value. I want to be able to generically operate on the properties. i.e. if I want to get the max and min values of a property given its string name I have methods that are completely generic that will pull out the associated AbstactProperty from each element and find the max/min no matter what the type is. so properties although initially declared as PropertyFloat/PropertyString they will be held generically.

  Read the article

• Can I use WCF to replace my current Web Service and Window Service combination?

  - by gun_shy

  I need a little bit of advise regarding the situation I am faced with. The current arrangement I have been tasked with improving just doesn't sit well with me and I feel like there is a better way to do it. The more I read about WCF, the more I get the feeling that it might be what I am looking for. Right now, I have an asp.net client, a .net web service, a windows service, a ms sql database, and a third party application that is used for processing a group of 'project' files into a finalized file. Since the third party application can only handle processing one 'project' at a time, the combination of the web service, window service, and database have been arranged to create a job queue manager for the third party application. The client sends a zip 'project' file containing multiple sub files to the web service. The web service adds a new 'project' line to the database, generating a unique job id. The zip file is expanded to a folder location on the server using the job id as the folder name. The web service then returns the job id to the client. The client will use this id to poll the web service for the status of the job submitted. When the job is complete, the client will request the processed file. The windows service polls the database every x minutes. If a new job exists, the service will pull the oldest job and send it to the third party app for processing. If the processing succeeds, the window service updates the project line in the database, marking the job complete. The window service will continue to process any non complete jobs in the database until there are no more. When it stops finding any jobs, it will sleep x minutes and then poll the database again. I do not like the fact that the window service has to poll the database. If there is only one job submitted, the client will have to wait for the window service to poll and then wait while the 'project' is being processed. It seems like WCF could be used to combine the web and window services using a combination of the InstanceContextMode.Single and ConcurrencyMode.Multiple. So far, I have been unable to find any articles or examples that would point me in the right direction. Can WCF be utilized to accomplish the job queue logic of the current arrangement in a better way? As always, any help is more than appreciated.

  Read the article

• Model self referential collections in Rails

  - by Najitaka

  I have written an application for an online clothing store in Rails 2.3.5. I want to show related Products when a customer views the Product Detail page. For example, if the customer views the detail page for a suit, I'd like to display the accessory products that match the dress such as a vest, shoes, and belt. I have named the related products an Ensemble. However, the vest, shoes, and belts are also Products which is what has me struggling. I have it working as follows but I know it's not the Rails way. I have a Products table for all of the products. Not important here but I also have a ProductDetails table. I have an Ensembles table that has the following columns: product_id - the main or origination product, the one displayed on the detail page outfit_id - the related or accessory product In setting up the data, on the Products list, for each Product I have an Ensemble link. This link takes you to the index action in the Ensembles controller. Using the id from the "main" Product, I find all of the associated Ensemble rows by product_id or I create a new ensemble and assign the id from the main product as the product_id. I'd like to just be able to do @product.related_products to get an Ensemble collection. Also on the index page I list the columns of the main product so the user can be sure their main product was the one they selected from the list. I also have a select list of the other products, with an Add to Ensemble action. Finally on the same index page, I have a table that displays the products that are already in the ensemble and in that list each row has a destroy link to remove a particular product from the ensemble. It would be nice if given a single Ensemble row @ensemble I could do @ensemble.product to get the Product related to the outfit_id of the ensemble row. I've got it working without associations but I have to run queries in the controller to build my own @product, @ensemble, and @ensembles collections. Also the only way I found to destroy an ensemble row is by Ensemble.connection.delete(sql to delete), simple @ensemble.destroy doesn't work. Anyone know how I would set up the associations or have a link to a site explaining a similar setup. None of the examples I found use the same table. They have A related to B through C. I want A related to other A through B.

  Read the article

• Dictionary w/ null key?

  - by Ralph

  Firstly, why doesn't Dictionary<TKey, TValue> support a single null key? Secondly, is there an existing dictionary-like collection that does? I want to store an "empty" or "missing" or "default" System.Type, thought null would work well for this. More specifically, I've written this class: class Switch { private Dictionary<Type, Action<object>> _dict; public Switch(params KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>>[] cases) { _dict = new Dictionary<Type, Action<object>>(cases.Length); foreach (var entry in cases) _dict.Add(entry.Key, entry.Value); } public void Execute(object obj) { var type = obj.GetType(); if (_dict.ContainsKey(type)) _dict[type](obj); } public static void Execute(object obj, params KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>>[] cases) { var type = obj.GetType(); foreach (var entry in cases) { if (entry.Key == null || type.IsAssignableFrom(entry.Key)) { entry.Value(obj); break; } } } public static KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>> Case<T>(Action action) { return new KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>>(typeof(T), x => action()); } public static KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>> Case<T>(Action<T> action) { return new KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>>(typeof(T), x => action((T)x)); } public static KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>> Default(Action action) { return new KeyValuePair<Type, Action<object>>(null, x => action()); } } For switching on types. There are two ways to use it: Statically. Just call Switch.Execute(yourObject, Switch.Case<YourType>(x => x.Action())) Precompiled. Create a switch, and then use it later with switchInstance.Execute(yourObject) Works great except when you try to add a default case to the "precompiled" version (null argument exception).

  Read the article

• Sharing the same file between different projects

  - by selsine

  Hi Everyone, For version control we currently use Visual Source Safe and are thinking of migrating to another version control system (SVN, Mercurial, Git). Currently we use Visual Source Safe's "Shared" file feature quite heavily. This allows us to share code between design and runtimes of a single product, and between multiple products as well. For example: **Product One** - Design Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h **Product Two** - Design Login.cpp Login.h - Launcher Login.cpp Login.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h In this example Login.cpp and Login.h contain common code that all of our projects need, Helper.cpp and Helper.h is only used in Product One. In Visual Source Safe they are shared between the specific projects, which means that whenever the files are updated in one project they are updated in any project they are shared with. This is a simple example but hopefully it explains why we use the shared feature: to reduce the amount of duplicated code and ensure that when a bug is fixed all projects automatically have access to the new fixed code. After researching alternatives to Visual Source Safe it seems that most version control systems do not have the idea of shared files, instead they seem to use the idea of sub repositories. (http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/subrepos http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.0/ch07s03.html) My question (after all of that) is about what the best practices for achieving this are using other version control systems? Should we restructure our projects so that two copies of the files do not exist and an include directory is used instead? e.g. Product One Design Login.cpp Login.h Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Common Helper.cpp Helper.h This still leaves what to do with Login.cpp and Logon.h Should the shared files be moved to their own repository and then compiled into a lib or dll? This would make bug fixing more time consuming as the lib projects would have to be edited and then rebuilt. Should we use externals or sub repositories? Should we combine our projects (i.e. runtime, design, and launcher) into one large project? Any help would be appreciated. We have the feeling that our project design has evolved based on the tools that we used and now that we are thinking of switching tools it's difficult for us to see how we can best modify our practices. Or maybe we are the only people are there doing this...? Also, we use Visual Studio for all of our stuff. Thanks.

  Read the article

• PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

  - by bigstylee

  Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

  Read the article

• Looping class, for template engine kind of thing

  - by tarnfeld

  Hey, I am updating my class Nesty so it's infinite but I'm having a little trouble.... Here is the class: <?php Class Nesty { // Class Variables private $text; private $data = array(); private $loops = 0; private $maxLoops = 0; public function __construct($text,$data = array(),$maxLoops = 5) { // Set the class vars $this->text = $text; $this->data = $data; $this->maxLoops = $maxLoops; } // Loop funtion private function loopThrough($data) { if( ($this->loops +1) > $this->maxLoops ) { die("ERROR: Too many loops!"); } else { $keys = array_keys($data); for($x = 0; $x < count($keys); $x++) { if(is_array($data[$keys[$x]])) { $this->loopThrough($data[$keys[$x]]); } else { return $data[$keys[$x]]; } } } } // Templater method public function template() { echo $this->loopThrough($this->data); } } ?> Here is the code you would use to create an instance of the class: <?php // The nested array $data = array( "person" => array( "name" => "Tom Arnfeld", "age" => 15 ), "product" => array ( "name" => "Cakes", "price" => array ( "single" => 59, "double" => 99 ) ), "other" => "string" ); // Retreive the template text $file = "TestData.tpl"; $fp = fopen($file,"r"); $text = fread($fp,filesize($file)); // Create the Nesty object require_once('Nesty.php'); $nesty = new Nesty($text,$data); // Save the newly templated text to a variable $message $message = $nesty->template(); // Print out $message on the page echo("<pre>".$message."</pre>"); ?> Any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690  | Next Page >