Search Results

Search found 2011 results on 81 pages for 'matt robinson'.

Page 10/81 | < Previous Page | 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17  | Next Page >

  • Local Declaration "x" hides instance variable xcode warning

    - by Michael Robinson
    I've been have trouble understand this problem. If I change the variable name fifthViewController the error goes away but the view controller doesn't load. Lost. Once again it's probably something simple. Thanks in advance. Here is the code: { FifthViewController *fifthViewController = [[FifthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FifthView" bundle:nil]; fifthViewController.transactionID = transactionID; [self.navigationController pushViewController:fifthViewController animated:NO]; [fifthViewController release]; }

    Read the article

  • How to access Actionscript from Javascript in Adobe AIR

    - by David Robinson
    I have an AIR application written in html/javascript and I want to use the Actionscript print functions but I have no experience in Actionscript for AIR. Where do I put the Actionscript code ? Does it go into an mxml file or does it need to be compiled into a Flash application. Where do I put it and how do I include it into the html document ? Finally, how do I call the AS function from Javascript ? =====update===== I know I have to compile either an .mxml or .as file into .swf using mxmlc and I have the following in my .as file: package { import mx.controls.Alert; public class HelloWorld { public function HelloWorld():void { trace("Hello, world!"); } } } Or alternately, this in a .mxml file: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; public function HelloWorld():void { Alert.show("hello world!"); trace("Hello, world!"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> This compiles OK, but when I include it in a html file with: <script src="actionscript.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></script> I get the following error: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at mx.managers::FocusManager/activate() at mx.managers::SystemManager/activateForm() at mx.managers::SystemManager/activate() at mx.core::Application/initManagers() at mx.core::Application/initialize() at actionscript/initialize() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::childAdded() at mx.managers::SystemManager/initializeTopLevelWindow() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler() at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener() Any ideas what that means ?

    Read the article

  • Command /Developer/usr/bin/dsymutil failed with exit code 10

    - by Evan Robinson
    I am getting the above error message randomly (so far as I can tell) on iPhone projects. Occasionally it will go away upon either: Clean Restart XCode Reboot Reinstall XCode But sometimes it won't. When it won't the only solution I have found is to take all the source material, import it into a new project, and then redo all the connections in IB. Then I'm good until it strikes again. Anybody have any suggestions? [update 20091030] I have tried building both debug and release versions, both full and lite versions. I've also tried switching the debug symbols from DWARF with external dSYM file to DWARF and to stabs. Clean builds in all formats make no differences. Permission repairs change nothing. Setting up a new user has no effect. Same error on the builds. Thanks for the suggestions! [Update 20091031] Here's an easier and (apparently) reliable workaround. It hinges upon the discovery that the problem is linked to a target not a project In the same project file, create a new target Option-Drag (copy) all the files from the BAD target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder to the NEW target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder Repeat (2) with 'Compile Sources' and 'Link Binary With Libraries' Duplicate the Info.plist file for the BAD target and name it correctly for the NEW target. Build the NEW target! [Update 20100222] Apparently an IDE bug, now apparently fixed, although Apple does not allow direct access to the original bug of a duplicate. I can no longer reproduce this behaviour, so hopefully it is dead, dead, dead.

    Read the article

  • Optimizing Levenshtein Distance Algorithm

    - by Matt
    I have a stored procedure that uses Levenshtein Distance to determine the result closest to what the user typed. The only thing really affecting the speed is the function that calculates the Levenshtein Distance for all the records before selecting the record with the lowest distance (I've verified this by putting a 0 in place of the call to the Levenshtein function). The table has 1.5 million records, so even the slightest adjustment may shave off a few seconds. Right now the entire thing runs over 10 minutes. Here's the method I'm using: ALTER function dbo.Levenshtein ( @Source nvarchar(200), @Target nvarchar(200) ) RETURNS int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Source_len int, @Target_len int, @i int, @j int, @Source_char nchar, @Dist int, @Dist_temp int, @Distv0 varbinary(8000), @Distv1 varbinary(8000) SELECT @Source_len = LEN(@Source), @Target_len = LEN(@Target), @Distv1 = 0x0000, @j = 1, @i = 1, @Dist = 0 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv1 + CAST(@j AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END WHILE @i <= @Source_len BEGIN SELECT @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Source, @i, 1), @Dist = @i, @Distv0 = CAST(@i AS binary(2)), @j = 1 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist + 1 SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j-1, 2) AS int) + CASE WHEN @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Target, @j, 1) THEN 0 ELSE 1 END IF @Dist > @Dist_temp BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist_temp END SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j+1, 2) AS int)+1 IF @Dist > @Dist_temp SET @Dist = @Dist_temp BEGIN SELECT @Distv0 = @Distv0 + CAST(@Dist AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END END SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv0, @i = @i + 1 END RETURN @Dist END Anyone have any ideas? Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Extending a DropDownList control

    - by Andrew Robinson
    I have a rather large application that has literally a hundred DDLs with Yes / No ListItems. In an attempt to same myself some time, I created a Custom Control that extends the standard DDL. It all seems to work fine but I am having some issues when assigning the SelectedValue property in code where the selected value does not seem to have an affect on the control. I wonder if I should be adding my items during Init or PagePreLoad? Should I be calling base.OnInit before or after I add the list items? This mostly works but not 100%. (v3.5) public class YesNoDropDownList : DropDownList { protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); if (!Page.IsPostBack) { base.Items.Add(new ListItem("Yes", "YES")); base.Items.Add(new ListItem("No", "NO")); } } }

    Read the article

  • PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Post on a logged in users facebook wall

    - by Matt Nathanson
    Hey all, I've created a widget that will essentially unlock a music track, providing you post to either your twitter account, or facebook wall. I've signed up through facebook connect and I am able to successfully post onto my own wall... but the functionality I'm looking for is to be able to take ones username and password and automatically log in to facebook, and send my desired message. Like I said, it posts on my wall successfully, it's just not using the username and password from the field to log in to their respective facebooks and post. <?php $facename = $_POST['facename']; $facepass = $_POST['facepass']; define('FB_APIKEY', 'my_api_key'); define('FB_SECRET', 'my_secret_phrase_'); define('FB_SESSION', 'my_session_id'); require_once('facebook.php'); echo "post on wall"; try { $facebook = new Facebook(FB_APIKEY, FB_SECRET); $facebook->api_client->session_key = FB_SESSION; $fetch = array('friends' => array('pattern' => '.*', 'query' => "select uid2 from friend where uid1={$facename}")); echo $facebook->api_client->admin_setAppProperties(array('preload_fql' => json_encode($fetch))); $message = 'I downloaded Automatic Loveletter\'s new single \'To Die For\' here!'; if( $facebook->api_client->stream_publish($message)) echo "Added on FB Wall"; } catch(Exception $e) { echo $e . "<br />"; } ?> Any help in the right direction is greatly appreciated! Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Open an Excel htm URL via iFrame in a separate browser

    - by Mark Robinson
    I have some URLs in an Excel file which I have saved as a .htm (webpage) file. I then view these in a browser via our wiki (MediaWiki). This is done using an iFrame embedded in the wiki page. So, just for clarity, the link is in a htm file viewed via an iFrame in a wiki page. When I click on that link, it opens inside the iFrame. What I want is for it to open in a new browser window. (This should be the user's default browser since some use Internet Explorer and some Firefox.) The final twist is that some users have Windows XP and some Solaris. Help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • When creating a new IIS web site, how can I add it to an existing application pool?

    - by Ian Robinson
    I have successfully automated the process of creating a new IIS website, however the code I've written doesn't care about application pools, it just gets added to DefaultAppPool. However I'd like to add this newly created site to an existing application pool. Here is the code I'm using to create the new website. var w3Svc = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/w3svc", webserver)); var newsite = new object[] { serverComment, new object[] { serverBindings }, homeDirectory }; var websiteId = w3Svc.Invoke("CreateNewSite", newsite); site.Invoke("Start", null); site.CommitChanges(); <update Although this is not directly related to the question, here are some sample values being used above. This might help someone understand exactly what the code above is doing more easily. webServer: "localhost" serverComment: "testing.dev" serverBindings: ":80:testing.dev" homeDirectory: "c:\inetpub\wwwroot\testing\" </update If I know the name of the application pool that I'd like this web site to be in, how can I find it and add this site to it?

    Read the article

  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Async trigger for an update panel refreshes entire page when triggering too much in too short of tim

    - by Matt
    I have a search button tied to an update panel as a trigger like so: <asp:Panel ID="CRM_Search" runat="server"> <p>Search:&nbsp;<asp:TextBox ID="CRM_Search_Box" CssClass="CRM_Search_Box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="CRM_Search_Button" CssClass="CRM_Search_Button" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="SearchLeads" /></p> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CRM_Search_Button" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> /* Content Here */ </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my javascript I use jQuery to grab the search box and tie it's keyup to make the search button click: $($(".CRM_Search_Box")[0]).keyup( function () { $($(".CRM_Search_Button")[0]).click(); } ); This works perfectly, except when I start typing too fast. As soon as I type too fast (my guess is if it's any faster than the data actually returns) the entire page refreshes (doing a postback?) instead of just the update panel. I've also found that instead of typing, if I just click the button really fast it starts doing the same thing. Is there any way to prevent it from doing this? Possibly prevent 2nd requests until the first has been completed? If I'm not on the right track then anyone have any other ideas? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • How can I easily print multiple layers on multiple pages in Visio

    - by Mark Robinson
    We've created a flow chart using Visio that has multiple layers. (The background is that each layer represents variations on a basic process.) Now we want to be able to print each layer individually. Currently this involves lots of clicking to select the correct layer and and then press print - then repeating this for each of the 10 layers. Is there a simpler way? E.g. define each layer once and use a "print each layer" tool / macro?

    Read the article

  • Problem Activating Sharepoint Timer Job

    - by Ben Robinson
    I have created a very simple sharepoint timer job. All i want it to do is iterate through a list and update each list item so that it triggers an existing workflow that works fine. In other words all i am trying to do is work around the limitation that workflows cannot be triggered on a scheduled basis. I have written a class that inherits from SPJobDefinition that does the work and i have a class that inherits from SPFeatureReceiver to install and activate it. I have created the feature using SPVisualdev that my coleagues have used in the past for other SP development. My Job class is below: public class DriverSafetyCheckTrigger : SPJobDefinition { private string pi_SiteUrl; public DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(string SiteURL, SPWebApplication WebApp):base("DriverSafetyCheckTrigger",WebApp,null, SPJobLockType.Job) { this.Title = "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger"; pi_SiteUrl = SiteURL; } public override void Execute(Guid targetInstanceId) { using (SPSite siteCollection = new SPSite(pi_SiteUrl)) { using (SPWeb site = siteCollection.RootWeb) { SPList taskList = site.Lists["Driver Safety Check"]; foreach(SPListItem item in taskList.Items) { item.Update(); } } } } } And the only thing in the feature reciever class is that i have overridden the FeatureActivated method below: public override void FeatureActivated(SPFeatureReceiverProperties Properties) { SPSite site = Properties.Feature.Parent as SPSite; // Make sure the job isn't already registered. foreach (SPJobDefinition job in site.WebApplication.JobDefinitions) { if (job.Name == "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger") job.Delete(); } // Install the job. DriverSafetyCheckTrigger oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger = new DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(site.Url, site.WebApplication); SPDailySchedule oSchedule = new SPDailySchedule(); oSchedule.BeginHour = 1; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Schedule = oSchedule; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(); } The problem i have is that when i try to activate the feature it throws a NullReferenceException on the line oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(). I am not sure what is null in this case, the example i have followed for this is this tutorial. I am not sure what I am doing wrong.

    Read the article

  • Using nhibernate <loader> element with HQL queries

    - by Matt
    Hi All I'm attempting to use an HQL query in element to load an entity based on other entities. My class is as follows public class ParentOnly { public ParentOnly(){} public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string ParentObjectName { get; set; } } and the mapping looks like this <class name="ParentOnly"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ParentObjectName" /> <loader query-ref="parentonly"/> </class> <query name="parentonly" > select new ParentOnly() from SimpleParentObject as spo where spo.Id = :id </query> The class that I am attemping to map on top of is SimpleParentObject, which has its own mapping and can be loaded and saved without problems. When I call session.Get(id) the sql runs correctly against the SimpleParentObject table, and the a ParentOnly object is instantiated (as I can step through the constructer), but only a null comes back, rather than the instantiated ParentOnly object. I can do this succesfully using a instead of the HQL, but am trying to build this in a database independent fashion. Any thoughts on how to get the and elements to return a populated ParentOnly object...? Thanks Matt

    Read the article

  • What is the Best way to databind an ASP.NET TreeView for table with many to many parent child relati

    - by Matt W
    I've got a table which has the usual ParentID, ChildID as it's first two columns in a self-referencing tree data structure. My issue is that when I pull this out and use the following code: DataSet set = DA.GetNewCategories(); set.Relations.Add( new DataRelation("parentChildCategories", set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryParentID"], set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryID"]) ); StringBuilder buildXml = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(buildXml); set.WriteXml(writer); TreeView2.DataSource = new HierarchicalDataSet(set, "CategoryID", "CategoryParentID"); TreeView2.DataBind(); I get the error: These columns don't currently have unique values I believe this is because my data has children with multiple parent nodes. This is fine for my application - I don't mind if one row of data is rendered in multiple nodes of my TreeView. Could someone shed light on this please? It doesn't seem unreasonable to have a DataSet render XML which has nodes appearing in multiple places, but I can't figure out how to do it. Thanks, Matt.

    Read the article

  • Relay WCF Service

    - by Matt Ruwe
    This is more of an architectural and security question than anything else. I'm trying to determine if a suggested architecture is necessary. Let me explain my configuration. We have a standard DMZ established that essentially has two firewalls. One that's external facing and the other that connects to the internal LAN. The following describes where each application tier is currently running. Outside the firewall: Silverlight Application In the DMZ: WCF Service (Business Logic & Data Access Layer) Inside the LAN: Database I'm receiving input that the architecture is not correct. Specifically, it has been suggested that because "a web server is easily hacked" that we should place a relay server inside the DMZ that communicates with another WCF service inside the LAN which will then communicate with the database. The external firewall is currently configured to only allow port 443 (https) to the WCF service. The internal firewall is configured to allow SQL connections from the WCF service in the DMZ. Ignoring the obvious performance implications, I don't see the security benefit either. I'm going to reserve my judgement of this suggestion to avoid polluting the answers with my bias. Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Can I include a NSUserDefault password test in AppDelegate to load a loginView?

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a name and password in NSUserDefaults for login. I want to place a test in my AppDelegate.m class to test for presence and load a login/signup loginView.xib modally if there is no password or name stored in the app. Here is the pulling of the defaults: -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; Here is the tabcontroller loading part: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { firstTab = [[FirstTab alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; UINavigationController *firstNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:firstTab]; [firstTab release]; secondTab = // EDITED FOR SPACE thirdTab = // EDITED FOR SPACE tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstNavigationController, secondNavigationController, thirdNavigationController, nil]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [firstNavigationController release]; [secondNavigationController release]; [thirdNavigationController release]; [self logout]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; Here is where the loginView.xib loads automatically: - (void)logout { loginViewController = [[LoginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginView" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *loginNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:loginViewController]; [loginViewController release]; [tabBarController presentModalViewController:loginNavigationController animated:YES]; [loginNavigationController release]; } I want to replace the above autoload with a test similar to below (that works) using IF-ELSE - (void)logout { if ([usernameLabel.text length] == 0 || [passwordLabel.text length] == 0) { loginViewController = [[LoginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginView" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *loginNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:loginViewController]; [loginViewController release]; [tabBarController presentModalViewController:loginNavigationController animated:YES]; [loginNavigationController release]; }else { [window addSubview:tabBarController.view];} Thanks in advance, I'm totally lost on this.

    Read the article

  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

    - by Matt
    I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • using PHP to create multidimensional array from simple JSON array

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a php query the returns the following JSON format from a table. [{"memberid":"18", "useridFK":"30", "loginName":"Johnson", "name":"Frank", "age":"23", "place":"School", }, It needs the following format: [{"memberid":"18" { "useridFK":"30", "loginName":"Johnson", "name":"Frank", "age":"23", "place":"School",} }, I was told in another question that PHP would work and it looks like "Transversing" might be appropriate, I'm looking to find out what to put in the Php before it returns the JASON. My Array.plist will look like the following: Root: Dictionary V Rows: Array V Item 0: Dictionary Title: String 18 V Children Array V Item 0 Dictionary Title String 30 etc. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

    - by Michael Robinson
    I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY> <!-- Q-ImageUploader www.quadroland.com --> <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

    Read the article

  • Possible bug in ASP.net UpdatePanel control?

    - by Ben Robinson
    I have come across what seems to be an annoying bug with asp.net UpdatePanels in 2 seperate projects. If you have some kind of autopostback enabled control that can cause all of the controls in the update panel to have visible=false set, resulting in an empty update panel. When you change the autopostback control back to the postion that would re enable all of the controls in the update panel, it simply does not make a call back to the server and the update panel does not update. If you do anything else that makes a call back on the same page, then the update panel contents magically appear. It is as if asp.net has decided the update panel is empty so there is no point maikng a callback, even though making the call back would fill the updatepanel with content. The only way round this is to add a style of display:none to the controls instead of setting visible=false property. Then it works fine. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is it a bug as i suspect or is it likely i am doing soemthing wrong? I haven't got time to post example code at the moment as the code i am using is too wrapped up in other unrealted things, if people think it would help i will create a simple example and post it when I get time.

    Read the article

  • Creating Persistent Drive Labels With UDEV Using /dev/disk/by-path

    - by Matt
    I have a new BackBlaze Pod (BackBlaze Pod 2.0). It has 45 3TB drives and they when I first set it up they were labeled /dev/sda through /dev/sdz and /dev/sdaa through /dev/sdas. I used mdadm to setup three really big 15 drive RAID6 arrays. However, since first setup a few weeks ago I had a couple of the hard drives fail on me. I've replaced them but now the arrays are complaining because they can't find the missing drives. When I list the the disks... ls -l /dev/sd* I see that /dev/sda /dev/sdf /dev/sdk /dev/sdp no longer appear and now there are 4 new ones... /dev/sdau /dev/sdav /dev/sdaw /dev/sdax I also just found that I can do this... ls -l /dev/disk/by-path/ total 0 lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:0:0:0 -> ../../sdau lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:1:0:0 -> ../../sdb lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:2:0:0 -> ../../sdc lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:3:0:0 -> ../../sdd lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-0:4:0:0 -> ../../sde lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:0:0:0 -> ../../sdae lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:1:0:0 -> ../../sdg lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:2:0:0 -> ../../sdh lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:3:0:0 -> ../../sdi lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-2:4:0:0 -> ../../sdj lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:0:0:0 -> ../../sdav lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:1:0:0 -> ../../sdl lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:2:0:0 -> ../../sdm lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:3:0:0 -> ../../sdn lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:02:04.0-scsi-3:4:0:0 -> ../../sdo lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 10 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:0:0:0 -> ../../sdax lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:1:0:0 -> ../../sdq lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:2:0:0 -> ../../sdr lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:3:0:0 -> ../../sds lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-0:4:0:0 -> ../../sdt lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:0:0:0 -> ../../sdu lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:1:0:0 -> ../../sdv lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:2:0:0 -> ../../sdw lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:3:0:0 -> ../../sdx lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-2:4:0:0 -> ../../sdy lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 9 Sep 19 18:08 pci-0000:04:04.0-scsi-3:0:0:0 -> ../../sdz I didn't list them all....you can see the problem above. They're sorted by scsi id here but sda is missing...replaced by sdau...etc... So obviously the arrays are complaining. Is it possible to get Linux to reread the drive labels in the correct order or am I screwed? My initial design with 15 drive arrays is not ideal. With 3TB drives the rebuild times were taking 3 or 4 days....maybe more. I'm scrapping the whole design and I think I am going to go with 6 x 7 RAID5 disk arrays and 3 hot spares to make the arrays a bit easier to manage and shorten the rebuild times. But I'd like to clean up the drive labels so they aren't out of order. I haven't figured out how to do this yet. Does anyone know how to get this straightened out? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Pushing to a UITable inside a UIView from a UITableview

    - by Michael Robinson
    I can firgure out how to push a UIView from a Tableview and have the "child" details appear. Here is the view I'm trying to load: Here is the code that checks for children and either pushes a itemDetail.xib or an additional UITable, I want to use the above .xib but load the correct contents "tableDataSource" into the UItable: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Get the dictionary of the selected data source. NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; if([Children count] == 0) { ItemDetailViewController *dvController = [[ItemDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ItemDetailView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dvController animated:YES]; [dvController release]; } else { //Prepare to tableview. FirstTab *rvController = [[FirstTab alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //Increment the Current View rvController.CurrentLevel += 1; //Set the title; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController release]; } } Thanks for the help. I see lots of stuff on this but can't find the correct push instructions.

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Creating fieldset, ol/ul and li tags in ASP.Net, C#

    - by Matt
    Hi, I need to write an ASP.Net form which will produce the following HTML: <fieldset> <legend>Contact Details</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="name">Name:</label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Email address:</label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="phone">Telephone:</label> <input id="phone" name="phone" class="text" type="text" /> </li> </ol> </fieldset> However, the fields which are to be added to the form will be determined at runtime, so I need to create the fieldset at runtime and add an ordered list and listitems to it, with labels, textboxes, checkboxes etc as appropriate. I can’t find standard ASP.Net objects which will create these tags. For instance, I’d like to do something like the following in C#: FieldSet myFieldSet = new FieldSet(); myFieldSet.Legend = “Contact Details”; OrderedList myOrderedList = new OrderedList(); ListItem listItem1 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem2 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem3 = new ListItem(); // code here which would add labels and textboxes to the ListItems myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem1); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem2); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem3); myFieldSet.Controls.Add(myOrderedList); Form1.Controls.Add(myFieldSet); Are there any standard ASP.Net objects which can produce this, or is there some other way of achieving the same result? Matt

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17  | Next Page >