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• [C# Thread] I'd like access to a share on the network!

  - by JustLooking

  Some Details I am working with VisualWebGUI, so this app is like ASP.NET, and it is deployed on IIS 7 (for testing) For my 'Web Site', Anonymous Authentication is set to a specific user (DomainName\DomainUser). In my web.config, I have impersonation on. This is how I got my app to access the share in the first place. The Problem There is a point in the the app where we use the Thread class, something similar to: Thread myThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(objInstance.PublicMethod)); myThread.Start(); What I have noticed is that I can write to my logs (text file on the share), everywhere throughout my code, except in the thread that I kicked off. I added some debugging output and what I see for users is: The thread that's kicked off: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Everywhere else in my code: DomainName\DomainUser (described in my IIS setup) OK, for some reason the thread gets a different user (NETWORK SERVICE). Fine. But, my share (and the actual log file) was given 'Full Control' to the NETWORK SERVICE user (this share resides on a different server than the one that my app is running). If NETWORK SERVICE has rights to this folder, why do I get access denied? Or is there a way to have the thread I kick off have the same user as the process?

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• Custom layout in Android: scrollable graphic with selectable elements over top

  - by Martyn

  Hi, I'm fairly new to the Android platform and was wondering if I could get some advice for my current head scratcher: I'm making an app which in one view will need an image, which can be scrolled on one axis, with a load of selectable points over the top of it. Each point needs to be positionable on the x and y (unlikely to change once the app is running, but I'll need to fine tune the positions whilst I'm developing it). I'd like to be able to let the user select each point and have a graphic drawn on the point the user has selected or just draw a graphic on one/more points without user intervention. I though for the selectable points I could extend the checkbox with a custom image for the selected state - does that sounds right, or is there a better way of doing this? Is there any thing I can read up on doing this, I can't seem to find anything on the net about replacing the default images? I was going to use the absolute layout, but see that it's been depreciated and I can't find anything to replace it. Can anyone give me some code or advice on where to read up on what I need to do? Thank you in advance

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• Hide form if javascript disabled

  - by Kero

  I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

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• How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

  - by Vishalrix

  In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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• Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

  - by Kyle Cronin

  I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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• Use `require()` with `node --eval`

  - by rentzsch

  When utilizing node.js's newish support for --eval, I get an error (ReferenceError: require is not defined) when I attempt to use require(). Here's an example of the failure: $ node --eval 'require("http");' undefined:1 ^ ReferenceError: require is not defined at eval at <anonymous> (node.js:762:36) at eval (native) at node.js:762:36 $ Here's a working example of using require() typed into the REPL: $ node > require("http"); { STATUS_CODES: { '100': 'Continue' , '101': 'Switching Protocols' , '102': 'Processing' , '200': 'OK' , '201': 'Created' , '202': 'Accepted' , '203': 'Non-Authoritative Information' , '204': 'No Content' , '205': 'Reset Content' , '206': 'Partial Content' , '207': 'Multi-Status' , '300': 'Multiple Choices' , '301': 'Moved Permanently' , '302': 'Moved Temporarily' , '303': 'See Other' , '304': 'Not Modified' , '305': 'Use Proxy' , '307': 'Temporary Redirect' , '400': 'Bad Request' , '401': 'Unauthorized' , '402': 'Payment Required' , '403': 'Forbidden' , '404': 'Not Found' , '405': 'Method Not Allowed' , '406': 'Not Acceptable' , '407': 'Proxy Authentication Required' , '408': 'Request Time-out' , '409': 'Conflict' , '410': 'Gone' , '411': 'Length Required' , '412': 'Precondition Failed' , '413': 'Request Entity Too Large' , '414': 'Request-URI Too Large' , '415': 'Unsupported Media Type' , '416': 'Requested Range Not Satisfiable' , '417': 'Expectation Failed' , '418': 'I\'m a teapot' , '422': 'Unprocessable Entity' , '423': 'Locked' , '424': 'Failed Dependency' , '425': 'Unordered Collection' , '426': 'Upgrade Required' , '500': 'Internal Server Error' , '501': 'Not Implemented' , '502': 'Bad Gateway' , '503': 'Service Unavailable' , '504': 'Gateway Time-out' , '505': 'HTTP Version not supported' , '506': 'Variant Also Negotiates' , '507': 'Insufficient Storage' , '509': 'Bandwidth Limit Exceeded' , '510': 'Not Extended' } , IncomingMessage: { [Function: IncomingMessage] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } , OutgoingMessage: { [Function: OutgoingMessage] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } , ServerResponse: { [Function: ServerResponse] super_: [Circular] } , ClientRequest: { [Function: ClientRequest] super_: [Circular] } , Server: { [Function: Server] super_: { [Function: Server] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } } , createServer: [Function] , Client: { [Function: Client] super_: { [Function: Stream] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } } , createClient: [Function] , cat: [Function] } > Is there a way to use require() with node's --eval? I'm on node 0.2.6 on Mac OS X 10.6.5.

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• encrypting passwords in a python conf file on a windows platform

  - by Richard

  Hello all. I have a script running on a remote machine. db info is stored in a configuration file. I want to be able to encrypt the password in the conf text so that no one can just read the file and gain access to the database. This is my current set up: My conf file sensitive info is encoded with base64 module. The main script then decodes the info. I have compiled the script using py2exe to make it a bit harder to see the code. My question is: Is there a better way of doing this? I know that base64 is not a very safe way of encrypting. Is there a way to encode using a key? I also know that py2exe can be reversed engineered very easily and the key could be found. Any other thoughts? I am also running this script on a windows machine, so any modules that are suggested should be able to run in a windows environment with ease. I know there are several other posts on this topic but I have not found one with a windows solution, or at least one that is will explained.

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• how to change uibutton title at runtime in objective c?

  - by Sarah

  Hello, I know this question is asked many a times,and i am also implementing the same funda for chanding the title of the uibutton i guess. Let me clarify my problem first. I have one uibutton named btnType, on clicking of what one picker pops up and after selecting one value,i am hitting done button to hide the picker and at the same time i am changing the the title of the uibutton with code [btnType setTitle:btnTitle forState:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [btnType setTitleColor:[UIColor redColor] forState:UIControlEventAllEvents]; But with my surpriaze,it is not changed and application crashes with signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I am not getting where i am making mistake.I have allocated memory to the btnType at viewdidLoad. Also I am using -(IBAction)pressAddType { toolBar.hidden = FALSE; dateTypePicker.hidden = FALSE; } event on pressing the button to open the picker. Also i would like to mention that i have made connection with IB with event TouchUpInside for pressAddType. Any guesses? I will be grateful if you could help me. Thanks.

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• Query syntax error selecting from 3 tables

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  Given info about an object: id, user_id, group_id Given info about an user: id_user, id_loc I need to get i one query: The name of the user (in table users) The name of the location of the user (in table locs) The name of the group of the object (in table groups) I am trying like this: SELECT usuarios.first_name as username, usuarios.id as userid, usuarios.avatar as useravatar, usuarios.id_loc, locs.name as locname, groups.name as groupname FROM usuarios,groups,locs WHRE usuarios.id_loc = locs.id AND usuarios.id = 1 AND group.id = LIMIT 1 having an error saying You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'AND locs.id = 3 LIMIT 1' at line 3 What am i doing wrong? can i do this in one query? -EDIT- This is the query generator code (php+mysql): $query_loc_group_user = 'SELECT usuarios.first_name as username, usuarios.id as userid, usuarios.avatar as useravatar, usuarios.id_loc, locs.name as locname, groups.name as groupname FROM usuarios,groups,locs WHRE usuarios.id_loc = locs.id AND usuarios.id = '.$this->id_user.' AND group.id = '.$this->id_group.' LIMIT 1'; In case it helps, i am trying to do in one query this function get_info(){ $info; $result = cache_query('SELECT first_name,last_name,avatar FROM usuarios WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result as $extra){ $info['username'] = $extra['first_name'].' '.$extra['last_name']; $info['avatar'] = $extra['avatar']; } $result1 = cache_query('SELECT name FROM locs WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result1 as $extra){ $info['locname'] = $extra['name']; } $result2 = cache_query('SELECT name FROM locs WHERE id = '.$this->id_user); foreach($result2 as $extra){ $info['groupname'] = $extra['name']; } return $info; }

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• my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

  - by rogdawg

  When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

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• Random Loss of precision in Python ReadLine()

  - by jackyouldon

  Hi all, We have a process which takes a very large csv (1.6GB) and breaks it down into pieces (in this case 3). This runs nightly and normally doesn't give us any problems. When it ran last night, however, the first of the output files had lost precision on the numeric fields in the data. The active ingredient in the script are the lines: while lineCounter <= chunk: oOutFile.write(oInFile.readline()) lineCounter = lineCounter + 1 and the normal output might be something like StringField1; StringField2; StringField3; StringField4; 1000000; StringField5; 0.000054454 etc. On this one occasion and in this one output file the numeric fields were all output with 6 zeros at the end i.e. StringField1; StringField2; StringField3; StringField4; 1000000.000000; StringField5; 0.000000 We are using Python v2.6 (and don't want to upgrade unless we really have to) but we can't afford to lose this data. Does anyone have any idea why this might have happened? If the readline is doing some kind of implicit conversion is there a way to do a binary read, because we really just want this data to pass through untouched? It is very wierd to us that this only affected one of the output files generated by the same script, and when it was rerun the output was as expected. thanks Jack

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• Android: Calculator on showing 0 immediately after the dot

  - by pearmak

  I am now working on a calculator, and everything works fine except for decimal places. The calculator contains 2 displays actually, one is called fakedisplay for actual operations, and one is called Display, for presenting the desired format, ie adding commas. When pressing 12345.678, Display will follow fakedisplay and present as 12,345.678, but if i press 12345.009, the fakedisplay will work normally as 12345.009, but the Display stuck as 12,345 until 9 is pressed, and at that time it will show 12,345.009 normally. However, it is strange that when the user presses 0, there is no response, and until pressing 9, 009 will then immediately append. I know this arise from the parsing code, but based on this, how could I amend the following code? I really cannot think of any solution... Many thanks for all your advice! one.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { if (str.length()<15) {Fakedisplay.append("1");} DecimalFormat myFormatter1 = new DecimalFormat("###,###,###,###.#################"); String str1=Fakedisplay.getText().toString(); String stripped1 = Double.valueOf(str1).toString(); stripped1 = myFormatter1.format(Double.valueOf(stripped1)); if (stripped1.endsWith(".0")) stripped1 = stripped1.substring(0, stripped1.length() - 2); Display.setText(stripped1);

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• MS SQL - High performance data inserting with stored procedures

  - by Marks

  Hi. Im searching for a very high performant possibility to insert data into a MS SQL database. The data is a (relatively big) construct of objects with relations. For security reasons i want to use stored procedures instead of direct table access. Lets say i have a structure like this: Document MetaData User Device Content ContentItem[0] SubItem[0] SubItem[1] SubItem[2] ContentItem[1] ... ContentItem[2] ... Right now I think of creating one big query, doing somehting like this (Just pseudo-code): EXEC @DeviceID = CreateDevice ...; EXEC @UserID = CreateUser ...; EXEC @DocID = CreateDocument @DeviceID, @UserID, ...; EXEC @ItemID = CreateItem @DocID, ... EXEC CreateSubItem @ItemID, ... EXEC CreateSubItem @ItemID, ... EXEC CreateSubItem @ItemID, ... ... But is this the best solution for performance? If not, what would be better? Split it into more querys? Give all Data to one big stored procedure to reduce size of query? Any other performance clue? I also thought of giving multiple items to one stored procedure, but i dont think its possible to give a non static amount of items to a stored procedure. Since 'INSERT INTO A VALUES (B,C),(C,D),(E,F) is more performant than 3 single inserts i thought i could get some performance here. Thanks for any hints, Marks

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• why the exception is not caught?

  - by Álvaro García

  I have the following code: List<MyEntity> lstAllMyRecords = miDbContext.MyEntity.ToList<MyEntity>(); foreach MyEntity iterator in lstMainRecord) { tasks.Add( TaskEx.Run(() => { try { checkData(lstAllMyRecords.Where(n => n.IDReference == iterator.IDReference).ToList<MyEntity>()); } catch CustomRepository ex) { //handle my custom repository } catch (Exception) { throw; } }) ); }//foreach Task.WaitAll(tasks.ToArray()); I get all the records from my data base and in the foreach loop, I group all the records that have the same IDReference. Thenk I check if the data is correct with the method chekData. The checkData method throw a custom exception if something is wrong. I would like to catch this exception to handle it. But the problem is that with this code the exceptions are not caught and all seem to work without errors, but I know that this is not true. I try to check only one group of records that I know that has problems. If I check only one group of registrers, the loop is execute once and then only task is created. In this case the exception is caught, but if I have many groups, then any exception s thrwon. Why when I only have one task the exception is caught and with many groups are not? Thanks.

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• How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

  - by VBCSharp

  Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

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• Structuring iPhone/iPad application views

  - by Mark

  I have an idea about an application that I want to build and Im new to iPhone/iPad development (but not new to development in other languages/frameworks such as .NET and Java). I want to layout some views on the screen so that they animate (slide in) from different directions into their places. The question is about the strucuture of the application, if I have say 4 rectanglular areas on the screen that contain business data, such as contacts (name, photo, etc...) and they all take up different widths of the screen (say the first contact takes up one row of the screen, but the next 2 take up half the width of the next row each, and so on). Should I create a custom view for the different sized contact views, (i.e. LargeCustomView and SmallCustomView, and any other special type that I make) or should it all be one type, say, CustomerDetailsView which could be stretched to fit at design time? Also, if there were, say, 3 different instances of the same custom view on the one screen, are there 3 instances of the view controller also? Im a little confused about powering the data behind a view, can someone shed some light on this for me? Do I just set the properties (say an instance variable ContactForView) on the view controller for each instance? Thanks for any help you can give Cheers, Mark

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• How can this Ambient Context become null?

  - by Mark Seemann

  Can anyone help me explain how TimeProvider.Current can become null in the following class? public abstract class TimeProvider { private static TimeProvider current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; public static TimeProvider Current { get { return TimeProvider.current; } set { if (value == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("value"); } TimeProvider.current = value; } } public abstract DateTime UtcNow { get; } public static void ResetToDefault() { TimeProvider.current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; } } Observations All unit tests that directly reference TimeProvider also invokes ResetToDefault() in their Fixture Teardown. There is no multithreaded code involved. Once in a while, one of the unit tests fail because TimeProvider.Current is null (NullReferenceException is thrown). This only happens when I run the entire suite, but not when I just run a single unit test, suggesting to me that there is some subtle test interdependence going on. It happens approximately once every five or six test runs. When a failure occurs, it seems to be occuring in the first executed tests that involves TimeProvider.Current. More than one test can fail, but only one fails in a given test run. FWIW, here's the DefaultTimeProvider class as well: public class DefaultTimeProvider : TimeProvider { private readonly static DefaultTimeProvider instance = new DefaultTimeProvider(); private DefaultTimeProvider() { } public override DateTime UtcNow { get { return DateTime.UtcNow; } } public static DefaultTimeProvider Instance { get { return DefaultTimeProvider.instance; } } } I suspect that there's some subtle interplay going on with static initialization where the runtime is actually allowed to access TimeProvider.Current before all static initialization has finished, but I can't quite put my finger on it. Any help is appreciated.

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• What is the point of having a key_t if what will be the key to access shared memory is the return value of shmget()?

  - by devoured elysium

  When using shared memory, why should we care about creating a key key_t ftok(const char *path, int id); in the following bit of code? key_t key; int shmid; key = ftok("/home/beej/somefile3", 'R'); shmid = shmget(key, 1024, 0644 | IPC_CREAT); From what I've come to understand, what is needed to access a given shared memory is the shmid, not the key. Or am I wrong? If what we need is the shmid, what is the point in not just creating a random key every time? Edit @link text one can read: What about this key nonsense? How do we create one? Well, since the type key_t is actually just a long, you can use any number you want. But what if you hard-code the number and some other unrelated program hardcodes the same number but wants another queue? The solution is to use the ftok() function which generates a key from two arguments. Reading this, it gives me the impression that what one needs to attach to a shared-memory block is the key. But this isn't true, is it? Thanks

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• Mercurial: Class library that will exist for both .NET 3.5 and 4.0?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a rather big class library written in .NET 3.5 that I'd like to upgrade to make available for .NET 4.0 as well. In that process, I will rip out a lot of old junk, and rewrite some code to better take advantage of the new classes and support in .NET 4.0 (like TPL.) The class libraries will thus diverge, but still be similar enough that some bug-fixes can be done to both in the same manner. How should I best organize this class library in Mercurial? I'm using Kiln (fogbugz) if that matters. I'm thinking: Named branches in one repository, can then transplant any bugfixes from one to the other Unnamed branches in one repository, can also transplant, but I think this will look messy Separate repositories, will have to reimplement the bugfixes (or use a non-mercurial-integraded compare tool to help me) What would you do? (any other alternatives that I haven't though of is welcome as well.) Note that the class libraries will diverge pretty heavily in areas, I have some remnants of old collection-type code that does something similar to Linq that I will remove, and some code that uses it that I will rewrite to use the Linq-methods instead. As such, just copying the project files and using #if NET40..#endif sections is not going to work out. Also, the 3.5 version of the class library will not be getting many new features, mostly just critical bug-fixes, so keeping both versions equally "alive" isn't really necessary. Thus, separate copies of all the files are good enough.

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• Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

  - by Xaqron

  // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

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• White-box testing in Javascript - how to deal with privacy?

  - by Max Shawabkeh

  I'm writing unit tests for a module in a small Javascript application. In order to keep the interface clean, some of the implementation details are closed over by an anonymous function (the usual JS pattern for privacy). However, while testing I need to access/mock/verify the private parts. Most of the tests I've written previously have been in Python, where there are no real private variables (members, identifiers, whatever you want to call them). One simply suggests privacy via a leading underscore for the users, and freely ignores it while testing the code. In statically typed OO languages I suppose one could make private members accessible to tests by converting them to be protected and subclassing the object to be tested. In Javascript, the latter doesn't apply, while the former seems like bad practice. I could always wall back to black box testing and simply check the final results. It's the simplest and cleanest approach, but unfortunately not really detailed enough for my needs. So, is there a standard way of keeping variables private while still retaining some backdoors for testing in Javascript?

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• C/C++ Bit Array or Bit Vector

  - by MovieYoda

  Hi, I am learning C/C++ programming & have encountered the usage of 'Bit arrays' or 'Bit Vectors'. Am not able to understand their purpose? here are my doubts - Are they used as boolean flags? Can one use int arrays instead? (more memory of course, but..) What's this concept of Bit-Masking? If bit-masking is simple bit operations to get an appropriate flag, how do one program for them? is it not difficult to do this operation in head to see what the flag would be, as apposed to decimal numbers? I am looking for applications, so that I can understand better. for Eg - Q. You are given a file containing integers in the range (1 to 1 million). There are some duplicates and hence some numbers are missing. Find the fastest way of finding missing numbers? For the above question, I have read solutions telling me to use bit arrays. How would one store each integer in a bit?

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• Very Urgent :How to start a new session if a user click on the new tab in IE or mozilla on websphere

  - by ha22109

  Hi, I have one "user search" portlet on the home page of one application running on websphere portal server.Which display the matching user records as per the search criteria filled in the search form.I have requirement to have a "back to search input" link on the results page which onclick should show the filled form on the input jsp. The issue which i am facing is if i open the application in two diff tab of same IE browser and start giving some search criteria and submit and same time search for some other input from other IE tab (in the same browser)and then go back to previous tab and click on "back to search input" link then instead of showing me the first input it will show me the imput which i entered in the next IE tab. I am setting and getting the bean(form bean) through portlet session.but in the two diff tab of same IE it will be the sae user session (and may be the same portlet session..) Please tell me solution for this. The one thing to be notice here is i can access this "user search" application even without doing login also.so it must be taking the default portlet session in this case. what wil happen once i login and then search,will it going to overwrite the portlet session and http session or howz is that?

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• How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

  - by Mark

  Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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• Window manipulation and inctences control

  - by touki

  In my application there are only 2 windows — win_a & win_b, on each of these windows there is button that call another window, e.g. click on btn1 of win_a will call win_b, click on btn2 of win_b will show win_a. Desired behaviour: 1. Only one instance of object is premitted at the same time, e.g. situation, where 2 instances of win_a running at the same time is not permitted. When you click on button that calls windows that already exist this action will only change a focus to needed window. If you call a window that previously had been created, but after this has been closed this action will create a new instance of this window. E.g. there are 2 running windows. you close one of them and after try to call this window back, so related button will create it. How to write it in WPF (XAML + C#). For the moment I wrote a version that can create a lot of instances of the same window (no number of instances control implemented), but I want to see only one instance of the same window, as we can see it in a lot of applications. Example of my code: Window win = new Window(); win.Show(); Thanks.

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