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  • Structs, strtok, segmentation fault

    - by FILIaS
    I'm trying to make a programme with structs and files.The following is just a part of my code(it;s not all). What i'm trying to do is: ask the user to write his command. eg. delete John eg. enter John James 5000 ipad purchase. The problem is that I want to split the command in order to save its 'args' for a struct element. That's why i used strtok. BUT I'm facing another problem in who to 'put' these on the struct. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> #define MAX 100 char command[1500]; struct catalogue { char short_name[50]; char surname[50]; signed int amount; char description[1000]; }*catalog[MAX]; int main ( int argc, char *argv[] ) { int i,n; char choice[3]; printf(">sort1: Print savings sorted by surname\n"); printf(">sort2: Print savings sorted by amount\n"); printf(">search+name:Print savings of each name searched\n"); printf(">delete+full_name+amount: Erase saving\n"); printf(">enter+full_name+amount+description: Enter saving \n"); printf(">quit: Update + EXIT program.\n"); printf("Choose your selection:\n>"); gets(command); //it save the whole command /*in choice it;s saved only the first 2 letters(needed for menu choice again)*/ strncpy(choice,command,2); choice[2]='\0'; char** args = (char**)malloc(strlen(command)*sizeof(char*)); memset(args, 0, sizeof(char*)*strlen(command)); char* curToken = strtok(command, " \t"); for (n = 0; curToken != NULL; ++n) { args[n] = strdup(curToken); curToken = strtok(NULL, " \t"); *catalog[n]->short_name=*args[1]; *catalog[n]->surname=args[2]; catalog[n]->amount=atoi(args[3]); *catalog[n]->description=args[4]; } return 0; } I get a warning (warning: assignment makes integer from pointer without a cast) for the lines: *catalog[n]->short_name=*args[1]; *catalog[n]->surname=args[2]; *catalog[n]->description=args[4]; As a result, after running the program i get a Segmentation Fault... Any help? Any ideas?

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  • Erratic behavior with XPS editing: what could be going wrong?

    - by Ariel Arjona
    Hello folks, I'm working on a class that annotates existing XPS documents. The problem I've been having is that some annotations randomly don't make it to the finished document. The following test code is supposed to draw a rectangle on every page. On random pages the rectangle does not appear. Upon inspection of the page XML, the tags for the rectangle are missing. I run the program again and sometimes it appears on that particular page, sometimes it's then missing from some other page, sometimes from all but 1, and so on. public void TestXpsAnnotate() { var xpsFile = this.GetXpsFile(); var xpsDoc = new XpsDocument(xpsFile, FileAccess.Read); FixedDocumentSequence docSeq = xpsDoc.GetFixedDocumentSequence(); // new XPS document var newFds = new FixedDocumentSequence(); var newDocRef = new DocumentReference(); var newFixedDoc = new FixedDocument(); // get documents foreach (var docRef in docSeq.References) { FixedDocument fixedDoc = docRef.GetDocument(true); // get pages foreach (PageContent pageContent in fixedDoc.Pages) { var newPageContent = new PageContent(); newPageContent.Source = pageContent.Source; (newPageContent as IUriContext).BaseUri = ((IUriContext)pageContent).BaseUri; FixedPage fixedPage = newPageContent.GetPageRoot(true); var r = new System.Windows.Shapes.Rectangle() { Width = 300, Height = 400, Stroke = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Red), Fill = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Yellow), StrokeThickness = 3, }; //var r = new TextBlock(); //r.Text = "BLAH"; //r.Foreground = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Red); var theCanvas = fixedPage.Children.Cast<UIElement>().OfType<Canvas>().First(); theCanvas.Children.Add(r); Canvas.SetLeft(r, 10); Canvas.SetTop(r, 10); fixedPage.UpdateLayout(); newFixedDoc.Pages.Add(newPageContent); } } xpsDoc.Close(); newDocRef.SetDocument(newFixedDoc); newFds.References.Add(newDocRef); string outputFile = this.GetOutputFile(); if (File.Exists(outputFile)) { File.Delete(outputFile); } var newXpsDoc = new XpsDocument(outputFile, FileAccess.ReadWrite); var writer = XpsDocument.CreateXpsDocumentWriter(newXpsDoc); writer.Write(newFds); newXpsDoc.Close(); } This code follows the examples I've seen around the internet and it seems to do what it's supposed to, when it works. Any idea what could be going wrong here?

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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • An IOCP documentation interpretation question - buffer ownership ambiguity

    - by Poni
    Since I'm not a native English speaker I might be missing something so maybe someone here knows better than me. Taken from WSASend's doumentation at MSDN: lpBuffers [in] A pointer to an array of WSABUF structures. Each WSABUF structure contains a pointer to a buffer and the length, in bytes, of the buffer. For a Winsock application, once the WSASend function is called, the system owns these buffers and the application may not access them. This array must remain valid for the duration of the send operation. Ok, can you see the bold text? That's the unclear spot! I can think of two translations for this line (might be something else, you name it): Translation 1 - "buffers" refers to the OVERLAPPED structure that I pass this function when calling it. I may reuse the object again only when getting a completion notification about it. Translation 2 - "buffers" refer to the actual buffers, those with the data I'm sending. If the WSABUF object points to one buffer, then I cannot touch this buffer until the operation is complete. Can anyone tell what's the right interpretation to that line? And..... If the answer is the second one - how would you resolve it? Because to me it implies that for each and every data/buffer I'm sending I must retain a copy of it at the sender side - thus having MANY "pending" buffers (in different sizes) on an high traffic application, which really going to hurt "scalability". Statement 1: In addition to the above paragraph (the "And...."), I thought that IOCP copies the data to-be-sent to it's own buffer and sends from there, unless you set SO_SNDBUF to zero. Statement 2: I use stack-allocated buffers (you know, something like char cBuff[1024]; at the function body - if the translation to the main question is the second option (i.e buffers must stay as they are until the send is complete), then... that really screws things up big-time! Can you think of a way to resolve it? (I know, I asked it in other words above).

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  • SurfaceView for Camera Preview won't get destroyed when pressing Power-Botton

    - by for3st
    I want to implement a camera preview. For that I have a custom View CameraView extends ViewGroup that in the constructor programatically creates an surfaceView. I have the following components (higly simplified for beverity): ScannerFragment.java public View onCreateView(..) { //inflate view and get cameraView } public void onResume() { //open camera -> set rotation -> startPreview (in a thread) -> //set preview callback -> start decoding worker } public void onPause() { // stop decoding worker -> stop Preview -> release camera } CameraView.java extends ViewGroup public void setUpCalledInConstructor(Context context) { //create a surfaceview and add it to this viewgroup -> //get SurfaceHolder and set callback } /* SurfaceHolder.Callback */ public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { camera.setPreviewDisplay(holder); } public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { //NOTHING is done here } public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int w, int h) { camera.getParameters().setPreviewSize(previewSize.width, previewSize.height); } fragment_scanner.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <com.myapp.camera.CameraView android:id="@+id/cameraPreview" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"/> </RelativeLayout> I think I have set the lifecycle correct (getting resources onResume(), releasing it onPause() roughly said) and the following works just fine: pressing home and returning pressing Taskswitcher and returning rotation But one thing doesn't work and that is when I press the power-button on the device and then return to the camera-preview. The result is: the preview is stuck with the image that was last captured before button was pressed. If I rotate it works fine again, since it will get through the lifecycle. After some research I found out that this is probably due to the fact that surfaceView won't get destroyed when the power-button is pressed, i.e. SurfaceHolder.Callback.surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) won't be called. And in fact when I compare the (very verbose) log output of the home-button-case and the power-button-case it's the same except that 'surfaceDestroyed' won't get called. So far I found no solution whatsoever to work around it. I purposely avoid any resource cleaning code in my surfaceDestroyed(), but this does not help. My idea was to manually destroy the surfaceView like asked in this question but this seems not possible. I also tested other applications with surfaceViews/cameras and they don't seem to have this issue. So I would appreciate any hints or tips on that.

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  • _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

    - by Stefan Hubert
    I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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  • Invoke Python modules from Java

    - by user36813
    I have a Python interface of a graph library written in C - igraph (the name of library). My need is to invoke the python modules pertaining to this graph library from Java code. It goes like this, the core of library is in c. This core has been imported into Python and interfaces to the functions embedded in core are available in Python. My project's rest of the code is in Java and hence I would like to call the graph functions by Java as well. Jython - which lets you invoke python modules with in Java was an option.I went on trying Jython to discover that it will not work in my case as the core code is in C and Jython wont support anything that is imported as a c dll in python code.I also thought of opting for the approach of calling graph routines directly in c. That is without passing through Python code. I am assuming there must be something which lets you call c code from Java, how ever I am not good in C hence I did not go for it. My last resort seems to execute Python interpreter from command line using Java. But that is a dirty and shameless. Also to deal with the results produced by Python code I will have to write the results in a file and read it back in java. Again dirty way. Is there something that any one can suggest me? Thanks to every one giving time. Thanks Igal for answering. I had a look at it. At first glance it appears as if it is simply calling the python script. Jep jep = new Jep(false, SCRIPT_PATH, cl); jep.set("query", query); jep.runScript(SCRIPT_PATH + file); jep.close(); Isnt it very similar to what we would do if called the python interpreter from command line through a Java code. Runtime runtime = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process proc = runtime.exec("python test.py"); Concern is how do I use the results generated by Python script. The naive way is to write them to file and read it back in Java. I am searching for a smarter approach.Thanks for suggestion anyway.

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  • Java: Reading a pdf file from URL into Byte array/ByteBuffer in an applet.

    - by Pol
    I'm trying to figure out why this particular snippet of code isn't working for me. I've got an applet which is supposed to read a .pdf and display it with a pdf-renderer library, but for some reason when I read in the .pdf files which sit on my server, they end up as being corrupt. I've tested it by writing the files back out again. I've tried viewing the applet in both IE and Firefox and the corrupt files occur. Funny thing is, when I trying viewing the applet in Safari (for Windows), the file is actually fine! I understand the JVM might be different, but I am still lost. I've compiled in Java 1.5. JVMs are 1.6. The snippet which reads the file is below. public static ByteBuffer getAsByteArray(URL url) throws IOException { ByteArrayOutputStream tmpOut = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); URLConnection connection = url.openConnection(); int contentLength = connection.getContentLength(); InputStream in = url.openStream(); byte[] buf = new byte[512]; int len; while (true) { len = in.read(buf); if (len == -1) { break; } tmpOut.write(buf, 0, len); } tmpOut.close(); ByteBuffer bb = ByteBuffer.wrap(tmpOut.toByteArray(), 0, tmpOut.size()); //Lines below used to test if file is corrupt //FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream("C:\\abc.pdf"); //fos.write(tmpOut.toByteArray()); return bb; } I must be missing something, and I've been banging my head trying to figure it out. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks. Edit: To further clarify my situation, the difference in the file before I read then with the snippet and after, is that the ones I output after reading are significantly smaller than they originally are. When opening them, they are not recognized as .pdf files. There are no exceptions being thrown that I ignore, and I have tried flushing to no avail. This snippet works in Safari, meaning the files are read in it's entirety, with no difference in size, and can be opened with any .pdf reader. In IE and Firefox, the files always end up being corrupted, consistently the same smaller size. I monitored the len variable (when reading a 59kb file), hoping to see how many bytes get read in at each loop. In IE and Firefox, at 18kb, the in.read(buf) returns a -1 as if the file has ended. Safari does not do this. I'll keep at it, and I appreciate all the suggestions so far.

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  • How to produce precisely-timed tone and silence?

    - by Bob Denny
    I have a C# project that plays Morse code for RSS feeds. I write it using Managed DirectX, only to discover that Managed DirectX is old and deprecated. The task I have is to play pure sine wave bursts interspersed with silence periods (the code) which are precisely timed as to their duration. I need to be able to call a function which plays a pure tone for so many milliseconds, then Thread.Sleep() then play another, etc. At its fastest, the tones and spaces can be as short as 40ms. It's working quite well in Managed DirectX. To get the precisely timed tone I create 1 sec. of sine wave into a secondary buffer, then to play a tone of a certain duration I seek forward to within x milliseconds of the end of the buffer then play. I've tried System.Media.SoundPlayer. It's a loser because you have to Play(), Sleep(), then Stop() for arbitrary tone lengths. The result is a tone that is too long, variable by CPU load. It takes an indeterminate amount of time to actually stop the tone. I then embarked on a lengthy attempt to use NAudio 1.3. I ended up with a memory resident stream providing the tone data, and again seeking forward leaving the desired length of tone remaining in the stream, then playing. This worked OK on the DirectSoundOut class for a while (see below) but the WaveOut class quickly dies with an internal assert saying that buffers are still on the queue despite PlayerStopped = true. This is odd since I play to the end then put a wait of the same duration between the end of the tone and the start of the next. You'd think that 80ms after starting Play of a 40 ms tone that it wouldn't have buffers on the queue. DirectSoundOut works well for a while, but its problem is that for every tone burst Play() it spins off a separate thread. Eventually (5 min or so) it just stops working. You can see thread after thread after thread exiting in the Output window while running the project in VS2008 IDE. I don't create new objects during playing, I just Seek() the tone stream then call Play() over and over, so I don't think it's a problem with orphaned buffers/whatever piling up till it's choked. I'm out of patience on this one, so I'm asking in the hopes that someone here has faced a similar requirement and can steer me in a direction with a likely solution.

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  • added div does not recognize jquery function

    - by zurna
    I pull categories of one section from a XML. Problem is, pulled categories need to recognize tab plugin but they do not recognize it. I am not sure if I made sense, please let me know if I didnt make any sense. I will try to explain it again. :) $.ajax({ dataType: "xml", url: "/FLPM/content/home/index.cs.asp?Process=ViewVCategories", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('row').each(function(){ var id = $(this).attr('id'); var CategoryName = $(this).find('CategoryName').text(); $("<div class='tab fleft'><a href='#'>"+ CategoryName + "</a></div>").appendTo("#VCategories"); }); } }); $("div.row-title").tabs("div.panes > div", {effect: 'ajax'}, function(i) { // get the pane to be opened var pane = this.getPanes().eq(i); // load it with a page specified in the tab's href attribute pane.html('<img src="http://www.refinethetaste.com/html/cp/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading..." />') .load(this.getTabs().eq(i).attr("href")); }); pulled categories displayed here: <div class="row-title clear" id="VCategories"> categories xml <rows> - <row id="1"> <CategoryName>Nation</CategoryName> </row> - <row id="2"> <CategoryName>Politics</CategoryName> </row> - <row id="3"> <CategoryName>Health</CategoryName> </row> - <row id="4"> <CategoryName>Business</CategoryName> </row> - <row id="5"> <CategoryName>Culture</CategoryName> </row> </rows> </div>

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  • nhibernate/fluenthibernate throws StackOverflowException

    - by Gianluca Colucci
    Hi there! In my project I am using NHibernate/FluentNHibernate, and I am working with two entities, contracts and services. This is my contract type: [Serializable] public partial class TTLCContract { public virtual long? Id { get; set; } // other properties here public virtual Iesi.Collections.Generic.ISet<TTLCService> Services { get; set; } // implementation of Equals // and GetHashCode here } and this is my service type: [Serializable] public partial class TTLCService { public virtual long? Id { get; set; } // other properties here public virtual Activity.Models.TTLCContract Contract { get; set; } // implementation of Equals // and GetHashCode here } Ok, so as you can see, I want my contract object to have many services, and each Service needs to have a reference to the parent Contract. I am using FluentNhibernate. So my mappings file are the following: public TTLCContractMapping() { Table("tab_tlc_contracts"); Id(x => x.Id, "tlc_contract_id"); HasMany(x => x.Services) .Inverse() .Cascade.All() .KeyColumn("tlc_contract_id") .AsSet(); } and public TTLCServiceMapping() { Table("tab_tlc_services"); Id(x => x.Id, "tlc_service_id"); References(x => x.Contract) .Not.Nullable() .Column("tlc_contract_id"); } and here comes my problem: if I retrieve the list of all contracts in the db, it works. if I retrieve the list of all services in a given contract, I get a StackOverflowException.... Do you see anything wrong with what I wrote? Have I made any mistake? Please let me know if you need any additional information. Oh yes, I missed to say... looking at the stacktrace I see the system is loading all the services and then it is loading again the contracts related to those services. I don't really have the necessary experience nor ideas anymore to understand what's going on.. so any help would be really really great! Thanks in advance, Cheers, Gianluca.

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  • Multiline editable textarea in SVG

    - by Timo
    I'm trying to implement multiline editable textfield in SVG. I have the following code in http://jsfiddle.net/ca4d3/ : <svg width="1000" height="1000" overflow="scroll"> <g transform="rotate(5)"> <rect width="300" height="400" fill="#22DD22" fill-opacity="0.5"/> </g> <foreignObject x="10" y="10" overflow="visible" width="10000" height="10000" requiredFeatures="http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/feature#Extensibility"> <p style="display:table-cell;padding:10px;border:1px solid red; background-color:white;opacity:0.5;font-family:Verdana; font-size:20px;white-space: pre; word-wrap: normal; overflow: visible; overflow-y: visible; overflow-x:visible;" contentEditable="true" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Write here some text. Be smart and select some word. If you wanna be really COOL, paste here something cool! </p> </foreignObject> </svg> In newest Chrome, Safari and Firefox the code works in some way, but in Opera and IE 9 not. The goal is that: 0) Works in newest Chrome, Safari, Firefox, Opera and IE and if ever possible in some pads. 1) White-spaces are preserved and text wraps only on newline char (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 2) The textfield is editable (in the same reliable and stabile way as textareas and contenteditable p elements in html) and height and width is expanded to fit text (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 3) Texfield can be transformed (rotated, skewed, translated) while maintaining text editability (Tested rotation, but not work in any browser *). EDIT: Foreignobject rotation works on Firefox 15.0.1, but not in Safari 5.1.7 (6534.57.2), Chrome 22.0.1229.79, Opera 12.02, IE 9. Tested on Mac OS X 10.6.8. 4) Textfield can be clipped and masked while not necessarily maintaining text editability (not yet tested). *) using above code These all can be achieved using Flash, but Flash has so severe problems that it is not suitable for my purposes (after every little change in code, all have to be compiled again using Flex, which is slow, font size has limits, tracking technique is pixeloriented, not relative to em size etc.) and there still are differences across platforms. And I want to give a try to SVG! GUESTION: Can I achieve my goals 0-4 with current SVG support in browsers? Is coming SVG 2.0 for some help in this case? EDIT: Changed display:table to display:table-cell (and added new jsfiddle), because display:table made the field to loses focus when pressed arrow-up on first text row.

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  • Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

    - by Alexander
    I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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  • Best Practice: Legitimate Cross-Site Scripting

    - by Ryan
    While cross-site scripting is generally regarded as negative, I've run into several situations where it's necessary. I was recently working within the confines of a very limiting content management system. I needed to include database code within the page, but the hosting server didn't have anything usable available. I set up a couple barebones scripts on my own server, originally thinking that I could use AJAX to import the contents of my scripts directly into the template of the CMS (thus retaining dynamic images, menu items, CSS, etc.). I was wrong. Due to the limitations of XMLHttpRequest objects, it's not possible to grab content from a different domain. So I thought "iFrame" - even though I'm not a fan of frames, I thought that I could create a frame that matched the width and height of the content, so that it would appear native. Again, I was blocked by cross-site scripting "protections." While I could indeed load a remote file into the iFrame, I couldn't execute JavaScript to modify its size on either the host page or inside the loaded page. In this particular scenario, I wasn't able to point a subdomain to my server. I also couldn't create a script on the CMS server that could proxy content from my server, so my last thought was to use a remote JavaScript. A remote JavaScript works. It breaks when the user has JavaScript disabled, which is a downside; but it works. The "problem" I was having with using a remote JavaScript was that I had to use the JS function document.write() to output any content. Any output that isn't JS causes script errors. In addition to using document.write() for every line, you also have to ensure that the content is escaped - or else you end up with more script errors. My solution was as follows: My script received a GET parameter ("page") and then looked for the file ({$page}.php), and read the contents into a variable. However, I had to use awkward buffering techniques in order to actually execute the included scripts (for things like database interaction) then strip the final content of all line break characters ("\n") followed by escaping all required characters. The end result is that my original script (which outputs JavaScript) accesses seemingly "standard" scripts on my server and converts their standard output to JavaScript for displaying within the CMS template. While this solution works, it seems like there may be a better way to accomplish the same thing. What is the best way to make cross-site scripting work specifically for the purpose of including content from a completely different domain?

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  • Mootools Accordion nonfunctional in Opera

    - by nona
    While working as expected in all other browsers, opera refuses to tween the height of content. oddly enough, as i sat annoyed rapidly clicking it over and over again, if it's closed, and you select some text, and keep clicking the same spot long enough, sometimes it pops open. lol. seriously. ahh, it seems to sometimes open the first time clicked after the page is loaded. wth? the javascript: window.addEvent('domready', function(){ var content_height = [];i=0; $$( '.bio_accordion' ).each(function(item){ i++; content_height.push(item.getElement('.moreInfo').offsetHeight); var thisSlider = new Fx.Slide( item.getElement( '.moreInfo' ), { mode: 'horizontal' } ); thisSlider.hide(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween').tween('height', '0px'); var morph = new Fx.Morph(item.getElement( '.divToggle' )); var selected = 0; item.getElement( '.divToggle' ).addEvents({ 'mouseenter': function(){ if(!selected) this.morph('.div_highlight'); }, 'mouseleave': function(){ if(!selected) { this.morph('.divToggle'); } }, 'click': function(){ if (!selected){ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1500, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', content_height[i]); selected = 1; thisSlider.slideIn(); } else{ if (this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML == '+') this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '-'; else this.getElement('.symbol').innerHTML = '+'; thisSlider.slideOut(); item.getElement('.moreInfo').set('tween', { duration: 1000, transition: Fx.Transitions.Bounce.easeOut }).tween('height', '0px'); selected = 0; } } }); } ); }); the html: <div class="bio_accordion"> <div class="divToggle">test<span class="symbol">-</span></div> <div class="moreInfo" style="margin-left:10px;"> aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf </div> </div> the css: .bio_accordion { padding:0px; margin:0px; } .divToggle { cursor: pointer; color: #ffffff; background-color:#1089b5; padding: 8px; } .div_highlight { padding-left:30px; padding-right:30px; background-color:#096687; } .moreInfo { padding: 2px; padding-top:15px; padding-bottom:15px; overflow: hidden; } .symbol { float:right; }

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  • Joomla - Force File Download / CSV Export

    - by lautaro.dragan
    I'm in need of help... this is my first time asking a question in SO, so please be kind :) I'm trying to force-download a file from php, so when the user hits a certain button, he gets a file download. The file is a csv (email, username) of all registered users. I decided to add this button to the admin users screen, as you can see in this screenshot. So I added the following code to the addToolbar function in administrator/components/com_users/views/users/view.html.php: JToolBarHelper::custom('users.export', 'export.png', 'export_f2.png', 'Exportar', false); This button is mapped to the following function in the com_users\controller\users.php controller: public function exportAllUsers() { ob_end_clean(); $app = JFactory::getApplication(); header("Content-type: text/csv"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=ideary_users.csv"); header("Pragma: no-cache"); header("Expires: 0"); echo "email,name\n"; $model = $this->getModel("Users"); $users = $model->getAllUsers(); foreach ($users as $user) { echo $user->email . ", " . ucwords(trim($user->name)) . "\r\n"; } $app->close(); } Now, this is actually working perfectly fine. The issue here is that after I download a file, if I hit any button in the admin that causes a POST, instead of it performing the action it should, it just downloads the file over again! For example: I hit the "Export" button "users.csv" downloads Then, I hit the "search" button "users.csv" downloads... what the hell? I'm guessing that when I hit the export button, a JS gets called and sets a form's action attribute to an URL... and expects a response or something, and then other button's are prevented from re-setting the form's action attribute. I can't think of any real solution for this, but I'd rather avoid hacks if possible. So, what would be the standard, elegant solution that joomla offers in this case?

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  • Managing multiple AJAX calls to PHP scripts

    - by relativelycoded
    I have a set of 5 HTML dropdowns that act as filters for narrowing results returned from a mySQL database. The three pertinent filters are for "Province", "Region", and "City" selection, respectively. I have three functions: findSchools(), which runs when any of the filters (marked with CSS class .filter) are changed, and fetches the results via AJAX from a PHP script. Once that is done, two other functions are called... changeRegionOptions(), which, upon changing the "Province" filter, and updates the available options using the same method as the first function, but posting to a different script. changeCityOptions(), which runs if the "Region" filter was changed, and updates options, again using the same method. The problem is that since I want these AJAX functions to run simultaneously, and they by nature run asynchronously, I've tried using $.when to control the execution of the functions, but it doesn't fix the problem. The functions run, but the Region and City filters return blank (no options); the FireBug report shows absolutely no output, even though the POST request went through. The posted parameter for filter_province gets sent normally, but the one for region gets cut off at the end -- it sends as filter_region=, with no value passed. So I'm presuming my logic is wrong somewhere. The code is below: // When any of the filters are changed, let's query the database... $("select.filter").change(function() { findSchools(); }); // First, we see if there are any results... function findSchools() { var sch_province = document.filterform.filter_province.value; var sch_region = document.filterform.filter_region.value; var sch_city = document.filterform.filter_city.value; var sch_cat = document.filterform.filter_category.value; var sch_type = document.filterform.filter_type.value; $.post("fetch_results.php", { filter_province : sch_province, filter_region : sch_region, filter_city : sch_city, filter_category : sch_cat, filter_type : sch_type }, function(data) { $("#results").html(""); $("#results").hide(); $("#results").html(data); $("#results").fadeIn(600); } ); // Once the results are fetched, we want to see if the filter they changed was the one for Province, and if so, update the Region and City options to match that selection... $("#filter_province").change(function() { $.when(findSchools()) .done(changeRegionOptions()); $.when(changeRegionOptions()) .done(changeCityOptions()); }); }; This is just one of the ways I've tried to solve it; I've tried using an IF statement, and tried calling the functions directly inside the general select.filter.change() function (after findSchools(); ), but they all return the same result. Any help with this would be great!

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  • Find location using only distance and range?

    - by pinnacler
    Triangulation works by checking your angle to three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and it's to my right at 90 degrees." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and angles. Trilateration works by checking your distance from three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and I'm 100 meters away from that." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and ranges. But both of those methods rely on knowing WHAT you're looking at. Say you're in a forest and you can't differentiate between trees, but you know where key trees are. These trees have been hand picked as "landmarks." You have a robot moving through that forest slowly. Do you know of any ways to determine location based solely off of angle and range, exploiting geometry between landmarks? Note, you will see other trees as well, so you won't know which trees are key trees. Ignore the fact that a target may be occluded. Our pre-algorithm takes care of that. 1) If this exists, what's it called? I can't find anything. 2) What do you think the odds are of having two identical location 'hits?' I imagine it's fairly rare. 3) If there are two identical location 'hits,' how can I determine my exact location after I move the robot next. (I assume the chances of having 2 occurrences of EXACT angles in a row, after I reposition the robot, would be statistically impossible, barring a forest growing in rows like corn). Would I just calculate the position again and hope for the best? Or would I somehow incorporate my previous position estimate into my next guess? If this exists, I'd like to read about it, and if not, develop it as a side project. I just don't have time to reinvent the wheel right now, nor have the time to implement this from scratch. So if it doesn't exist, I'll have to figure out another way to localize the robot since that's not the aim of this research, if it does, lets hope it's semi-easy.

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  • Chaining multiple ShellExecute calls

    - by IVlad
    Consider the following code and its executable - runner.exe: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <windows.h> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { SHELLEXECUTEINFO shExecInfo; shExecInfo.cbSize = sizeof(SHELLEXECUTEINFO); shExecInfo.fMask = NULL; shExecInfo.hwnd = NULL; shExecInfo.lpVerb = "open"; shExecInfo.lpFile = argv[1]; string Params = ""; for ( int i = 2; i < argc; ++i ) Params += argv[i] + ' '; shExecInfo.lpParameters = Params.c_str(); shExecInfo.lpDirectory = NULL; shExecInfo.nShow = SW_SHOWNORMAL; shExecInfo.hInstApp = NULL; ShellExecuteEx(&shExecInfo); return 0; } These two batch files both do what they're supposed to, which is run notepad.exe and run notepad.exe and tell it to try to open test.txt: 1. runner.exe notepad.exe 2. runner.exe notepad.exe test.txt Now, consider this batch file: 3. runner.exe runner.exe notepad.exe This one should run runner.exe and send notepad.exe as one of its command line arguments, shouldn't it? Then, that second instance of runner.exe should run notepad.exe - which doesn't happen, I get a "Windows cannot find 'am'. Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again" error. If I print the argc argument, it's 14 for the second instance of runner.exe, and they are all weird stuff like Files\Microsoft, SQL, Files\Common and so on. I can't figure out why this happens. I want to be able to string as many runner.exe calls using command line arguments as possible, or at least 2. How can I do that? I am using Windows 7 if that makes a difference.

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  • WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

    - by Volomike
    I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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  • Adobe Reader process fails when starting second instance

    - by Reddog
    In our C# WinForms application, we generate PDF files and launch Adobe Reader (or whatever the default system .pdf handler is) via the Process class. Since our PDF files can be large (approx 200K), we handle the Exited event to then clean up the temp file afterwards. The system works as required when a file is opened and then closed again. However, when a second file is opened (before closing Adobe Reader) the second process immediately exits (since Reader is now using it's MDI powers) and in our Exited handler our File.Delete call should fail because it's locked by the now joined Adobe process. However, in Reader we instead get: There was an error opening this document. This file cannot be found. The unusual thing is that if I put a debugger breakpoint before the file deletion and allow it to attempt (and fail) the deletion, then the system behaves as expected! I'm positive that the file exists and fairly positive that all handles/file streams to the file are closed before starting the process. We are launching with the following code: // Open the file for viewing/printing (if the default program supports it) var pdfProcess = new Process(); pdfProcess.StartInfo.FileName = tempFileName; if (pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.Contains("open", StringComparer.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { var verb = pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.First(v => v.Equals("open", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)); pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verb = verb; } pdfProcess.StartInfo.Arguments = "/N"; // Specifies a new window will be used! (But not definitely...) pdfProcess.SynchronizingObject = this; pdfProcess.EnableRaisingEvents = true; pdfProcess.Exited += new EventHandler(pdfProcess_Exited); _pdfProcessDictionary.Add(pdfProcess, tempFileName); pdfProcess.Start(); Note: We are using the _pdfProcessDictionary to store references to the Process objects so that they stay in scope so that Exited event can successfully be raised. Our cleanup/exited event is: void pdfProcess_Exited(object sender, EventArgs e) { Debug.Assert(!InvokeRequired); var p = sender as Process; try { if (_pdfProcessDictionary.ContainsKey(p)) { var tempFileName = _pdfProcessDictionary[p]; if (File.Exists(tempFileName)) // How else can I check if I can delete it!!?? { // NOTE: Will fail if the Adobe Reader application instance has been re-used! File.Delete(tempFileName); _pdfProcessDictionary.Remove(p); } CleanOtherFiles(); // This function will clean up files for any other previously exited processes in our dictionary } } catch (IOException ex) { // Just swallow it up, we will deal with trying to delete it at another point } } Possible solutions: Detect that the file is still open in another process Detect that the second process hasn't really been fully exited and that the file is opened in the first process instead

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  • Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

    - by Chris Thompson
    Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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  • .NET 2.0 Process Elevation for App Installation

    - by Brian Gillespie
    We have an application written in both C++ and .NET that installs for all users in the Program Files folder. This application downloads new versions of itself (as MSI installers) and spawns the new installer process to replace itself. The install process as it exists today: Copy an install manager app (C#, .NET 2.0) to the temp directory. Call this 'Manager' Manager is executed with elevated privs per this article. The original application exits. Manager spawns the MSI installer (with elevated privs, since the copy is elevated) Manager spawns the new version of the app. The bug: The newly installed app is running in an elevated state. This causes problems I won't enumerate here. Ideally, the launch of the newly installed app would be run with the permissions of the original user. I can't figure out how to demote the app back to being the standard user after elevation. An inelegant hack: (yeah, yeah, this whole process is inelegant anyway) Copy the install manager to the temp directory Run the install manager with standard user privs. Lets call this instance 'LowlyManager'. Original application exits. LowlyManager spawns the app again, this time with elevated privs. Let's name this instance 'UpperManagement' UpperManagement spawns the installer UpperManagement exits gracefully, returning the exit code of the installer. LowlyManager interprets the error code from UpperManagement, and spawns the newly installed application. This time as the original invoker. Is there a better way to do this? (I've left out a bunch of other details before and after these steps that make the process smoother for the user, but this should be enough to understand the core of the problem I'm trying to solve.) Other requirements: We can't install as a per-user app The user shouldn't be presented with an authentication dialog box if UAC would have simply asked "are you sure you want to allow this?". I think this might kill a solution using WindowsImpersonationContext, but I'm not sure. The system needs to work on XP, Vista, and Windows 7 (even if there is a separate process for XP).

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  • Long Running Stored Proc - Report Progress Using BackgroundWorker & Timer

    - by daveywc
    While a long running stored proc (RMR_Seek) is executing (called via a Linq-To-SQL data context) I am trying to call another stored proc (RMR_GetLatestModelMessage) to check a table for the latest status message. The long running stored proc updates the table in question with status messages as it executes. I want to display the status message on a message panel to advise the user of the status of the execution of Proc_A. For various reasons it is not possible to determine how long RMR_Seek will take to execute so a progress bar with percentage increments is not feasible. I thought I'd found the way to do it by calling the long running stored proc from in a BackgroundWorker process DoWork event handler. This worked fine and allowed me to update my message panel with some dummy status messages that were NOT obtained via Proc_B while Proc_A was running. However now that I have tried to implement this fully by calling Proc_B to obtain the status messages I am running into problems that seem to be related to the mix of the backgroundworker and my System.Windows.Forms.Timer. An extract of the code I am using is below. I have tried many different ways around this but each one seems to present its own set of problems. The code below is problematic in the bw_DoWork event. The RMR_Seek stored proc gets called but does not execute properly - it also seems to be inconsistent as to whether _IsCompleted gets set to true. I'm sure there is a better way to achieve what I am trying to do. private bool _IsCompleted; private void RunRevenueSeek() { if (_SelectedModel == null) { MessageBox.Show("Please select a model from the list and try again.", "Model Generation", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } else { var bw = new BackgroundWorker(); bw.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bw_DoWork); ProgressPanelControl.Visible = true; _IsCompleted = false; MessageTimer.Start(); // Has an interval of 3000 bw.RunWorkerAsync(); ProgressLabelControl.Text = "Refreshing Data"; this.Update(); ...more code goes here } } private void bw_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { using (var dc = new RevMdlrDataClassesDataContext()) { dc.CommandTimeout = 300; dc.RMR_Seek(_SelectedModel.ModelSet_ID); _IsCompleted = true; } } private void MessageTimer_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = ""; if (_IsCompleted) { MessageTimer.Stop(); } else { using (var dc = new RevMdlrDataClassesDataContext()) { dc.CommandTimeout = 300; dc.RMR_GetLatestModelMessage(_SelectedModel.ModelSet_ID, ref message); ProgressLabelControl.Text = message; this.Update(); } } }

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  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

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