Why cant partial methods be public if the implementation is in the same assembly?
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by Simon
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Published on 2010-01-08T00:54:04Z
Indexed on
2010/03/19
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According to this http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/wa80x488.aspx
"Partial methods are implicitly private"
So you can have this
// Definition in file1.cs
partial void Method1();
// Implementation in file2.cs
partial void Method1()
{
// method body
}
But you cant have this
// Definition in file1.cs
public partial void Method1();
// Implementation in file2.cs
public partial void Method1()
{
// method body
}
But why is this? Is there some reason the compiler cant handle public partial methods?
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