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  • Qt Serial Port Errors - Data not getting read

    - by user2970546
    I'm trying to read a serial port with the Qt SerialPort library. I can read the data using HyperTerminal. In Qt I used the following code to try and do the same thing. Qt says the the port has been opened correctly, but for some reason, the bytesAvailable from the serial port is always 0. serial.setPortName("COM20"); if (serial.open(QIODevice::ReadOnly)) qDebug() << "Opened port " << endl; else qDebug() << "Unable to open port" << endl; serial.setDataBits(QSerialPort::Data8); serial.setParity(QSerialPort::EvenParity); serial.setBaudRate(QSerialPort::Baud115200); qDebug() << "Is open?? " << serial.isOpen(); // Wait unit serial port data is ready while (!serial.bytesAvailable()) { //qDebug() << serial.bytesAvailable()<<endl; continue; } QByteArray data = serial.read(100); qDebug() << "This is the data -" << data << endl; serial.close(); In comparison, MATLAB code with the same structure as the above code, successfully manages to read the serial port data %Serial Port Grapher - Shurjo Banerjee s = serial('COM20'); s.BaudRate = 460800; s.Parity = 'even'; try input('Ready to begin?'); catch end fopen(s); fh = figure(); hold on; t = 1; while (s.BytesAvailable <= 0) continue end a = fread(s, 1) old_t = 1; old_a = a; while true if (s.BytesAvailable > 0) a = fread(s, 1) figure(fh) t = t + 1; plot([old_t t], [old_a a]); old_t = t; old_a = a; end end fclose(s);

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  • UITableViewCells appear behind backgroundView

    - by Khanzor
    I am having a problem setting the background of UITableView to a UIImageView (see below for why I am doing this), once the view is set, it works fine, and scrolls with the UITableView, but it hides the elements of the Table View. I need to have a UIImageView as the background for a UITableView. I know this has been answered before, but the answers are to use: [UIColor colorWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; Or something like (which I need to use): UIImageView *background = [MainWindow generateBackgroundWithFrame:tableView.bounds]; [tableView addSubview:background]; [tableView sendSubviewToBack:background]; The reason I need to use the latter is because of my generateBackgroundWithFrame method, which takes a large image, and draws a border around that image to the dimensions specified, and clips the remainder of the image: + (UIImageView *) generateBackgroundWithFrame: (CGRect)frame { UIImageView *background = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; background.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"globalBackground.png"]; [background.layer setMasksToBounds:YES]; [background.layer setCornerRadius:10.0]; [background.layer setBorderColor:[[UIColor grayColor] CGColor]]; [background.layer setBorderWidth:3.0]; return background; } Please note: I understand that this might poorly effect performance, but I don't have the resources to go through and make those images for each potential screen in the app. Please do not answer this question with a mindless "you shouldn't do this" response. I am aware that it is possibly the wrong thing to do. How do I show my UITableView control elements? Is there something that I am doing wrong in my delegate? Here is a simplified version: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(20, 20, 261, 45) reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; UIImage *rowBackground; NSString *imageName = @"standAloneTVButton.png"; rowBackground = [UIImage imageNamed:imageName]; UITextView *textView = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 5, 300, 200)]; textView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; textView.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; textView.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:18.0f]; Purchase *purchase = [[PurchaseModel productsPurchased] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; textView.text = [purchase Title]; selectedTextView.text = textView.text; UIImageView *normalBackground = [[[UIImageView alloc] init] autorelease]; normalBackground.image = rowBackground; [normalBackground insertSubview:textView atIndex:0]; cell.backgroundView = normalBackground; [textView release]; } return cell; }

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  • Sending large serialized objects over sockets is failing only when trying to grow the byte Array, bu

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I have code where I am trying to grow the byte array while receiving the data over my socket. This is erroring out. public bool ReceiveObject2(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; byte[] byArrAll = new byte[0]; bool bAllBytesRead = false; int iRecLoop = 0; // grow the byte array to match the size of the object, so we can put whatever we // like through the socket as long as the object serialises and is binary formatted while (!bAllBytesRead) { if (m_socClient.Receive(buffer) > 0) { byArrAll = Combine(byArrAll, buffer); iRecLoop++; } else { m_socClient.Close(); bAllBytesRead = true; } } MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException se) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + se.Source + "Error : " + se.Message; return false; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } private byte[] Combine(byte[] first, byte[] second) { byte[] ret = new byte[first.Length + second.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(first, 0, ret, 0, first.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(second, 0, ret, first.Length, second.Length); return ret; } Error: mscorlibError : The input stream is not a valid binary format. The starting contents (in bytes) are: 68-61-73-43-68-61-6E-67-65-73-3D-22-69-6E-73-65-72 ... Yet when I just cheat and use a MASSIVE buffer size its fine. public bool ReceiveObject(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[5000000]; m_socClient.Receive(buffer); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } This is really killing me. I don't know why its not working. I have lifted the Combine from a suggestion on here too, so I am pretty sure this is not doing the wrong thing? I hope someone can point out where I am going wrong

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  • Can't Set Crystal Report Selection Formula Programatically

    - by eidylon
    Hello all, first, I can't stand Crystal! Okay, that's off my chest... Now, we have an old VB6 app we maintain for a client, which uses the Crystal Automation library to programatically change the record selection formulas in a bunch of Crystal Reports 8.5 reports. There are two reports which are ALMOST identical. I had to change them recently to add another field from another table. When I added the table in to the reports though, while it added it in the visual designer, it did not add it in the FROM clause of the SQL statement. So, I manually edited the SQL statement to add in the additional join. KO, works great. If i run the reports in Crystal preview mode, they work exactly as expected. Now, the users went to test the changes from within the VB app. One of the reports works fine and dandy. The other report however, is failing to set the selection formula as expected. The code sets the selection formulas using the function PESetSelectionFormula. I verified that the string being passed in to the function as the new selection formula is correct via a step-through examination of the variables. The call to PESetSelectionFormula seems to be working okay, and is returning a value of 1, which as near as I can find anywhere indicates success. (The other report, which is working fine from code is also returning 1.) However, the report is failing with an error: Error Code: 534 - Error detected by database DLL. The code, for debugging purposes dumps out the SQL string currently being used by the report. The SQL coming out of the report is: SELECT ... FROM ... WHERE ORDER BY ... As you can see, the WHERE clause is blank, which I would imagine is why the database DLL is upchucking on this statement. I don't understand why the automation library is not setting the WHERE clause even though the call to PESetSelectionFormula is being passed a valid string and is returning success. I thought perhaps it was because I had manually edited the SQL in the report to add the table it wasn't adding, but I did the same thing in the other nearly identical report, and that one is working fine. Anyone have any ideas why PESetSelectionFormula might report success but not actually do anything? P.S. I have already tried doing a Database Verify Database from the menus, and that said the report was all up to date and did not help at all.

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  • Project References DLL version hell

    - by Mr Shoubs
    We're having problems getting visual studio to pick up the latest version of a DLL from one of our projects. We have multiple class library projects (e.g. BusinessLogic, ReportData) and a number of web services, each has a reference to a Connectivity DLL we've written (this ref to the connectivity DLL is the problem). We always point references to the DLL in the bin/debug folder, (which is where we always build to for any given project) and all custom DLL references have CopyLocal = True and SpecificVersion = False ReportData has a reference to business logic (which also has a reference to connectivity - I don't see why this should cause a problem, but thought it is worth mentioning) The weird thing is, when you click "Add Reference" and browse to Connectivity/bin/debug - you hover the mouse over the DLL file, the correct (latest) version is shown (version and file version are always incremented together), but when you click ok, a previous version number is pulled though. Even when I look in the current projects debug folder (where copy local would put the DLL after compiling) that shows the latest version number. - NO WHERE does can I find the previous version of the DLL outside of visual studio, but in that project references it has the old version - even though the path is correct. I'm at a loss as to where it might be getting the old versions from. Or even why it wants that one. This is possibly the most frustraighting problem I have ever come across. Does anyone know how to ensure the latest version is pulled through (preferably automatically or on compile). EDIT: Although not exactly the scenario I'm dealing with I was reading this article and somewhere it mentions about CLR ignoring revision numbers. Understandable (even though this hasn't been a problem before - we're on revision 39), so I thought I would update the build number, still didn't work. In a vain attempt I though I would update the minor version number and see if that made any difference. I'm not saying this is the answer as I have to check quite a few things first, but on the face of it, this seems to have solved my problem... Further edit: In other class libraries this seems to have solved the problem, however in a test windows application it still pulls a previous version through :( If I increment the minor version number again, the same problem come back and I am left with the wrong version being pulled though. Further Edit - I created an entirly new project, added a reference and still had the exact same problem. This suggests the problem is restriced to the project I am referencing. Wish I knew why! Anyone had this problem before and know how to get around it? HELP!

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  • Crazy VS Designer Errors

    - by BlueRaja
    Here's a strange one. After renaming a class, one of my forms began giving me errors in the designer, refusing to open. Funny thing is, the form worked just fine when I ran the program. I began reverting my changes to deduce the problem. I have now reverted completely back to the last commit - in which I know the form was working in the designer - cleaned the solution, and deleted the bin/ and obj/ folders, as well as the *.suo file for good measure. The form still does not display in designer. Here are the errors it gives: Could not find 'MyNamespace.MyControl'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built. The variable 'myControl1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. The variable is both declared and assigned, and MyControl builds fine (again, the form works fine when the program is actually run). Stranger still, if I try to create a new form and drag a MyControl onto it, I get this Entity-Framework error: Failed to create component 'MyControl'. The error message follows: 'System.ArgumentException: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.ChangeConnectionString(String newConnectionString) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContect.CreateEntityConnection(String connectionString) etc. etc. There is nothing wrong with my connection string: it worked before, and, again, it works when I actually run the program (the control already exists on the old form from the previous commit). Any ideas whatsoever? I am completely at a loss. [Edit] The only significant code: MyControl.cs public MyControl() { _entities = new MyEFEntities(); //Entity-framework generated class } MyForm.Designer.cs private void InitializeComponent() { this.myControl1 = new MyNamespace.MyControl(); ... this.Controls.Add(this.myControl1); } MyEFDatabase.Designer.cs public MyEFEntities() : base("name=MyEFEntities", "MyEFEntities") { ... } App.Config <connectionStrings> <add name="MyEFEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/MyEFDatabase.csdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.ssdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MyDatabaseServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> I've tried the "replace &quot; with '" trick - didn't help. [Edit2] It is happening to new projects also, but not immediately. Only after fiddling around a bit (it has something to do with adding a many-to-one relationship that EF did not figure out on its own), but I can't figure out the exact steps to reproduce.

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  • Workflows not starting after fresh install

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I just installed Dynamics CRM 4.0. It is working nicely except for workflows. They won't start. I turned on tracing and it appears that there is an IO error. The server is setup with IFD and SSL. No issues accessing it internally or externally. Here is the trace: # CRM Tracing Version 2.0 # LocalTime: 2010-06-08 11:34:58.2 # Categories: # CallStackOn: No # ComputerName: FOX-CRM1 # CRMVersion: 4.0.7333.2741 # DeploymentType: OnPremise # ScaleGroup: # ServerRole: AppServer, AsyncService, DiscoveryService, WebService, ApiServer, HelpServer, DeploymentService [2010-06-08 11:34:58.2] Process:CrmAsyncService |Organization:821a137e-7191-49a4-86cc-69101e2b6d20 |Thread: 24 |Category: Platform.Async |User: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000 |Level: Error | AsyncOperationCommand.Execute >Exception while trying to execute AsyncOperationId: {DF68F483-2C73-DF11-9A34-18A9053B7B38} AsyncOperationType: 1 - System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. ---> System.IO.IOException: The handshake failed due to an unexpected packet format. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReadFrame(Byte[] buffer, Int32 readBytes, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReceiveBlob(Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.CheckCompletionBeforeNextReceive(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendBlob(Byte[] incoming, Int32 count, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ForceAuthentication(Boolean receiveFirst, Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.TlsStream.CallProcessAuthentication(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.TlsStream.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult result) at System.Net.TlsStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.PooledStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.ConnectStream.WriteHeaders(Boolean async) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HttpWebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at Microsoft.Crm.SdkTypeProxy.CrmService.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkTypeProxyCrmServiceWrapper.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkPluginDescriptionProvider.GetPluginTypeDescription(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCacheLoader.LoadCacheData(Guid key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmMultiOrgCache`2.CreateEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmSharedMultiOrgCache`2.LookupEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCache.LookupEntry(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.GetPluginType(Guid pluginTypeId) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.EventOperation.InternalExecute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.Execute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) The only thing I've tried to to update the AsyncSdkRootDomain row in the Deployment table to match the ADSdkRootDomain and the ADApplicationRootDomain values. It was blank. That didn't appear to work. After some more research, I think this might be caused because the Asynch service can't access the SDK web services using SSL. If this is correct, how would one configure a CRM server for secure access, internal and external (IFD) and still allow asynch service to hit web site? Thanks for your help!

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  • Variables are "lost" somewhere, then reappear... all with no error thrown.

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hi All, I'm probably going to make myself look like a fool with my horrible scripting but here we go. I have a form that I am collecting a bunch of checkbox info from using a binary method. ON/SET=1 !ISSET=0 Anyway, all seems to be going as planned except for the query bit. When I run the script, it runs through and throws no errors, but it's not doing what I think I am telling it to. I've hard coded the values in the query and left them in the script and it DOES update the DB. I've also tried echoing all the needed variables after the script runs and exiting right after so I can audit them... and they're all there. Here's an example. ####FEATURES RECORD UPDATE ### HERE I DECIDE TO RUN THE SCRIPT BASED ON WHETHER AN IMAGE BUTTON WAS USED if (isset($_POST["button_x"])) { ### HERE I AM ASSIGNING 1 OR 0 TO A VAR BASED ON WHTER THE CHECKBOX WAS SET if (isset($_POST["pool"])) $pool=1; if (!isset($_POST["pool"])) $pool=0; if (isset($_POST["darts"])) $darts=1; if (!isset($_POST["darts"])) $darts=0; if (isset($_POST["karaoke"])) $karaoke=1; if (!isset($_POST["karaoke"])) $karaoke=0; if (isset($_POST["trivia"])) $trivia=1; if (!isset($_POST["trivia"])) $trivia=0; if (isset($_POST["wii"])) $wii=1; if (!isset($_POST["wii"])) $wii=0; if (isset($_POST["guitarhero"])) $guitarhero=1; if (!isset($_POST["guitarhero"])) $guitarhero=0; if (isset($_POST["megatouch"])) $megatouch=1; if (!isset($_POST["megatouch"])) $megatouch=0; if (isset($_POST["arcade"])) $arcade=1; if (!isset($_POST["arcade"])) $arcade=0; if (isset($_POST["jukebox"])) $jukebox=1; if (!isset($_POST["jukebox"])) $jukebox=0; if (isset($_POST["dancefloor"])) $dancefloor=1; if (!isset($_POST["dancefloor"])) $dancefloor=0; ### I'VE DONE LOADS OF PERMUTATIONS HERE... HARD SET THE 1/0 VARS AND LEFT THE $estab_id TO BE PICKED UP. SET THE $estab_id AND LEFT THE COLUMN DATA TO BE PICKED UP. ALL NO GOOD. IT _DOES_ WORK IF I HARD SET ALL VARS THOUGH mysql_query("UPDATE thedatabase SET pool_table='$pool', darts='$darts', karoke='$karaoke', trivia='$trivia', wii='$wii', megatouch='$megatouch', guitar_hero='$guitarhero', arcade_games='$arcade', dancefloor='$dancefloor' WHERE establishment_id='22'"); ###WEIRD THING HERE IS IF I ECHO THE VARS AT THIS POINT AND THEN EXIT(); they all show up as intended. header("location:theadminfilething.php"); exit(); THANKS ALL!!!

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  • When is it worth using a BindingSource?

    - by Justin
    I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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  • Unable to cast lists with Reflection in C#

    - by DrLazer
    I am having a lot of trouble with Reflection in C# at the moment. The app I am writing allows the user to modify the attributes of certain objects using a config file. I want to be able to save the object model (users project) to XML. The function below is called in the middle of a foreach loop, looping through a list of objects that contain all the other objects in the project within them. The idea is, that it works recursively to translate the object model into XML. Dont worry about the call to "Unreal" that just modifes the name of the objects slightly if they contain certain words. private void ReflectToXML(object anObject, XmlElement parentElement) { Type aType = anObject.GetType(); XmlElement anXmlElement = m_xml.CreateElement(Unreal(aType.Name)); parentElement.AppendChild(anXmlElement); PropertyInfo[] pinfos = aType.GetProperties(); //loop through this objects public attributes foreach (PropertyInfo aInfo in pinfos) { //if the attribute is a list Type propertyType = aInfo.PropertyType; if ((propertyType.IsGenericType)&&(propertyType.GetGenericTypeDefinition() == typeof(List<>))) { List<object> listObjects = (aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null) as List<object>); foreach (object aListObject in listObjects) { ReflectToXML(aListObject, anXmlElement); } } //attribute is not a list else anXmlElement.SetAttribute(aInfo.Name, ""); } } If an object attributes are just strings then it should be writing them out as string attributes in the XML. If an objects attributes are lists, then it should recursively call "ReflectToXML" passing itself in as a parameter, thereby creating the nested structure I require that nicely reflect the object model in memory. The problem I have is with the line List<object> listObjects = (aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null) as List<object>); The cast doesn't work and it just returns null. While debugging I changed the line to object temp = aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null); slapped a breakpoint on it to see what "GetValue" was returning. It returns a "Generic list of objects" Surely I should be able to cast that? The annoying thing is that temp becomes a generic list of objects but because i declared temp as a singular object, I can't loop through it because it has no Enumerator. How can I loop through a list of objects when I only have it as a propertyInfo of a class? I know at this point I will only be saving a list of empty strings out anyway, but thats fine. I would be happy to see the structure save out for now. Thanks in advance

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  • Asynchronous subprocess on Windows

    - by Stigma
    First of all, the overall problem I am solving is a bit more complicated than I am showing here, so please do not tell me 'use threads with blocking' as it would not solve my actual situation without a fair, FAIR bit of rewriting and refactoring. I have several applications which are not mine to modify, which take data from stdin and poop it out on stdout after doing their magic. My task is to chain several of these programs. Problem is, sometimes they choke, and as such I need to track their progress which is outputted on STDERR. pA = subprocess.Popen(CommandA, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) # ... some more processes make up the chain, but that is irrelevant to the problem pB = subprocess.Popen(CommandB, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, stdin=pA.stdout ) Now, reading directly through pA.stdout.readline() and pB.stdout.readline(), or the plain read() functions, is a blocking matter. Since different applications output in different paces and different formats, blocking is not an option. (And as I wrote above, threading is not an option unless at a last, last resort.) pA.communicate() is deadlock safe, but since I need the information live, that is not an option either. Thus google brought me to this asynchronous subprocess snippet on ActiveState. All good at first, until I implement it. Comparing the cmd.exe output of pA.exe | pB.exe, ignoring the fact both output to the same window making for a mess, I see very instantaneous updates. However, I implement the same thing using the above snippet and the read_some() function declared there, and it takes over 10 seconds to notify updates of a single pipe. But when it does, it has updates leading all the way upto 40% progress, for example. Thus I do some more research, and see numerous subjects concerning PeekNamedPipe, anonymous handles, and returning 0 bytes available even though there is information available in the pipe. As the subject has proven quite a bit beyond my expertise to fix or code around, I come to Stack Overflow to look for guidance. :) My platform is W7 64-bit with Python 2.6, the applications are 32-bit in case it matters, and compatibility with Unix is not a concern. I can even deal with a full ctypes or pywin32 solution that subverts subprocess entirely if it is the only solution, as long as I can read from every stderr pipe asynchronously with immediate performance and no deadlocks. :)

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  • Fluent | Nhibernate multiple inheritance mapping?

    - by Broken Pipe
    I'm trying to map this classes: public interface IBusinessObject { Guid Id { get; set; } } public class Product { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual int ProductTypeId { get; set; } } public class ProductWeSell : Product, IBusinessObject { } public class ProductWeDontSell : Product { } Using this Fluent mapping code: public class IBusinessObjectMap : ClassMap<IBusinessObject> { public IBusinessObjectMap() { Id(t => t.Id).GeneratedBy.Guid(); Table("BusinessObject"); } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(t => t.Id); DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ProductTypeId", "null").Nullable(); } } public class ProductWeSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeSell> { public ProductWeSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(1); KeyColumn("Id"); } } public class ProductWeDontSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeDontSell> { public ProductWeDontSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(2); KeyColumn("Id"); } } But I get {"Duplicate class/entity mapping ProductWeSell"} error. And if we take a look at generated HBM, indeed it's duplicated, but i have no idea how to write this mapping without duplicating it if it's possible at all. Produced hbm: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="IBusinessObject" table="BusinessObject"> <joined-subclass name="ProductWeSell" table="ProductWeSell"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" discriminator-value="null" name="Product" table="Product"> <discriminator type="String"> <column name="ProductTypeId" not-null="false" /> </discriminator> <subclass name="ProductWeDontSell" discriminator-value="2" /> <subclass name="ProductWeSell" discriminator-value="1" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So far I was unable to figure out how to map this using fluent Nhibernate (i haven't tried mapping this using hmb files). Any help appreciated Fluent or HBM files. The thing I'm trying to solve look identical to this topic: NHibernate inheritance mapping question

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  • Flex: Create custom stroke on LineSeries?

    - by John Isaacks
    You can easily set a stroke on a line series like this: <mx:LineSeries yField="apple"> <mx:lineStroke> <mx:Stroke color="0x6699FF" weight="4" alpha=".8" /> </mx:lineStroke> </mx:LineSeries> This will set alpha for the entire stroke to .8 But I want to be able to set a different alpha on the stoke for each plot based on something in the dataProvider. For example the yField in the lineSeries is "Apple" which is how it knows where to plot for the lineSeries. I want to be able to add something like alphaField which tells it what to set the stroke alpha for each plot. so if my dataProvider was: <result month="Jan-04"> <apple>81768</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Feb-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Mar-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>.5</alpha> </result> And I set alphaField="alpha" then I would have a solid stroke from plot 0 to plot 1 and then a 50% alpha stroke from plot 1 to plot 2. How can I do this??? I am looking in the commitProperties() and updateDisplayList() methods of LineSeries and have no idea what would need to be added/changed to make this? I am pretty sure, this class has to use Graphics.lineTo() to draw each plot, so basically it would need to "get" the current alphaField value somehow, and apply a Graphics.lineStyle() with the correct alpha before drawing each line. Thanks!! UPDATE I have gotten much closer to my answer. When I extend LineRenderer I override updateDisplayList() which calls GraphicsUtilities.drawPolyLine() I extend GraphicsUtilities and override the method drawPolyLine() as this is where the line is actually drawn. I can call lineStyle() in here and change the alpha of the line... I still have 1 thing I cannot figure out, from within the drawPolyLine() method how can I access that data that dictates what the alpha should be? Thanks!!!!

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  • SVN: Create a dump file of a folder

    - by DarkJaff
    I'm trying to create a dump file of a folder in my SVN repository.(My goal is to import this dump on another repository, but that's another story). I've read like 20 pages about this and they all tell me to use svndumpfilter but I can't seem to make it work. Here is my command: C:\>svnadmin dump d:/SvnData/TestingSVN/ | svndumpfilter include /TestingSVN/Trunk/Fms/ > d:\FMS.txt The output in the command line is this strange thing: Including prefixes: '/TestingSVN/Trunk/Fms' * Dumped revision 0. Revision 0 com*m iDtutmepde da sr e0v.isi n 1. Revision 1 committed as 1. * Dumped revision 2. Revision 2 committed a*s D2u.mpe revision 3. Revisio*n D3u mcpoemdm irtetveids iaosn 34.. Revision* 4D ucmopmemdi trteevdi saiso n4 .5. Revision 5 com*m iDtutmepde da sr e5v.isi n 6. Revision 6 commi*t tDeudm paesd 6r.evi ion 7. Revisio*n D7u mcpoemdm irtetveids iaosn 78.. Revision *8 Dcuommpmeidt treedv iassi o8n. 9. Revision 9* cDoummmpietdt erde vaiss i9o.n 1 . Revisi*o nD u1m0p ecdo mrmeivtitseido na s1 11.0 . Revision 11 *c oDmummiptetde dr eavsi s1i1o.n 1 . Revision 12 committed* aDsu m1p2e.d r vision 13. Revision 13 committ*e dD uamsp e1d3 .rev sion 14. Revision 14 commit*t eDdu mapse d1 4r.evi ion 15. Revision 15 committed as 15. * Dumped revision 16. Revision 16 committed as 16. Dropped 83 nodes: '/Branches' '/Branches/305' '/Branches/305/New Text Document.txt' '/Fms' '/Fms/ADPropertySheet.cpp'** etc. for 83 nodes... Also, the dump file itself is only 3 kb and contain no real data, only things like that (this is not the complete dump, just a sample) SVN-fs-dump-format-version: 2 UUID: 592fc9f0-5994-e841-a4dc-653714c95216 Revision-number: 0 Prop-content-length: 56 Content-length: 56 K 8 svn:date V 27 2009-06-19T15:05:52.001352Z PROPS-END Revision-number: 1 Prop-content-length: 112 Content-length: 112 K 7 svn:log V 38 This is an empty revision for padding. K 8 svn:date V 27 2009-06-19T15:11:29.378511Z PROPS-END Can anybody help me sort this out?

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  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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  • apache cxf: c error

    - by robinmag
    I tried to deploy the sample application from this tutorial: http://united-coders.com/phillip-steffensen/developing-a-simple-soap-webservice-using-spring-30-apache-cxf-226-and-maven-2 In eclipse everything works fine, but i went to troubles when deploying the service. The cxf-java2ws-plugin throws a ClassNotFoundException for org.springframework.core.NestedRuntimeException. Here is my maven pom build plugin (copy from the example) <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-java2ws-plugin</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-rt-frontend-jaxws</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-rt-frontend-simple</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> </dependency> </dependencies> <executions> <execution> <id>process-classes</id> <phase>process-classes</phase> <configuration> <className>vn.vdconline.ws.sso.PersonService</className> <genWsdl>true</genWsdl> <verbose>true</verbose> </configuration> <goals> <goal>java2ws</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Please tell me if i missed any thing. Thank you!

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  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

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  • What is "Either the application has not called WSAStartup, or WSAStartup failed"

    - by Am1rr3zA
    I develop a program which connect to a web-server through network every thing works fine until I try to use some dongle to protect my software. the dongle has network feature too and it's API work under network infrastructure. when I added the Dongle checking code to my program I got this error: "Either the application has not called WSAStartup, or WSAStartup failed" I don't have any idea what is going on? I put the block of code which encounter exception here. the scenario I got the exception is I log in to the program (everything works fine) the plug out the dongle then the program stop and ask for dongle and I plug in the dongle again and try to log in bu I got exception on line response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); DongleService unikey = new DongleService(); checkDongle = unikey.isConnectedNow(); if (checkDongle) { isPass = true; this.username = txtbxUser.Text; this.pass = txtbxPass.Text; this.IP = combobxServer.Text; string uri = @"https://" + combobxServer.Text + ":5002num_events=1"; request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri); request.Proxy = null; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(this.username, this.pass); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = ((sender, certificate, chain, sslPolicyErrors) => true); response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); Properties.Settings.Default.User = txtbxUser.Text; int index = _servers.FindIndex(p => p == combobxServer.Text); if (index == -1) { _servers.Add(combobxServer.Text); Config_Save.SaveServers(_servers); _servers = Config_Save.LoadServers(); } Properties.Settings.Default.Server = combobxServer.Text; // also save the password if (checkBox1.CheckState.ToString() == "Checked") Properties.Settings.Default.Pass = txtbxPass.Text; Properties.Settings.Default.settingLoginUsername = this.username; Properties.Settings.Default.settingLoginPassword = this.pass; Properties.Settings.Default.settingLoginPort = "5002"; Properties.Settings.Default.settingLoginIP = this.IP; Properties.Settings.Default.isLogin = "guest"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); response.Close(); request.Abort(); this.isPass = true; this.Close(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Please Insert Correct Dongle!", "Dongle Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Stop); }

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  • DevExpress Reporting Session Issue

    - by LeeHull
    This is pretty complicated so I will explain what is going on. I have created an ASP.NET website for displaying images, the way we use our images is, we have a database table that contains the URL where the images are located, however we recently started moving them from the filesystem, and storing them directly into the database as binary, but since we don't want to break older applications, we currently store them both places till they are all updated. Alright, the website I'm working on, is just a reporting website to display images by a date range, I have created an HTTPHandler to display the image, depending if they exist in the database as binary, if the row is DBNull, I just grab the URL from the other table instead, I just read the image, convert it into a byte[] and write it to the response, so it is interpreted as an image. I have created a page to display the report using DevExpress Reporting, I just query the report, save the dataset into a session, and the report reads the session to bind the report, i also have a picturebox in the report bound to "Handler.ashx?id=ImageID", this is because I am not binding a URL to the image, since it is a byte[] Also since there could be a report with 10000+ images, I am reading the dataset from the session inside the handler and just pulling out the image from the passed in ImageID, I am doing this to prevent connecting to the database each and every row. Now the strange thing is, Report loads fine.. data is loading, I have paging on the devexpress report viewer, it is loading the images fine, however here is the issue. When I print or export, I am not getting any images, I am debugged and found out the Session.Count is 0 when it tries to print or export, which is strange since there is more than just the dataset in the session. I have also added IRequiresSessionState to allow sessions in the handler, but the session count is still 0, I have changing the Handler to an aspx page, same issue. Any ideas or suggestions on logic changes, I'm all ears.. this is a very difficult situation since I have to display the images from database as a string AND byte[] since one can be URL and other be the image bytes, but I also can't slam the database on connection calls each row either. I have also reported the issue to DevExpress and they are clueless as well, since they don't dispose the session in the exporting process.

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  • Collapsed Visibility Within a WPF ComboBoxItem

    - by user832747
    I used a Style setter to stretch out my ComboBoxItem (and button) so that it spans the entire length of the ComboBox like so: <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> This works fine. Now, I add an additional button within the same ComboBoxItem, but have it set to Visibility Collapsed. <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> <Button Content="My Collapsed Button" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> Now, the new button is invisible, but I expected my original button to still stretch the entire ComboBox, like it does with the above code. However, it does not. Why is this so? Is there a solution for this? I am using DataTriggers to edit the Visibility property. NOTE: I also get the same thing if I just set HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" in the ComboBox. UPDATE: Ok, this actually has something to do with the DockPanel. I changed it to a StackPanel, and it works as desired. However, I suppose I'm still curious as to why my first button would not stretch the entire DockPanel if the second button is collapsed?

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  • .NET MVC Ajax Form - How do you hide it?

    - by Tommy
    Ok, everything is 'functionally' working with what I am attempting to accomplish and once again, I am sure this is something dumb, but I cannot figure out how to do this one thing. I have an edit form for an entity, lets say a car. This 'car' can have 0 - many passengers. So on my edit form, I have all the fields for the car, then a list view showing each passenger (partial). I also have a 'add new passenger' button that will render a new partial view that allows you to enter a passenger. This has a cancel link and an add button to submit an Ajax form. When you add a passenger, the passenger is automatically added to the list, but I need the enter passenger form to go away. I have tried using the onSuccess and onComplete functions to hide the div that the form is in, but both render just the partial view HTML elements (white screen, text) and not the partialView in the context of the entire page. Sources: 1) Main Edit View <script type="text/javascript"> Function hideForm(){ document.getElementById('newPassenger').style.display = 'none'; } </script> <h2>Edit</h2> <%-- The following line works around an ASP.NET compiler warning --%> <%= ""%> <%Html.RenderPartial("EditCar", Model)%> <h2>Passengers for this car</h2> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Add New Passenger", "AddPassenger", New With {.ID = Model.carID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <div id="newPassenger"></div> <div id="passengerList"> <%Html.RenderPartial("passengerList", Model.Passengers)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> 2) AddPassenger View. The cancel link below is an action that returns nothing, thus removing the information in the div. <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("AddPassengerToCar", New With {.id = ViewData("carID")}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "passengerList", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <%=Html.DropDownList("Passengers")%> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Cancel", "CancelAddControl", _ New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%><% end using %>

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  • Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

    - by Dave
    Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

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  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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  • Mock static method Activator.CreateInstance to return a mock of another class

    - by Jeep87c
    I have this factory class and I want to test it correctly. Let's say I have an abstract class which have many child (inheritance). As you can see in my Factory class the method BuildChild, I want to be able to create an instance of a child class at Runtime. I must be able to create this instance during Runtime because the type won't be know before runtime. And, I can NOT use Unity for this project (if so, I would not ask how to achieve this). Here's my Factory class that I want to test: public class Factory { public AnAbstractClass BuildChild(Type childType, object parameter) { AnAbstractClass child = (AnAbstractClass) Activator.CreateInstance(childType); child.Initialize(parameter); return child; } } To test this, I want to find a way to Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return my own mocked object of a child class. How can I achieve this? Or maybe if you have a better way to do this without using Activator.CreateInstance (and Unity), I'm opened to it if it's easier to test and mock! I'm currently using Moq to create my mocks but since Activator.CreateInstance is a static method from a static class, I can't figure out how to do this (I already know that Moq can only create mock instances of objects). I took a look at Fakes from Microsoft but without success (I had some difficulties to understand how it works and to find some well explained examples). Please help me! EDIT: I need to mock Activator.CreateInstance because I want to force this method to return another mocked object. The correct thing I want is only to stub this method (not to mock it). So when I test BuildChild like this: [TestMethod] public void TestBuildChild() { var mockChildClass = new Mock(AChildClass); // TODO: Stub/Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return mockChildClass when called with "type" and "parameter" as follow. var type = typeof(AChildClass); var parameter = "A parameter"; var child = this._factory.BuildChild(type, parameters); } Activator.CreateInstance called with type and parameter will return my mocked object instead of creating a new instance of the real child class (not yet implemented).

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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