Search Results

Search found 94669 results on 3787 pages for 'anonymous one'.

Page 720/3787 | < Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >

  • Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • best database design for city zip & state tables

    - by ryan a
    My application will need to reference addresses. Street info will be stored with my main objects but the rest needs to be stored seperately to reduce redundancy. How should I store/retrieve ZIPs, cities and states? Here are some of my ideas. single table solution (cant do relationships) [locations] locationID locationParent (FK for locationID - 0 for state entries) locationName (city, state) locationZIP two tables (with relationships, FK constraints, ref integrity) [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName zipCode three tables [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName [zip] zipID cityID (FK for city.cityID) zipName Then I read into ZIP codes amd how they are assigned. They aren't specifically related to cities. Some cities have more than one ZIP (ok will still work) but some ZIPs are in more than one city (oh snap) and some other ZIPs (very few) are in more than one state! Also some ZIPs are not even in the same state as the address they belong to at all. Seems ZIPs are made for carrier route identification and some remote places are best served by post offices in neighboring cities or states. Does anybody know of a good (not perfect) solution that takes this into consideration to minimize discrepencies as the database grows?

    Read the article

  • Storing Result set into an array

    - by OVERTONE
    i know this should be simpel and im probably staring straight at the problem but once again im stuck and need the help of the code gurus. im trying too take one row from a column in jdbc, and put them in an array. i do this as follows: public void fillContactList() { createConnection(); try { Statement stmt = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet namesList = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT name FROM Users"); try { while (namesList.next()) { contactListNames[1] = namesList.getString(1); System.out.println("" + contactListNames[1]); } } catch(SQLException q) { } conn.commit(); stmt.close(); conn.close(); } catch(SQLException e) { } creatConnection is an already defined method that does what it obviously does. i creat my result set while theres another one, i store the string of that column into an array. then print it out for good measure. too make sure its there. the problem is that its storing the entire column into contactListNames[1] i wanted to make it store column1 row 1 into [1] then column 1 row 2 into [2] i know i could do this with a loop. but i dont know too take only one row at a time from a single column. any ideas? p.s ive read the api, i jsut cant see anything that fits.

    Read the article

  • Django | passing form values

    - by MMRUser
    I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How come the Actionscript 3 ENTER_FRAME event is crazy nuts?

    - by nstory
    So, I've been toying around with Flash, browsing through the documentation, and all that, and noticed that the ENTER_FRAME event seems to defy my expectation of a deterministic universe. Take the following example: (new MovieClip()).addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, function(ev) {trace("Test");}); Notice this anonymous MovieClip is not added to the display hierarchy, and any reference to it is immediately lost. It will actually print "Test" once a frame until it is garbage collected. How insane is that? The behavior of this is actually determined by when the garbage collector feels like coming around in all its unpredictable insanity! Is there a better way to create intermittent failures? Seriously. My two theories are that either the DisplayObject class stores weak references to all its instances for the purpose of dispatching ENTER_FRAME events, or, and much wilder, the Flash player actually scans the heap each frame looking for ENTER_FRAME listeners to pull on. Can any hardened Actionscript developer clue me in on how this works? (And maybe a why - the - f**k they thought this was a good idea?)

    Read the article

  • Loading GWT Messages from a Database

    - by Lars Tackmann
    In GWT one typically loads i18n strings using a interface like this: public interface StatusMessage extends Messages { String error(String username); : } which then loads the actual strings from a StatusMessage.property file: error=User: {0} does not have access to resource This is a great solution, however my client is unbendable in his demand for putting the i18n strings in a database so they can be changed at runtime (though its not a requirement that they be changed realtime). One solution is to create a async service which takes a message ID and user locale and returns a string. I have implemented this and find it terribly ugly (and it introduces a huge amount of extra communication with the server, plus it makes property placeholder replacement rather complicated). So my question is this, can I in some nice way implement a custom message provider that loads the messages from the backend in one big swoop (for the current user session). If it can also hook into the default GWT message mechanism, then I would be completely happy (i.e. so I can create a interface like above and keep using the the nice {0}, {1}... property replacement format). Other suggestions for clean database driven messages in GWT are also welcome.

    Read the article

  • C++ polymorphism and slicing

    - by Draco Ater
    The following code, prints out Derived Base Base But I need every Derived object put into User::items, call its own print function, but not the base class one. Can I achieve that without using pointers? If it is not possible, how should I write the function that deletes User::items one by one and frees memory, so that there should not be any memory leaks? #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class Base{ public: virtual void print(){ cout << "Base" << endl;} }; class Derived: public Base{ public: void print(){ cout << "Derived" << endl;} }; class User{ public: vector<Base> items; void add_item( Base& item ){ item.print(); items.push_back( item ); items.back().print(); } }; void fill_items( User& u ){ Derived d; u.add_item( d ); } int main(){ User u; fill_items( u ); u.items[0].print(); }

    Read the article

  • What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

    Read the article

  • Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

    - by user551625
    I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

    Read the article

  • Detect if any USB drive is detected or not using WinForm Application

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I want to do the following things in my application 1) I want to display whether any USB drive is inserted or not in my application to prompt the user to insert a USB drive. I just want to notify the user if any USB dirve is inserted else prompt him to insert one using a label or something (i want to avoid messagebox as it will keep appearing whenever a device is inserted or removed. It will be irritating for the end user) in my Visual C# WinForm Application. If any USB drive is present display "USB drive detected" in the label. The user may add one or more USB sticks but the status will remain same. When there is none then the status of the label will change to "No USB drives found.Please insert a USB drive". 2) When one or more USB drive is added the volume name with the drive letter for example "James(F:)" is added to the Combobox list. The combobox list also needs to remove the entry for the USB drive added in the list automatically when it is removed . So when there is no USB the list should be empty and the label will again prompt user to insert a USB stick or drive.

    Read the article

  • Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

    - by iamrohitbanga
    Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • Access problems with IIS 7 and a WCF service

    - by Steve
    I have a Silverlight app that calls a WCF service, the service calls some stored procedures in an SQL db using Visual Studio 2008's Link to SQL class and returns the information to whatever called it. I have set up the compiled project (website with embedded app and the WCF service) on an remote IIS 7 server. I recompiled my local copy to use the WCF service that is now hosted on the IIS box and not the one on the local dev server that Visual Studio provides, if I use the local version of the website (hosted on the dev server, and using the remote SCF service) it is able to make calls it needs and display the information. However, if I use the website that is being hosted by the remote IIS server, the app will not get the information it needs from the service. On the IIS server I have the application pool and the website running under my credentials, which have access to the database. Users connecting to the webpage use anonymous authentication. Any ideas as to why I can only access the service when running from the dev server and not through the remotely hosted webpage are appreciated. If anything needs clarification, please ask.

    Read the article

  • Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a template class?

    - by John
    There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal.

    Read the article

  • Output columns not in destination table?

    - by lance
    SUMMARY: I need to use an OUTPUT clause on an INSERT statement to return columns which don't exist on the table into which I'm inserting. If I can avoid it, I don't want to add columns to the table to which I'm inserting. DETAILS: My FinishedDocument table has only one column. This is the table into which I'm inserting. FinishedDocument -- DocumentID My Document table has two columns. This is the table from which I need to return data. Document -- DocumentID -- Description The following inserts one row into FinishedDocument. Its OUTPUT clause returns the DocumentID which was inserted. This works, but it doesn't give me the Description of the inserted document. INSERT INTO FinishedDocument OUTPUT INSERTED.DocumentID SELECT DocumentID FROM Document WHERE DocumentID = @DocumentID I need to return from the Document table both the DocumentID and the Description of the matching document from the INSERT. What syntax do I need to pull this off? I'm thinking it's possible only with the one INSERT statement, by tweaking the OUTPUT clause (in a way I clearly don't understand)? Is there a smarter way that doesn't resemble the path I'm going down here? EDIT: SQL Server 2005

    Read the article

  • Combine Arbitrary number of polygons together

    - by Jakobud
    I have an arbitrary number of polygons (hexes in this case) that are arranged randomly, but they are all touching another hex. Each individual hex has 6 x,y vertices. The vertex's are known for all the hexes. Can anyone point me in the direction of an algorithm that will combine all the hexes into a single polygon? Essentially I'm just looking for a function that spits out an array of vertex locations that are ordered in a way that when drawing lines from one to the next, it forms the polygon. This is my method so far: Create array of all the vertices for all the hexes. Determine the number of times a vertex occurs in the array If vertex is in the array 3+ times, delete the vertices from the array. If vertex is in the array 2 times, delete one of them. The next step is tricky though. I'm using canvas to draw out these polygons, which essentially involves drawing a line from one vertex to the next. So the order of the vertices in the final array is important. It can't be sorted arbitrarily. Also, I'm not looking for a "convex hull" algorithm, as that would not draw the polygon correctly. Are there any functions out there that do something like this? Am I on the right track or is there a better more efficient way?

    Read the article

  • using threads in menu options

    - by vbNewbie
    I have an app that has a console menu with 2/3 selections. One process involves uploading a file and performing a lengthy search process on its contents, whilst another process involves SQL queries and is an interactive process with the user. I wish to use threads to allow one process to run and the menu to offer the option for the second process to run. However you cannot run the first process twice. I have created threads and corrected some compilation errors but the threading options are not working correctly. Any help appreciated. main... Dim tm As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf loadFile) Dim ts As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf reports) .... While Not response.Equals("3") Try Console.Write("Enter choice: ") response = Console.ReadLine() Console.WriteLine() If response.Equals("1") Then Console.WriteLine("Thread 1 doing work") tm.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA) tm.IsBackground = True tm.Start() response = String.Empty ElseIf response.Equals("2") Then Console.WriteLine("Starting a second Thread") ts.Start() response = String.Empty End If ts.Join() tm.Join() Catch ex As Exception errormessage = ex.Message End Try End While I realize that a form based will be easier to implement with perhaps just calling different forms to handle the processes.But I really dont have that option now since the console app will be added to api later. But here are my two processes from the menu functions. Also not sure what to do with the boolean variabel again as suggested below. Private Sub LoadFile() Dim dialog As New OpenFileDialog Dim response1 As String = Nothing Dim filepath As String = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.MyDocuments) dialog.InitialDirectory = filepath If dialog.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then fileName = dialog.FileName ElseIf DialogResult.Cancel Then Exit Sub End If Console.ResetColor() Console.Write("Begin Search -- Discovery Search, y or n? ") response1 = Console.ReadLine() If response1 = "y" Then Search() ElseIf response1 = "n" Then Console.Clear() main() End If isRunning = False End Sub and the second one Private Shared Sub report() Dim rptGen As New SearchBlogDiscovery.rptGeneration Console.WriteLine("Tread Process started") rptGen.main() Console.WriteLine("Thread Process ended") isRunning = False End Sub

    Read the article

  • Will TFS 2010 support non-contiguous merging?

    - by steve_d
    I know that merging non-contiguous changesets at once may not be a good idea. However there is at least one situation in which merging non-contiguous changesets is (probably) not going to break anything: when there are no intervening changes on the affected individual files. (At least, it wouldn't break any worse than would a series of cherry-picked merges, checked in each time; and at least this way you would discover breakage before checking in). For instance, let's say you have a Main and a Development branch. They start out identical (e.g. after a release). They have two files, foo.cs and bar.cs. Alice makes a change in Development\foo.cs and checks it in as changeset #1001. Bob makes a change in Development\bar.cs and checks it in as #1002. Alice makes another change to Development\foo.cs and checks it in as #1003. Now we could in theory merge both changes #1001 and #1003 from dev-to main in a single operation. If we try to merge at the branch level, dev-to-main, we will have to do it as two operations. In this simple, contrived example it's simple enough to merge the one file - but in the real world where there would be many files involved, it's not so simple. Non-contiguous merging is one of the reasons given for why "merge by workitem" is not implemented in TFS.

    Read the article

  • Why is a DataViewManager not sorting?

    - by Alarion
    First off, a quick rundown of what the code is doing. I have two tables: Companies and Clients. There is a one to many relationship between Companies and Clients (one company can have many clients). In some processing logic, I have both tables loaded into a DataSet - each are DataTables. I have added a DataRelation to set the relationship, and it works when I use GetChildRows on a record from the Companies table. However, I need to sort the records returned. After googling around some it looks like the DataViewManager is the way to go, and I have examined several basic examples. However, I cannot get my rows sorted. Am I missing something, or am I not using this how it is supposed to be used? Example code: Dim ldvmManager As New DataViewManager(mdsData) ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Sort = "comName ASC" ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").ApplyDefaultSort = False ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").Sort = "entLastName ASC, entFirstName ASC" For Each mdrCurrentCompany in ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Table.Rows Dim ldrClients() as DataRow = mdrCurrentCompany.GetChildRows("CompaniesClients") Next No matter what I do, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with a 'B' and the second has one that starts with a 'A'. From there, the order is all mixed up. If I use my entire data instead of the subset I was using to test with, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with 'J'. It seems like it is still using whatever default sort was being used before I tried to use the DataViewManager. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

    Read the article

  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • When to use reinterpret_cast?

    - by HeretoLearn
    I am little confused with the applicability of reinterpret_cast vs static_cast. From what I have read the general rules are to use static cast when the types can be interpreted at compile time hence the word static. This is the cast the C++ compiler uses internally for implicit casts also. reinterpret_cast are applicable in two scenarios, convert integer types to pointer types and vice versa or to convert one pointer type to another. The general idea I get is this is unportable and should be avoided. Where I am a little confused is one usage which I need, I am calling C++ from C and the C code needs to hold on to the C++ object so basically it holds a void*. What cast should be used to convert between the void * and the Class type? I have seen usage of both static_cast and reinterpret_cast? Though from what I have been reading it appears static is better as the cast can happen at compile time? Though it says to use reinterpret_cast to convert from one pointer type to another?

    Read the article

  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

    Read the article

  • Is method reference caching a good idea in Java 8?

    - by gexicide
    Consider I have code like the following: class Foo { Y func(X x) {...} void doSomethingWithAFunc(Function<X,Y> f){...} void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(this::func); } } Consider that hotFunction is called very often. Would it then be advisable to cache this::func, maybe like this: class Foo { Function<X,Y> f = this::func; ... void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(f); } } As far as my understanding of java method references goes, the Virtual Machine creates an object of an anonymous class when a method reference is used. Thus, caching the reference would create that object only once while the first approach creates it on each function call. Is this correct? Should method references that appear at hot positions in the code be cached or is the VM able to optimize this and make the caching superfluous? Is there a general best practice about this or is this highly VM-implemenation specific whether such caching is of any use?

    Read the article

  • Trouble using 'eval' to define a toplevel function when called from within an object.

    - by mschaef
    I've written (in JavaScript) an interactive read-eval-print-loop that is encapsulated within an object. However, I recently noticed that toplevel function definitions specified to the interpreter do not appear to be 'remembered' by the interpreter. After some diagnostic work, I've reduced the core problem to this: var evaler = { eval: function (str) { return eval(str); }, }; eval("function t1() { return 1; }"); // GOOD evaler.eval("function t2() { return 2; }"); // FAIL After running this script, I have a definition for t1, and no defintion for t2. The act of calling eval from within evaler is sufficiently different from the toplevel call that the global definition does not get recorded. What does happen is that the call to evaler.eval returns a function object, so I'm presuming that t2 is being defined and stored in some other set of bindings that I don't have access to. (It's not defined as a member in evaler.) Is there any easy fix for this? I've tried all sorts of fixes, and haven't stumbled upon one that works. (Most of what I've done has centered around putting the call to eval in an anonymous function, and altering the way that's called, chainging __parent__, etc.) Any thoughts on how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Setting Image.Source doesn't update when loading from a resource.

    - by ChrisF
    I've got this definition in my XAML: <Image Name="AlbumArt" Source="/AlbumChooser2;component/Resources/help.png" /> The image is display OK on startup. In my code I'm looking for mp3's to play and I display the associated album art in this Image. Now if there's no associated image I want to display a "no image" image. So I've got one defined and I load it using: BitmapImage noImage = new BitmapImage( new Uri("/AlbumChooser2;component/Resources/no_image.png", UriKind.Relative)); I've got a helper class that finds the image if there is one (returning it as a BitmapImage), or returns null if there isn't one: if (findImage.Image != null) { this.AlbumArt.Source = findImage.Image; // This works } else { this.AlbumArt.Source = noImage; // This doesn't work } In the case where an image is found the source is updated and the album art gets displayed. In the case where an image isn't found I don't get anything displayed - just a blank. I don't think that it's the setting of AlbumArt.Source that's wrong, but the loading of the BitmapImage. If I use a different image it works, but if I recreate the image it doesn't work. What could be wrong with the image?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >