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  • EF4: ObjectContext inconsistent when inserting into a view with triggers

    - by user613567
    I get an Invalid Operation Exception when inserting records in a View that uses “Instead of” triggers in SQL Server with ADO.NET Entity Framework 4. The error message says: {"The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: The key-value pairs that define an EntityKey cannot be null or empty. Parameter name: record"} @ at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions options) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges() In this simplified example I created two tables, Contacts and Employers, and one view Contacts_x_Employers which allows me to insert or retrieve rows into/from these two tables at once. The Tables only have a Name and an ID attributes and the view is based on a join of both: CREATE VIEW [dbo].[Contacts_x_Employers] AS SELECT dbo.Contacts.ContactName, dbo.Employers.EmployerName FROM dbo.Contacts INNER JOIN dbo.Employers ON dbo.Contacts.EmployerID = dbo.Employers.EmployerID And has this trigger: Create TRIGGER C_x_E_Inserts ON Contacts_x_Employers INSTEAD of INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; insert into Employers (EmployerName) select i.EmployerName from inserted i where not i.EmployerName in (select EmployerName from Employers) insert into Contacts (ContactName, EmployerID) select i.ContactName, e.EmployerID from inserted i inner join employers e on i.EmployerName = e.EmployerName; END GO The .NET Code follows: using (var Context = new TriggersTestEntities()) { Contacts_x_Employers CE1 = new Contacts_x_Employers(); CE1.ContactName = "J"; CE1.EmployerName = "T"; Contacts_x_Employers CE2 = new Contacts_x_Employers(); CE1.ContactName = "W"; CE1.EmployerName = "C"; Context.Contacts_x_Employers.AddObject(CE1); Context.Contacts_x_Employers.AddObject(CE2); Context.SaveChanges(); //? line with error } SSDL and CSDL (the view nodes): <EntityType Name="Contacts_x_Employers"> <Key> <PropertyRef Name="ContactName" /> <PropertyRef Name="EmployerName" /> </Key> <Property Name="ContactName" Type="varchar" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" /> <Property Name="EmployerName" Type="varchar" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" /> </EntityType> <EntityType Name="Contacts_x_Employers"> <Key> <PropertyRef Name="ContactName" /> <PropertyRef Name="EmployerName" /> </Key> <Property Name="ContactName" Type="String" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" Unicode="false" FixedLength="false" /> <Property Name="EmployerName" Type="String" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" Unicode="false" FixedLength="false" /> </EntityType> The Visual Studio solution and the SQL Scripts to re-create the whole application can be found in the TestViewTrggers.zip at ftp://JulioSantos.com/files/TriggerBug/. I appreciate any assistance that can be provided. I already spent days working on this problem.

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  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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  • EF4 Import/Lookup thousands of records - my performance stinks!

    - by Dennis Ward
    I'm trying to setup something for a movie store website (using ASP.NET, EF4, SQL Server 2008), and in my scenario, I want to allow a "Member" store to import their catalog of movies stored in a text file containing ActorName, MovieTitle, and CatalogNumber as follows: Actor, Movie, CatalogNumber John Wayne, True Grit, 4577-12 (repeated for each record) This data will be used to lookup an actor and movie, and create a "MemberMovie" record, and my import speed is terrible if I import more than 100 or so records using these tables: Actor Table: Fields = {ID, Name, etc.} Movie Table: Fields = {ID, Title, ActorID, etc.} MemberMovie Table: Fields = {ID, CatalogNumber, MovieID, etc.} My methodology to import data into the MemberMovie table from a text file is as follows (after the file has been uploaded successfully): Create a context. For each line in the file, lookup the artist in the Actor table. For each Movie in the Artist table, lookup the matching title. If a matching Movie is found, add a new MemberMovie record to the context and call ctx.SaveChanges(). The performance of my implementation is terrible. My expectation is that this can be done with thousands of records in a few seconds (after the file has been uploaded), and I've got something that times out the browser. My question is this: What is the best approach for performing bulk lookups/inserts like this? Should I call SaveChanges only once rather than for each newly created MemberMovie? Would it be better to implement this using something like a stored procedure? A snippet of my loop is roughly this (edited for brevity): while ((fline = file.ReadLine()) != null) { string [] token = fline.Split(separator); string Actor = token[0]; string Movie = token[1]; string CatNumber = token[2]; Actor found_actor = ctx.Actors.Where(a => a.Name.Equals(actor)).FirstOrDefault(); if (found_actor == null) continue; Movie found_movie = found_actor.Movies.Where( s => s.Title.Equals(title, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)).FirstOrDefault(); if (found_movie == null) continue; ctx.MemberMovies.AddObject(new MemberMovie() { MemberProfileID = profile_id, CatalogNumber = CatNumber, Movie = found_movie }); try { ctx.SaveChanges(); } catch { } } Any help is appreciated! Thanks, Dennis

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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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  • Objective-c design advice for use of different data sources, swapping between test and live

    - by user200341
    I'm in the process of designing an application that is part of a larger piece of work, depending on other people to build an API that the app can make use of to retrieve data. While I was thinking about how to setup this project and design the architecture around it, something occurred to me, and I'm sure many people have been in similar situations. Since my work is depending on other people to complete their tasks, and a test server, this slows work down at my end. So the question is: What's the best practice for creating test repositories and classes, implementing them, and not having to depend on altering several places in the code to swap between the test classes and the actual repositories / proper api calls. Contemplate the following scenario: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [[GetDataFromApiCommand alloc]init]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; Once the data is available via the API, "GetDataFromApiCommand" could use the actual API, but until then a set of mock data could be returned upon the call of [getDataCommand getData] There might be multiple instances of this, in various places in the code, so replacing all of them wherever they are, is a slow and painful process which inevitably leads to one or two being overlooked. In strongly typed languages we could use dependency injection and just alter one place. In objective-c a factory pattern could be implemented, but is that the best route to go for this? GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [GetDataFromApiCommandFactory buildGetDataFromApiCommand]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; What is the best practices to achieve this result? Since this would be most useful, even if you have the actual API available, to run tests, or work off-line, the ApiCommands would not necessarily have to be replaced permanently, but the option to select "Do I want to use TestApiCommand or ApiCommand". It is more interesting to have the option to switch between: All commands are test and All command use the live API, rather than selecting them one by one, however that would also be useful to do for testing one or two actual API commands, mixing them with test data. EDIT The way I have chosen to go with this is to use the factory pattern. I set up the factory as follows: @implementation ApiCommandFactory + (ApiCommand *)newApiCommand { // return [[ApiCommand alloc]init]; return [[ApiCommandMock alloc]init]; } @end And anywhere I want to use the ApiCommand class: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [ApiCommandFactory newApiCommand]; When the actual API call is required, the comments can be removed and the mock can be commented out. Using new in the message name implies that who ever uses the factory to get an object, is responsible for releasing it (since we want to avoid autorelease on the iPhone). If additional parameters are required, the factory needs to take these into consideration i.e: [ApiCommandFactory newSecondApiCommand:@"param1"]; This will work quite well with repositories as well.

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  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • CoGetClassObject gives many First-chance exceptions in ATL project. Should I worry?

    - by Andrew
    Hello, I have written a COM object that in turn uses a thrid party ActiveX control. In my FinalConstruct() for my COM object, I instantiate the ActiveX control with the follow code: HRESULT hRes; LPCLASSFACTORY2 pClassFactory; hRes = CoInitializeEx(NULL,COINIT_APARTMENTTHREADED); bool bTest = SUCCEEDED(hRes); if (!bTest) return E_FAIL; if (SUCCEEDED(CoGetClassObject(__uuidof(SerialPortSniffer), CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, NULL, IID_IClassFactory2, (LPVOID *)(&pClassFactory)))) { ... more set up code When I step over the line if (SUCCEEDED(CoGetClassObject(__uuidof(SerialPortSniffer), ..., I get 20+ lines in the Output window stating: First-chance exception at 0x0523f82e in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation writing location 0x00000000. I also get the lines: First-chance exception at 0x051e3f3d in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC0000096: Privileged instruction. First-chance exception at 0x100ab9e6 in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC000001D: Illegal Instruction. Notice these are first-chance exceptions. The program runs as expected I can access the third party methods/properties. Still, I'm left wondering why they are occurring. Perhaps my way of instantiating the ActiveX control (for which I want use of it's methods/properties and not it's GUI stuff) is incorrect? Besides the code I'm showing, I also put the line import "spsax.dll" no_namespace in the stdafx.h That's all the code necessary for my simple demo project. I noticed this problem because I had (inadvertently) set the "break on exceptions" options in my "real" project and it was breaking on this line. Once I removed it, it also works. If you're read this far thank you, and perhaps I can ask one other minor question. In my demo project, if I right click on SerialPortSniffer and "go to definition", it takes me to the file C:....\AppData\Local\Temp\spsax.tlh. Can someone explain that? Finally, in my "real" project, right clicking on SerialPortSniffer and going to difinition leads to "The symbol 'SerialPortSniffer' is not defined". It doesn't seem to affect the program though. Is there some setting I've messed up? By the way, all my code is written w/ VS2008. Thanks, Dave

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  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

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  • Mysterious constraints problem with SQL Server 2000

    - by Ramon
    Hi all I'm getting the following error from a VB NET web application written in VS 2003, on framework 1.1. The web app is running on Windows Server 2000, IIS 5, and is reading from a SQL server 2000 database running on the same machine. System.Data.ConstraintException: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. at System.Data.DataSet.FailedEnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.EnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.set_EnforceConstraints(Boolean value) at System.Data.DataTable.EndLoadData() at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromReader(Object data, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromCommand(Object data, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) The problem appears when the web app is under a high load. The system runs fine when volume is low, but when the number of requests becomes high, the system starts rejecting incoming requests with the above exception message. Once the problem appears, very few requests actually make it through and get processed normally, about 2 in every 30. The vast majority of requests fail, until a SQL Server restart or IIS reset is performed. The system then start processing requests normally, and after some time it starts throwing the same error. The error occurs when a data adapter runs the Fill() method against a SELECT statement, to populate a strongly-typed dataset. It appears that the dataset does not like the data it is given and throws this exception. This error occurs on various SELECT statements, acting on different tables. I have regenerated the dataset and checked the relevant constraints, as well as the table from which the data is read. Both the dataset definition and the data in the table are fine. Admittedly, the hardware running both the web app and SQL Server 2000 is seriously outdated, considering the numbers of incoming requests it currently receives. The amount of RAM consumed by SQL Server is dynamically allocated, and at peak times SQL Server can consume up to 2.8 GB out of a total of 3.5 GB on the server. At first I suspected some sort of index or database corruption, but after running DBCC CHECKDB, no errors were found in the database. So now I'm wondering whether this error is a result of the hardware limitations of the system. Is it possible for SQL Server to somehow mess up the data it's supposed to pass to the dataset, resulting in constraint violation due to, say, data type/length mismatch? I tried accessing the RowError messages of the data rows in the retrieved dataset tables but I kept getting empty strings. I know that HasErrors = true for the datatables in question. I have not set the EnableConstraints = false, and I don't want to do that. Thanks in advance. Ray

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  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

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  • How do I create a Spring 3 + Tiles 2 webapp using REST-ful URLs?

    - by Ichiro Furusato
    I'm having a heck of a time resolving URLs with Spring 3.0 MVC. I'm just building a HelloWorld to try out how to build a RESTful webapp in Spring, nothing theoretically complicated. All of the examples I've been able to find are based on configurations that pay attention to file extensions ("*.htm" or "*.do"), include an artificial directory name prefix ("/foo") or even prefix paths with a dot (ugly), all approaches that use some artificial regex pattern as a signal to the resolver. For a REST approach I want to avoid all that muck and use only the natural URL patterns of my application. I would assume (perhaps incorrectly) that in web.xml I'd set a url-pattern of "/*" and pass everything to the DispatcherServlet for resolution, then just rely on URL patterns in my controller. I can't reliably get my resolver(s) to catch the URL patterns, and in all my trials this results in a resource not found error, a stack overflow (loop), or some kind of opaque Spring 3 ServletException stack trace — one of my ongoing frustrations with Spring generally is that the error messages are not often very helpful. I want to work with a Tiles 2 resolver. I've located my *.jsp files in WEB-INF/views/ and have a single line index.jsp file at the application root redirecting to the index file set by my layout.xml (the Tiles 2 Configurer). I do all the normal Spring 3 high-level configuration: <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:view-controller path="/" view-name="index"/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.acme.web.controller" /> ...followed by all sorts of combinations and configurations of UrlBasedViewResolver, InternalResourceViewResolver, UrlFilenameViewController, etc. with all manner of variantions in my Tiles 2 configuration file. Then in my controller I've trying to pick up my URL patterns. Problem is, I can't reliably even get the resolver(s) to catch the patterns to send to my controller. This has now stretched to multiple days with no real progress on something I thought would be very simple to implement. I'm perhaps trying to do too much at once, though I would think this should be a simple (almost a default) configuration. I'm just trying to create a simple HelloWorld-type application, I wouldn't expect this is rocket science. Rather than me post my own configurations (which have ranged all over the map), does anyone know of an online example that: shows a simple Spring 3 MVC + Tiles 2 web application that uses REST-ful URLs (i.e., avoiding forced URL patterns such as file extensions, added directory names or dots) and relies solely on Spring 3 code/annotations (i.e., nothing outside of Spring MVC itself) to accomplish this? Is there an easy way to do this? Thanks very much for any help.

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • jquery masonry on ul with nested ul

    - by Adam Wright
    I'm trying to create a footer nav of a sitemap with levels nested within each other. i want to use masonry so the padding and margin is consistant and not changed depending on nested items. its firing masonry but its adding the relative style to the nested ul if i change the masonry call to select just the first() ul then nested li appear on one line. any ideas? <div id="links"> <ul ><li class="box"><a href="/Industries.aspx" >Industries</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Services.aspx" >Services</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Quality---Regulatory.aspx" >Quality &amp; Regulatory</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About.aspx" >About</a><ul ><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Story.aspx" >Our Story</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Mission.aspx" >Our Mission</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/About/Our-Core-Values.aspx" >Our Core Values</a></li></ul></li><li class="box"><a href="/News.aspx" >News</a><ul ><li class="box"><a href="/News/Events.aspx" >Events</a></li></ul></li><li class="box"><a href="/Careers.aspx" >Careers</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/Contact.aspx" >Contact</a></li><li class="box"><a href="/tests.aspx" >tests</a></li></ul> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#links ul').masonry({ singleMode: true, // Disables measuring the width of each floated element. // Set to true if floated elements have the same width. // default: false columnWidth: 182, // Width in pixels of 1 column of your grid. // default: outer width of the first floated element. itemSelector: '.box:visible', // Additional selector to specify which elements inside // the wrapping element will be rearranged. // Required for Infinite Scroll with window resizing. resizeable: true, // Binds a Masonry call to window resizes // so layout appears fluid. // default: true animate: false, // Animates layout rearrangements. // default: false saveOptions: true // Masonry will use the options from previous Masonry // calls by default, so you only have to enter in options once // default: true }); </script>

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  • What variable dictates position of non-focused elements in the roundabout plugin?

    - by kristina childs
    Part of the problem here is that i'm not sure what the best language to use in order to find the solution. I search and searched so please forgive if this is already a thread somewhere. I'm using the roundabout plugin to cycle through 3 divs. Each div is 794px wide, which makes the roundabout-in-focus element 794 and the two not in focus 315.218px wide, positioned so half of each is hidden by the in-focus div. This is all well and good, however the total width of the display needs to stay within 1000px (ideally 980px, but i can fudge if need be.) Basically I want to make the non-focused divs be 3/4 hidden by the in-focus div but for the life of me can't figure out what variables i need to edit in order to do it. Unfortunately it's not one of the many easily-changed options like z-index and minScale. i tried minScale but it's clear this isn't going to work. the plugin outputs this code: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: -57px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i need to find out what changes the left positioning so it's shifted closer to the center of the stage, like this: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: 5px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i tried playing with the positioning functions of the plugin but all that did was shift everything in tandem left or right. any help is greatly appreciated. this site is going to be awesome once i figure out all this jquery stuff! here is a link to my .js file: http://avalon.eaw.com/scripts/jquery.roundabout2.js i've got an overflow:hidden on the to help guide the positioning of those no-focused items.

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  • Google Map key in Android?

    - by Amandeep singh
    I am developing an android app in which i have to show map view i have done it once in a previous app but the key i used in the previous is not working int his app . It is just showing a pin in the application with blank screen. Do i have to use a different Map key for each project , If not Kindly help me how can i use my previous Key in this. and also I tried generating a new key but gave the the same key back . Here is the code i used public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.map); btn=(Button)findViewById(R.id.mapbtn); str1=getIntent().getStringExtra("LATITUDE"); str2=getIntent().getStringExtra("LONGITUDE"); mapView = (MapView)findViewById(R.id.mapView1); //View zoomView = mapView.getZoomControls(); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); //mapView.setSatellite(true); mc = mapView.getController(); btn.setOnClickListener(this); MapOverlay mapOverlay = new MapOverlay(); List<Overlay> listOfOverlays = mapView.getOverlays(); listOfOverlays.clear(); listOfOverlays.add(mapOverlay); String coordinates[] = {str1, str2}; double lat = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[0]); double lng = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[1]); p = new GeoPoint( (int) (lat * 1E6), (int) (lng * 1E6)); mc.animateTo(p); mc.setZoom(17); mapView.invalidate(); //mp.equals(o); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } class MapOverlay extends com.google.android.maps.Overlay { @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); Paint mPaint = new Paint(); mPaint.setDither(true); mPaint.setColor(Color.RED); mPaint.setStyle(Paint.Style.FILL_AND_STROKE); mPaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeWidth(2); //---translate the GeoPoint to screen pixels--- Point screenPts = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(p, screenPts); //---add the marker--- Bitmap bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.pin); canvas.drawBitmap(bmp, screenPts.x, screenPts.y-50, null); return true; } Thanks....

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  • Is there a scheduling algorithm that optimizes for "maker's schedules"?

    - by John Feminella
    You may be familiar with Paul Graham's essay, "Maker's Schedule, Manager's Schedule". The crux of the essay is that for creative and technical professionals, meetings are anathema to productivity, because they tend to lead to "schedule fragmentation", breaking up free time into chunks that are too small to acquire the focus needed to solve difficult problems. In my firm we've seen significant benefits by minimizing the amount of disruption caused, but the brute-force algorithm we use to decide schedules is not sophisticated enough to handle scheduling large groups of people well. (*) What I'm looking for is if there's are any well-known algorithms which minimize this productivity disruption, among a group of N makers and managers. In our model, There are N people. Each person pi is either a maker (Mk) or a manager (Mg). Each person has a schedule si. Everyone's schedule is H hours long. A schedule consists of a series of non-overlapping intervals si = [h1, ..., hj]. An interval is either free or busy. Two adjacent free intervals are equivalent to a single free interval that spans both. A maker's productivity is maximized when the number of free intervals is minimized. A manager's productivity is maximized when the total length of free intervals is maximized. Notice that if there are no meetings, both the makers and the managers experience optimum productivity. If meetings must be scheduled, then makers prefer that meetings happen back-to-back, while managers don't care where the meeting goes. Note that because all disruptions are treated as equally harmful to makers, there's no difference between a meeting that lasts 1 second and a meeting that lasts 3 hours if it segments the available free time. The problem is to decide how to schedule M different meetings involving arbitrary numbers of the N people, where each person in a given meeting must place a busy interval into their schedule such that it doesn't overlap with any other busy interval. For each meeting Mt the start time for the busy interval must be the same for all parties. Does an algorithm exist to solve this problem or one similar to it? My first thought was that this looks really similar to defragmentation (minimize number of distinct chunks), and there are a lot of algorithms about that. But defragmentation doesn't have much to do with scheduling. Thoughts? (*) Practically speaking this is not really a problem, because it's rare that we have meetings with more than ~5 people at once, so the space of possibilities is small.

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  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

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  • How do I use ViewScripts on Zend_Form File Elements?

    - by Sonny
    I am using this ViewScript for my standard form elements: <div class="field" id="field_<?php echo $this->element->getId(); ?>"> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getLabel())) : ?> <?php echo $this->formLabel($this->element->getName(), $this->element->getLabel());?> <?php endif; ?> <span class="value"><?php echo $this->{$this->element->helper}( $this->element->getName(), $this->element->getValue(), $this->element->getAttribs() ) ?></span> <?php if (0 < $this->element->getMessages()->length) : ?> <?php echo $this->formErrors($this->element->getMessages()); ?> <?php endif; ?> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getDescription())) : ?> <span class="hint"><?php echo $this->element->getDescription(); ?></span> <?php endif; ?> </div> Trying to use that ViewScript alone results in an error: Exception caught by form: No file decorator found... unable to render file element Looking at this FAQ revealed part of my problem, and I updated my form element decorators like this: 'decorators' => array( array('File'), array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'form/field.phtml')) ) Now it's rendering the file element twice, once within my view script, and extra elements with the file element outside my view script: <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="8388608" id="MAX_FILE_SIZE" /> <input type="hidden" name="UPLOAD_IDENTIFIER" value="4b5f7335a55ee" id="progress_key" /> <input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /> <div class="field" id="field_upload_file"> <label for="upload_file">Upload File</label> <span class="value"><input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /></span> </div> Any ideas on how to handle this properly with a ViewScript?

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  • Array within Form collecting multiple values with the same name possible?

    - by JM4
    Good afternoon, I will first start with the goal I am trying to accomplish and then give a very basic sample of what I need to do. Goal Instead of collecting several variables and naming them with keys individually, I have decided to give in and use an array structure to handle all inputs of the same type and rules. Once I have the variables, I will validate against them and if 'ok' store them in a MySQL table. The table will hold consumer information and will need to store multiple rows of the same type of information. First Pass I will leave out the validation portion of this question because I feel I need to first understand the basics. <form action="?" method="POST" name="Form"> Member 1 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 2 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 3 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Continue" /> </form> I am hoping that each input given for First Name (a required field) will generate a unique key for that particular entry and not overwrite any data entered. Because I am carrying information from page to page (checkout form), I am turning the POST variables into SESSION variables then storing in a mysql database in the end. My hope is to have: <?php $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("DBname",$conn); $sql = "INSERT INTO tablename VALUES ('$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member1LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member1Email]', '$_SESSION[Member2FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member2LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member2Email]', '$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member3LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member3Email]')"; $result = mysql_query($sql, $conn) or die(mysql_error()); Header ("Location: completed.php"); ?> Where Member1, Member2, and Member3 values will appear on their own row within the table. I KNOW my code is wrong but I am giving a first shot at the overall business purpose I am trying to achieve and trying to learn how to code the right way. I am very, very new to programming so any 'baby advice' is greatly appreciated.

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  • How can you prevent both jumpiness, and interrupting tweens with animated Flash buttons?

    - by Kevin Suttle
    This is something I've never been able to figure out. You've got a button offscreen you want to animate in. We'll call it 'btn.' You've got a hit area that serves as the proximity sensor to trigger btn's animation. We'll call it 'hitZone' (as to not cause confusion with the hitArea property of display objects). Both btn and hitZone are MovieClips. The listeners go something like this. import com.greensock.*; import com.greensock.easing.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; var endPoint:Number = 31; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onHitZoneClick); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onBtnOver); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onBtnOut); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onBtnClick); btn.mouseChildren = false; function onHitZoneOver(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:endPoint, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("over hitZone"); } function onHitZoneOut(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:-1, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("out hitZone"); } function onBtnOver(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = false; hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("over BTN"); // This line is the only thing keeping the btn animation from being fired continuously // causing jumpiness. However, calling this allows the animation to be interrupted // at any point. TweenLite.killTweensOf(btn); } function onBtnOut(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = true; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("out BTN"); } function onBtnClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click BTN"); } function onHitZoneClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click hitZone"); } The issue is when your mouse is over both the hitZone and btn. The button continuously jumps unless you call TweenLite.killAllTweensOf(). This fixes the jumpiness, but it introduces a new problem. Now, it's very easy to interrupt the animation of the btn at any point, stopping it before it's totally visible on the stage. I've seen similar posts, but even they suffer from the same issue. Perhaps it's a problem with how Flash detects edges, because I've never once seen a workaround for this.

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  • Google App Engine with local Django 1.1 gets Intermittent Failures

    - by Jon Watte
    I'm using the Windows Launcher development environment for Google App Engine. I have downloaded Django 1.1.2 source, and un-tarrred the "django" subdirectory to live within my application directory (a peer of app.yaml) At the top of each .py source file, I do this: import settings import os os.environ["DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE"] = 'settings' In my file settings.py (which lives at the root of the app directory, as well), I do this: DEBUG = True TEMPLATE_DIRS = ('html') INSTALLED_APPS = ('filters') import os os.environ["DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE"] = 'settings' from google.appengine.dist import use_library use_library('django', '1.1') from django.template import loader Yes, this looks a bit like overkill, doesn't it? I only use django.template. I don't explicitly use any other part of django. However, intermittently I get one of two errors: 1) Django complains that DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE is not defined. 2) Django complains that common.html (a template I'm extending in other templates) doesn't exist. 95% of the time, these errors are not encountered, and they randomly just start happening. Once in that state, the local server seems "wedged" and re-booting it generally fixes it. What's causing this to happen, and what can I do about it? How can I even debug it? Here is the traceback from the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\code\kwbudget\edit_budget.py", line 34, in get self.response.out.write(t.render(template.Context(values))) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 165, in render return self.nodelist.render(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 784, in render bits.append(self.render_node(node, context)) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\__init__.py", line 797, in render_node return node.render(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\loader_tags.py", line 71, in render compiled_parent = self.get_parent(context) File "C:\code\kwbudget\django\template\loader_tags.py", line 66, in get_parent raise TemplateSyntaxError, "Template %r cannot be extended, because it doesn't exist" % parent TemplateSyntaxError: Template u'common.html' cannot be extended, because it doesn't exist And edit_budget.py starts with exactly the lines that I included up top. All templates live in a directory named "html" in my root directory, and "html/common.html" exists. I know the template engine finds them, because I start out with "html/edit_budget.html" which extends common.html. It looks as if the settings module somehow isn't applied (because that's what adds html to the search path for templates).

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Why are static classes considered “classes” and “reference types”?

    - by Timwi
    I’ve been pondering about the C# and CIL type system today and I’ve started to wonder why static classes are considered classes. There are many ways in which they are not really classes: A “normal” class can contain non-static members, a static class can’t. In this respect, a class is more similar to a struct than it is to a static class, and yet structs have a separate name. You can have a reference to an instance of a “normal” class, but not a static class (despite it being considered a “reference type”). In this respect, a class is more similar to an interface than it is to a static class, and yet interfaces have a separate name. The name of a static class can never be used in any place where a type name would normally fit: you can’t declare a variable of this type, you can’t use it as a base type, and you can’t use it as a generic type parameter. In this respect, static classes are somewhat more like namespaces. A “normal” class can implement interfaces. Once again, that makes classes more similar to structs than to static classes. A “normal” class can inherit from another class. It is also bizarre that static classes are considered to derive from System.Object. Although this allows them to “inherit” the static methods Equals and ReferenceEquals, the purpose of that inheritance is questionable as you would call those methods on object anyway. C# even allows you to specify that useless inheritance explicitly on static classes, but not on interfaces or structs, where the implicit derivation from object and System.ValueType, respectively, actually has a purpose. Regarding the subset-of-features argument: Static classes have a subset of the features of classes, but they also have a subset of the features of structs. All of the things that make a class distinct from the other kinds of type, do not seem to apply to static classes. Regarding the typeof argument: Making a static class into a new and different kind of type does not preclude it from being used in typeof. Given the sheer oddity of static classes, and the scarcity of similarities between them and “normal” classes, shouldn’t they have been made into a separate kind of type instead of a special kind of class?

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  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

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  • How To Send A Confirmation Number To Others And Myself?

    - by user2913307
    On my website I have a reservation form. Once someone clicks submit a confirmation number comes up (that number is different everytime). I get an e-mail with everything the person filled out on my reservation form but I want to know their confirmation number as well. RANDOM NUMBER CODE $(document).ready(function() { var ranval = Math.floor((Math.random()*10000)+1); $('input[name=lblrand]').val(ranval); // bind 'myForm' and provide a simple callback function $('#myForm').ajaxForm(function() { alert("Your Message has been sent!Your Form Registration Number is: "+ ranval); $('#myForm').resetForm(); WHAT GETS E-MAILED TO ME $('#rSubmit').click(function(){ var data = {}; data.to = "[email protected]"; data.from = "[email protected]>"; data.subject = "New Reservation"; data.message = "New Reservation from Website \n"+ '\n First Name : '+$('#name').val()+ '\n Last Name : '+$('#lastname').val() + '\n Confirmation : '+$('#lblrand').val () + '\n Coupon Code : '+$('#coupon').val() + '\n Company Name : '+$('#company').val() + '\n Phone Number : '+$('#phone').val() + '\n Street Address : '+$('#street').val() + '\n Pick-Up City : '+$('#city').val()+ '\n Pick-Up State : '+$('#state').val() + '\n Pick-Up Zip : '+$('#zip').val() + '\n Date : '+$('#calendar').val()+ '\n Time : '+$('#time').val() + '\n Time : '+$('#time2').val() + '\n Time : '+$('#time3').val() + '\n Airport : '+$('#airport').val() + '\n Airline : '+$('#airline').val() + '\n Flight # : '+$('#fnumber').val() + '\n Stops : '+$('#hstops').val() + '\n Stops Info : '+$('#info').val() + '\n Passengers : '+$('#passengers').val() + '\n Luggages : '+$('#luggages').val()+ '\n Car Seat : '+$('#seat').val()+ '\n Drop-Off Street : '+$('#dostreet').val() + '\n Drop-Off City : '+$('#docity').val()+ '\n Drop-Off State : '+$('#dostate').val() + '\n Drop-Off Zip : '+$('#dozip').val() + '\n D.O Airport : '+$('#doairport').val() + '\n D.O Airline : '+$('#doairline').val() + '\n Flight # : '+$('#dofnumber').val() + '\n Date : '+$('#calendar2').val()+ '\n Time : '+$('#rtime').val() + '\n Time : '+$('#rtime2').val() + '\n Time : '+$('#rtime3').val() + '\n Return Street : '+$('#rtstreet').val() + '\n Return City : '+$('#rtcity').val()+ '\n Return State : '+$('#rtstate').val() + '\n Return Zip : '+$('#rtzip').val() + '\n Return Airport : '+$('#rtairport').val() + '\n Return Airline : '+$('#rtairline').val() + '\n Return Flight # : '+$('#rtfnumber').val() + '\n Payment Type : '+$('#payment').val() + '\n Card Number : '+$('#creditcardno').val() + '\n Exp. Date : '+$('#expirydate').val() + '\n Exp. Date : '+$('#expirydate2').val() ; Also, if there is a way when this information gets e-mailed to me if I can put it in a table so it could come up more organized. Any help, tips, advice is appreciated. ALSO, check out my website and the form for yourself at http://www.greatlimoservice.com

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