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• Record Disappeared from Mysql Table, How Can I Find Out What Happened?

  - by Jascha

  I got the fire alarm phone call, AIM messages and email today from a client stating "The site is down!, WTF happened?!" Well, after a little digging, it turns out one of the records in a table had been wiped clean, but without removing the row itself. So, I had the representation of data, but a bunch of empty fields. (needless to day I need to write into my code a catch for this.) What my real question is, where can I figure out what happened? I've got access to phpmyadmin and that's about it. I found some access logs on in the root directory of my server, but that just tells me the client was in the admin area I built editing that record, I'd like to know specifically what they did that made all of the data go away. (what query was run etc...) is it possible without real server admin access? is there a neat little php to mysql class that returns data like this? Thanks in advance. -Jascha

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• Read XML with PHP

  - by sea_1987

  I am trying to check a field in some XML that is returned from an outside. The XML is returned in a variable call $out and when you view the source of the page you get a XML output of the following, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ResponseBlock Live="FALSE" Version="3.51"> <Response Type="AUTH"> <OperationResponse> <TransactionReference>23-9-1334895</TransactionReference> <TransactionCompletedTimestamp>2010-04-30 15:59:05</TransactionCompletedTimestamp> <AuthCode>AUTH CODE:TEST</AuthCode> <TransactionVerifier>AlaUOS1MOnN/iwc5s2WPDm5ggrCLwesUnHs9h+W0N3CRaln2W6lh+6dtaRFFhLdwfnw6y7lRemyJUYl9a3dpWfzORE6DaZkFMb+dIb0Ne1UxjFEJkrEtjzx/i8KSayrIBrT/yGZOoOT42EZ9loc+UkdGk/pqYvj8bZztvgBNo2Ak=</TransactionVerifier> <Result>1</Result> <SettleStatus>0</SettleStatus> <SecurityResponseSecurityCode>1</SecurityResponseSecurityCode> <SecurityResponsePostCode>1</SecurityResponsePostCode> <SecurityResponseAddress>1</SecurityResponseAddress> </OperationResponse> <Order> <OrderInformation>This is a test order</OrderInformation> <OrderReference>Order0001</OrderReference> </Order> </Response> </ResponseBlock> I want check what value is in the 'Result' field. I am unsure how to access the information using PHP, so far I have, $xml = simplexml_load_string($out); Many Thanks

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• Simplest way to debug an android bluetooth application

  - by intiha

  I am trying to test and build a sample android application that can simply connect to a BT server to send and receive a few packets. Since the emulator has no support what is the next best thing to test BT communication? Can I just run a code that acts as a server on my laptop and dumps BT connection onto a console? Do I have to write this code, or is their a simple tool that saves me that hassle? One more thing, I have windows 7, and currently I attach to my PC an anycom USB BT adapter. This is able to show up my nexus one as a BT device. I can pair to my laptop but connection always fails. When it tries to pair I have tried both 0000 and 1234 as suggested on my nexus, but in my connection list it still lists my laptop as paired but not connected. Any idea why? I searched for this problem and apparently people talk about rebooting and power cycling BT, but these solutions dont work for me. Thanks. Affan.

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• How to use log4j for a axis2 webservice

  - by KItis

  I have created a simple axis2 webservice to understand logging functionality in a webservice. in this sample webservice, when a client calls this webservice, first it reads the log4j.property file. then i can see the logs being printed on console. but i have included file appender too into the property file. but i can not file the log file any where in my sample webapplication. i am using tomcat to run the webservice. following is webservice interface method called by client. package test; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.util.Properties; import org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.log4j.PropertyConfigurator; public class WSInterface { static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(WSInterface.class); public String log4jTest(String input){ InputStream inputStream = this.getClass().getClassLoader() .getResourceAsStream(input); Properties properties = new Properties(); System.out.println("InputStream is: " + inputStream); //load the inputStream using the Properties try { properties.load(inputStream); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } PropertyConfigurator.configure(properties); logger.debug("Hello World!"); Class myclass = WSInterface.class; String url = myclass.getResource("WSInterface.class").toString(); String output = ""; return url; } }

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• What are some of best Javascript memory detecting tools?

  - by Philip Fourie

  Our team is faced with slow but serious Javascript memory leak. We have read up on the normal causes for memory leaks in Javascript (eg. closures and circular references). We tried to avoid those pitfalls in the code but it likely we still have unknown mistakes left in our code. I started my search for available tools but would like input from people with actual experience with these tools. Some of the tools I found so far (but have no idea how good and useful they would be for our problem): Sieve Drip JavaScript Memory Leak Detector Our search is not limited to free tools, it will be a bonus, but more importantly something that will get the job done. We do the following in our Javascript code: AJAX calls to a .NET WCF back-end that send back JSON data Manipulate the DOM Keep a fairly sized object model in the Javascript to store current state

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• Unable to store NSNumber in core data

  - by Kamlesh

  Hi all, I am using Core Data in my application.I have an attribute named PINCode which has property Int64. Now,in my app I take the PIN code from a text field,convert it into NSNumber and try to store as an attribute value for an entity.But I am unable to do so.The exception that it shows on the console is:- Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unacceptable type of value for attribute: property = "PINCode"; desired type = NSNumber; given type = NSCFString; value = 121.' Here is the code:- (Conversion to NSNumber):- NSString *str= txtPINCode.text; NSNumber *num = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; int tempNum = [str intValue]; num = [NSNumber numberWithInt:tempNum]; (Storing in core data entity):- NSManagedObjectContext *context = [appDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSManagedObject *newContact; newContact = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MemberTable" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newContact setValue:num forKey:@"PINCode"]; The app crashes at this point.I am unable to find the reason of crash.I have also tried to check the conversion by the following code:- NSNumber *testNumber = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; id test = num; BOOL testMe = [test isKindOfClass:(Class)testNumber]; Can anybody help me with this?? Thanks in advance.

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• Processing command-line arguments in prefix notation in Python

  - by ejm

  I'm trying to parse a command-line in Python which looks like the following: $ ./command -o option1 arg1 -o option2 arg2 arg3 In other words, the command takes an unlimited number of arguments, and each argument may optionally be preceded with an -o option, which relates specifically to that argument. I think this is called a "prefix notation". In the Bourne shell I would do something like the following: while test -n "$1" do if test "$1" = '-o' then option="$2" shift 2 fi # Work with $1 (the argument) and $option (the option) # ... shift done Looking around at the Bash tutorials, etc. this seems to be the accepted idiom, so I'm guessing Bash is optimized to work with command-line arguments this way. Trying to implement this pattern in Python, my first guess was to use pop(), as this is basically a stack operation. But I'm guessing this won't work as well on Python because the list of arguments in sys.argv is in the wrong order and would have to be processed like a queue (i.e. pop from the left). I've read that lists are not optimized for use as queues in Python. So, my ideas are: convert argv to a collections.deque and use popleft(), reverse argv using reverse() and use pop(), or maybe just work with the int list indices themselves. Does anyone know of a better way to do this, otherwise which of my ideas would be best-practise in Python?

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• Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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• BN_hex2bn magically segfaults in openSSL

  - by xunil154

  Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

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• svnserve not strictly required?

  - by Kev

  I was reading the Red Bean book and noticed this paragraph: Do not be seduced by the simple idea of having all of your users access a repository directly via file:// URLs. Even if the repository is readily available to everyone via a network share, this is a bad idea. It removes any layers of protection between the users and the repository: users can accidentally (or intentionally) corrupt the repository database, it becomes hard to take the repository offline for inspection or upgrade, and it can lead to a mess of file permission problems (see the section called “Supporting Multiple Repository Access Methods”). Note that this is also one of the reasons we warn against accessing repositories via svn+ssh:// URLs—from a security standpoint, it's effectively the same as local users accessing via file://, and it can entail all the same problems if the administrator isn't careful. I realized that, since I'm the only one accessing the repository, ever, none of these caveats seem to apply. Can I safely down svnserve then and only ever have to worry about upgrading my TortoiseSVN client, not both the client and the server whenever there's a new version out? (I've tried it already--just needed to use the Relocate feature to switch from svn:// to file://--but I wanted to make sure something wouldn't be sneaking up on me if I left it this way.)

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• How can display gif on a subview in iPhone using glgif?

  - by iPhoney

  I want to display a gif image on a subview in iPhone. The sample code glgif shows the gif image on the controller's root view, but when I make the following modifications, the application just crashes: IBOutlet UIView *gifView; // gifView is added as a subview of controller's root view //PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)self.view; PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)gifView; // Load test.gif VideoSource NSString *str = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"gif"]; FILE *fp = fopen([str UTF8String], "r"); VideoSource *src = VideoSource_init(fp, VIDEOSOURCE_FILE); src->writeable = false; // Init video using VideoSource Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; VideoSource_release(src); // Start if loaded if (vid) { [plView startAnimation:vid]; [vid release]; return; } // Cleanup if failed fclose(fp); Now the app crashes in this line: Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; with the error message:-[UIView context]: unrecognized selector sent to instance. Any ideas about how to add the plView to the subview properly?

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• Multiple calls to data service from SL3?

  - by Chris

  I have an SL3 that makes asynchronous calls to a data service. Basically, there is a treeview that is bound to a collection of objects. The idea is that as a user selects a specific treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service, with a parameter specific to the selected treeviewitem being passed to the corresponding web method in the data service. The data service returns data back to the SL3 client, and the client presents the data to the user. This works well. The problem is that when users start to navigate through the treeview using the arrow keys on their keyboard, they could press the down arrow key, for example, 10 times, and 10 calls will be made to the data service, and then each of the 10 items will be displayed to the user momentarily, until finishing with the data for the most recently selected treeview item. So - onto the question. How can I put in some form of delay, to allow someone to navigate quickly through a treeview, then, once then stop at a certain treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service? Thanks for any suggestions. Chris

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• .NET Process.Start() on an executable on a remote system - security warning?

  - by BrettRobi

  I've created a Windows Service that accepts commands from remote machines via WCF. One of those commands is to run a specified executable (let's ignore the security implications of such functionality). In my Service I am using Process.Start() to run the executable. All works well if the executable is local to the machine, but if it is on a remote file share it is failing with no error (or more accurately just hanging). I suspect the problem is that it is triggering the standard Windows 'Unverified Publisher' warning that one would see if they double click an exe on a remote system. Is there any way I can bypass this from my service so that I can truly run any executable? As I said I understand the security implications of allowing it to run any executable, but this is really what I need. I would have thought this warning was only a user mode concept, but it really does seem to be getting in the way of my Service. Ideas?

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• How to deploy RESTful Web Service onto IIS

  - by Chris Lee

  Hi all, I'm new to .Net and IIS. I've created a simple RESTful Web Service in VS2008 and .net 3.5 framework using WCF. I've tested it well with F5 debugging in VS(seems it is auto deployed on Windows Service). Now I want to deploy it on my IIS server so that I can use it remotely. But I cannot find any guide for this. I manually deployed my service folder just as an ASP.net site. But seems it does not work(keep showing 401 error). Can anyone tell me how to deploy it to IIS? It contains a simple GET method and I hope it can be accessed by anomynous clients (because the host IP is 192.168..). I have a web.config file, a .dll and .pdb under /bin folder, a Global.asax and .svc file for my service. The IIS server is on the same machine. Thanks a million.

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• Setting an Excel Range with an Array using Python and comtypes?

  - by technomalogical

  Using comtypes to drive Python, it seems some magic is happening behind the scenes that is not converting tuples and lists to VARIANT types: # RANGE(“C14:D21”) has values # Setting the Value on the Range with a Variant should work, but # list or tuple is not getting converted properly it seems >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Open(r'C:\temp\my_file.xlsx') >>>xl.Visible = True >>>vals=tuple([(x,y) for x,y in zip('abcdefgh',xrange(8))]) # creates: #(('a', 0), ('b', 1), ('c', 2), ('d', 3), ('e', 4), ('f', 5), ('g', 6), ('h', 7)) >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value() (('foo',1),('foo',2),('foo',3),('foo',4),('foo',6),('foo',6),('foo',7),('foo',8)) >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value[()] = vals # no error, this blanks out the cells in the Range According to the comtypes docs: When you pass simple sequences (lists or tuples) as VARIANT parameters, the COM server will receive a VARIANT containing a SAFEARRAY of VARIANTs with the typecode VT_ARRAY | VT_VARIANT. This seems to be inline with what MSDN says about passing an array to a Range's Value. I also found this page showing something similar in C#. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? EDIT I've come up with a simpler example that performs the same way (in that, it does not work): >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Add() >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] # at this point, I manually typed into the range A1:B3 >>> sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value() ((u'AAA', 1.0), (u'BBB', 2.0), (u'CCC', 3.0)) >>>sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value[()] = [(x,y) for x,y in zip('xyz',xrange(3))] # Using a generator expression, per @Mike's comment # However, this still blanks out my range :(

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• Windows Service doesn't start process with different credentials

  - by Marcus

  I have a Windows Service, running as a user, that should start several processes under different user credentials. I'm using the following code to start a process: Dim winProcess As New System.Diagnostics.Process With winProcess .StartInfo.Arguments = "some_args" .StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True .StartInfo.ErrorDialog = False .StartInfo.FileName = "C:\TEMP\ProcessFromService\ProcessFromService\bin\Debug\ProcessFromService.exe" .StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False .StartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden 'Opgave WorkingDirectory kan soms tot problemen leiden, indien betreffende directory 'niet bereikbaar (rechten) is voor opgegeven gebruiker. 'Beter dus om deze niet op te geven. '.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = My.Computer.FileSystem.SpecialDirectories.Temp .StartInfo.Domain = "" .StartInfo.UserName = "MyUserId" Dim strPassword As String = "MyPassword" Dim ssPassword As New Security.SecureString For Each chrPassword As Char In strPassword.ToCharArray ssPassword.AppendChar(chrPassword) Next .StartInfo.Password = ssPassword .Start() End With The process is correctly started when I use the same credentials as of which the Windows Service is running under. The process is not started, without any error, when I use different credentials. In other words: If the Windows Service is running as UserA then I can start a process running as UserA. If the Windows Service is running as UserB then I can not start a process running as UserA. I have created a test project in which I can reproduce this problem. If you put this project in C:\Temp then the used paths will be correct. You can download this test project here: https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/5391091/ProcessFromService.zip NB: I hope this info is enough to explain it. If you need more info, please let me know and I will add it.

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• Hashtable with int array as key in java

  - by Niels Hansen

  Hey! I'm trying to make a hashtable in java where the keys are int[], but it dosen't work. I have made a little test program to show my problem: public class test{ public static void main(String[] args){ int[] test0 = {1,1}; int[] test1 = {1,1}; Hashtable<int[], String> ht = new Hashtable<int[], String>(); String s0 = "foo"; ht.put(test0, s0); System.out.println("the result from ht.get(test1)"); System.out.println(ht.get(test1)); System.out.println("the result from ht.get(test0)"); System.out.println(ht.get(test0)); } } My intention is that both ht.get calles should return the same result, since the two arrays are equal, but they dont. Here is the result from running the code: the result from ht.get(test1) null the result from ht.get(test0) foo Am I missing something here or is it just impossible to use int[] as keys in a hastable?

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• Create x509 certificate with openssl/makecert tool

  - by Zé Carlos

  I'm creating a x509 certificate using makecert with the following parameters: makecert -r -pe -n "CN=Client" -ss MyApp I want to use this certificate to encrypt and decrypt data with RSA algoritm. I look to generated certificate in windows certificate store and everything seems ok (It has a private key, public key is a RSA key with 1024 bits and so on..) Now i use this C# code to encrypt data: X509Store store = new X509Store("MyApp", StoreLocation.CurrentUser); store.Open(OpenFlags.ReadOnly); X509Certificate2Collection certs = store.Certificates.Find(X509FindType.FindBySubjectName, "Client", false); X509Certificate2 _x509 = certs[0]; using (RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)_x509.PrivateKey) { byte[] dataToEncrypt = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("hello"); _encryptedData = rsa.Encrypt(dataToEncrypt, true); } When executing the Encrypt method, i receive a CryptographicException with message "Bad key". I think the code is fine. Probably i'm not creating the certificate properly. Any comments? Thanks ---------------- EDIT -------------- If anyone know how to create the certificate using OpenSsl, its also a valid answer for me.

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• With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

  - by brahn

  I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

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• Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

  - by Bob

  Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

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• SQL Server database change workflow best practices

  - by kubi

  The Background My group has 4 SQL Server Databases: Production UAT Test Dev I work in the Dev environment. When the time comes to promote the objects I've been working on (tables, views, functions, stored procs) I make a request of my manager, who promotes to Test. After testing, she submits a request to an Admin who promotes to UAT. After successful user testing, the same Admin promotes to Production. The Problem The entire process is awkward for a few reasons. Each person must manually track their changes. If I update, add, remove any objects I need to track them so that my promotion request contains everything I've done. In theory, if I miss something testing or UAT should catch it, but this isn't certain and it's a waste of the tester's time, anyway. Lots of changes I make are iterative and done in a GUI, which means there's no record of what changes I made, only the end result (at least as far as I know). We're in the fairly early stages of building out a data mart, so the majority of the changes made, at least count-wise, are minor things: changing the data type for a column, altering the names of tables as we crystallize what they'll be used for, tweaking functions and stored procs, etc. The Question People have been doing this kind of work for decades, so I imagine there have got to be a much better way to manage the process. What I would love is if I could run a diff between two databases to see how the structure was different, use that diff to generate a change script, use that change script as my promotion request. Is this possible? If not, are there any other ways to organize this process? For the record, we're a 100% Microsoft shop, just now updating everything to SQL Server 2008, so any tools available in that package would be fair game.

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• How to transform vertical table into horizontal table?

  - by avivo

  Hello, I have one table Person: Id Name 1 Person1 2 Person2 3 Person3 And I have its child table Profile: Id PersonId FieldName Value 1 1 Firstname Alex 2 1 Lastname Balmer 3 1 Email [email protected] 4 1 Phone +1 2 30004000 And I want to get data from these two tables in one row like this: Id Name Firstname Lastname Email Phone 1 Person1 Alex Balmer [email protected] +1 2 30004000 What is the most optimized query to get these vertical (key, value) values in one row like this? Now I have a problem that I done four joins of child table to parent table because I need to get these four fields. Some optimization is for sure possible. I would like to be able to modify this query in easy way when I add new field (key,value). What is the best way to do this? To create some StoreProcedure? I would like to have strongly types in my DB layer (C#) and using LINQ (when programming) so it means when I add some new Key, Value pair in Profile table I would like to do minimal modifications in DB and C# if possible. Actually I am trying to get some best practices in this case.

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• Biztalk vs API for databroker layer

  - by jdt199

  My company is about to undergo a large project in which our client wants a large customer portal with a cms, crm implementing. This will require interaction with data from multiple sources across our customers business, these sources include XML office backend systems, sql datbases, webservices etc. Our proposed solution would be to write an API in c# to provide a common interface with all these systems. This would be scalable for future and concurrent projects within the company. Our client expressed an interest in using Biztalk rather than a custom API for this integration, as they feel it is an enterprise solution that any of their suppliers could pick up and use, and it will be better supported. We feel that the configuration work using Biztalk would be rather heavy for all their custom business rules which are required and an interface for the new application to get data to and from Biztalk would still need to be written. Are we right to prefer a custom API solution above Biztalk? Would Biztalk be suitable as a databroker layer to provide an interface for the new Customer portal we are writing. We have not experience with using Biztalk before so any input would be appreciated.

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• where should I put the EF entity and data annotations in asp.net mvc + entity framework project

  - by giddy

  So I have a DataEntity class generated by EntityFramework4 for my sqlexpress08 database. This data context is exposed via a WCF Data Service/Odata to silverlight and win forms clients. Should the data entities + edmx file (generated by EF4) go in a separate class library? The problem here then is I would specify data annotations for a few entities and then some of them would require specific MVC attributes (like CompareAttribute) so the class library would also reference mvc dlls. There also happen to be entity users which will be encapsulated or wrapped into an IIdentity in the website. So its pretty tied to the mvc website. Or Should it maybe go in a Base folder in the mvc project itself? Mostly the website is data driven around the database, like approve users, change global settings etc. The real business happens in the silverlight and win forms apps. Im using mvc3 rc2 with Razor. Thanks

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