Could a derived-class object treated as if it's the same type of a bases class? <noobieQ/>
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by M4design
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Published on 2010-05-22T09:36:04Z
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2010/05/22
9:40 UTC
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Say I got:
class X_
{
public:
void do() { }
}
class Y_ : public X_
{
}
And I have this function:
void foo(X_ whatever)
{
whatever.do();
}
Can I send a "Y_" object to the foo function, would this work?
I just realized that I could have tested this myself :)
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