Search Results

Search found 58985 results on 2360 pages for 'value object'.

Page 100/2360 | < Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >

• Which book should I choose?

  - by sebastianlarsson

  Hi guys, I'm looking for a good read on object oriented design. The two books I'm currently looking Head First Design Patterns and Head First Object object-oriented analysis & design. They seem very similar when looking at the contents and browsing through available sample text. Which one would be the best choice? About myself: I have a bachelor in computer science and I am currently studying Msc. Software Quality Engineering (read Software Engineering with focus on Quality). I am already confident in object-oriented design and have a lot of programming courses in my backpack. I have done games in c++, courses in advanced java programming (I am SCJP certified), but my preferred language is C#. I have also worked with Java for the last 7 months while studying. I am currently also studying for certificates in C# (apart from my usual studies). So I believe I have the prerequisites of actually understanding the contents of both books. Reason: I just want to be better and keep evolving as a programmer. I think it is fun. I believe Bert Bates and Kathy Sierra are involved in both these books and I have previously read their SCJP preparation book in java. I really do enjoy their style of writing. Other books which I am considering are: Clean Code: A Handbook Of Agile Software Craftsmanship Thx in advance Sebastian

  Read the article

• Are document-oriented databases any more suitable than relational ones for persisting objects?

  - by Owen Fraser-Green

  In terms of database usage, the last decade was the age of the ORM with hundreds competing to persist our object graphs in plain old-fashioned RMDBS. Now we seem to be witnessing the coming of age of document-oriented databases. These databases are highly optimized for schema-free documents but are also very attractive for their ability to scale out and query a cluster in parallel. Document-oriented databases also hold a couple of advantages over RDBMS's for persisting data models in object-oriented designs. As the tables are schema-free, one can store objects belonging to different classes in an inheritance hierarchy side-by-side. Also, as the domain model changes, so long as the code can cope with getting back objects from an old version of the domain classes, one can avoid having to migrate the whole database at every change. On the other hand, the performance benefits of document-oriented databases mainly appear to come about when storing deeper documents. In object-oriented terms, classes which are composed of other classes, for example, a blog post and its comments. In most of the examples of this I can come up with though, such as the blog one, the gain in read access would appear to be offset by the penalty in having to write the whole blog post "document" every time a new comment is added. It looks to me as though document-oriented databases can bring significant benefits to object-oriented systems if one takes extreme care to organize the objects in deep graphs optimized for the way the data will be read and written but this means knowing the use cases up front. In the real world, we often don't know until we actually have a live implementation we can profile. So is the case of relational vs. document-oriented databases one of swings and roundabouts? I'm interested in people's opinions and advice, in particular if anyone has built any significant applications on a document-oriented database.

  Read the article

• How do I get started designing and implementing a script interface for my .NET application?

  - by Peter Mortensen

  How do I get started designing and implementing a script interface for my .NET application? There is VSTA (the .NET equivalent of VBA for COM), but as far as I understand I would have to pay a license fee for every installation of my application. It is an open source application so this will not work. There is also e.g. the embedding of interpreters (IronPython?), but I don't understand how this would allow exposing an "object model" (see below) to external (or internal) scripts. What is the scripting interface story in .NET? Is it somehow trivial in .NET to do this? Background: I have once designed and implemented a fairly involved script interface for a Macintosh application for acquisition and analysis of data from a mass spectrometer (Mac OS, System 7) and later a COM interface for a Windows application. Both were designed with an "object model" and classes (that can have properties). These are overloaded words, but in a scripting interface context object model is essentially a containment hiarchy of objects of specific classes. Classes have properties and lists of contained objects. E.g. like in the COM interfaces exposed in Microsoft Office applications, where the application object can be used to add to its list of documents (with the side effect of creating the GUI representation of a document). External scripts can create new objects in a container and navigate through the content of the hiarchy at any given time. In the Macintosh case scripts could be written in e.g. AppleScript or Frontier. On the Macintosh the implementation of a scripting interface was very complicated. Support for it in Metroworks' C++ class library (the name escapes me right now) made it much simpler.

  Read the article

• JPA - Entity design problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Java Desktop Application and using JPA for persistence. I have a problem mentioned below: I have two entities: Country City Country has the following attribute: CountryName (PK) City has the following attribute: CityName Now as there can be two cities with same name in two different countries, the primaryKey for City table in the datbase is a composite primary key composed of CityName and CountryName. Now my question is How to implement the primary key of the City as an Entity in Java @Entity public class Country implements Serializable { private String countryName; @Id public String getCountryName() { return this.countryName; } } @Entity public class City implements Serializable { private CityPK cityPK; private Country country; @EmbeddedId public CityPK getCityPK() { return this.cityPK; } } @Embeddable public class CityPK implements Serializable { public String cityName; public String countryName; } Now as we know that the relationship from Country to City is OneToMany and to show this relationship in the above code, I have added a country variable in City class. But then we have duplicate data(countryName) stored in two places in the City class: one in the country object and other in the cityPK object. But on the other hand, both are necessary: countryName in cityPK object is necessary because we implement composite primary keys in this way. countryName in country object is necessary because it is the standard way of showing relashionship between objects. How to get around this problem?

  Read the article

• Managing inverse relationships without CoreData

  - by Nathaniel Martin

  This is a question for Objective-J/Cappuccino, but I added the cocoa tag since the frameworks are so similar. One of the downsides of Cappuccino is that CoreData hasn't been ported over yet, so you have to make all your model objects manually. In CoreData, your inverse relationships get managed automatically for you... if you add an object to a to-many relationship in another object, you can traverse the graph in both directions. Without CoreData, is there any clean way to setup those inverse relationships automatically? For a more concrete example, let's take the typical Department and Employees example. To use rails terminology, a Department object has-many Employees, and an Employee belongs-to a Department. So our Department model has an NSMutableSet (or CPMutableSet ) "employees" that contains a set of Employees, and our Employee model has a variable "department" that points back to the Department model that owns it. Is there an easy way to make it so that, when I add a new Employee model into the set, the inverse relationship (employee.department) automatically gets set? Or the reverse: If I set the department model of an employee, then it automatically gets added to that department's employee set? Right know I'm making an object, "ValidatedModel" that all my models subclass, which adds a few methods that setup the inverse relationships, using KVO. But I'm afraid that I'm doing a lot of pointless work, and that there's already an easier way to do this. Can someone put my concerns to rest?

  Read the article

• Bad idea to have the same object, have a different side effect after method call.

  - by Nathan W

  Hi all, I'm having a bit of a gesign issue(again). Say I have this Buttonpad object: now this object is a wrapper object over one in a com object. At the moment it has a method on it called CreateInto(IComObject). Now to make a new button pad in the Com Object. You do: ButtonPad pad = new ButtonPad(); pad.Title = "Hello"; // Set some more properties. pad.CreateInto(Cominstance); The createinfo method will excute the right commands to buid the button pad in the com object. After it has been created it any calls against it are foward to the underlying object for change so: pad.Title = "New title"; will call the com object to set the title and also set the internal title variable. Basically any calls before the CreateInfo method only affect the .NET object anything after has the side effect of calling the com object also. I'm not very good at sequence diagrams but here is my attempt to explain whats going on: This doesn't feel good to me, it feels like I'm lying to the user about what the button pad does. I was going to have a object called WrappedButtonPad, which is returned from CreateInto and the user could make calls against that to make changes to the Com Object, but I feel having two objects that almost do the same thing but only differ by names might be even worse. Are these valid designs, or am I right to be worried? How else would you handle a object the can create and query a com object?

  Read the article

• How can I control UISlider Value Changed-events frequncy?

  - by Albert

  I'm writing an iPhone app that is using two uisliders to control values that are sent using coreBluetooth. If I move the sliders quickly one value freezes at the receiver, presumably because the Value Changed events trigger so often that the write-commands stack up and eventually get thrown away. How can I make sure the events don't trigger too often? Edit: Here is a clarification of the problem; the bluetooth connection sends commands every 105ms. If the user generates a bunch of events during that time they seem to que up. I would like to throw away any values generated between the connection events and just send one every 105ms. This is basically what I'm doing right now: -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } What I'm asking is how to implement something like -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; if (105msHasPassed) { int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } }

  Read the article

• 2 bucks for !! java basic question

  - by Max

  How can I get a specific value from an object? I'm trying to get a value of an instance for eg. ListOfPpl newListOfPpl = new ListOfPpl(id, name, age); Object item = newListOfPpl; How can I get a value of name from an Object item?? Even if it is easy or does not interest you can anyone help me?? Edited: I was trying to build a binary tree contains the node of ListOfPpl, and need to sort it in the lexicographic. Here's my code for insertion on the node. Any clue?? public void insert(Object item){ Node current = root; Node follow = null; if(!isEmpty()){ root = new Node(item, null, null); return; }boolean left = false, right = false; while(current != null){ follow = current; left = false; right = false; //I need to compare and sort it if(item.compareTo(current.getFighter()) < 0){ current = current.getLeft(); left = true; }else { current = current.getRight(); right = true; } }if(left) follow.setLeft(new Node(item, null, null)); else follow.setRight(new Node(item, null, null)); }

  Read the article

• What else I must do allow my method to handle any type of objects

  - by NewHelpNeeder

  So to allow any type object I must use generics in my code. I have rewrote this method to do so, but then when I create an object, for example Milk, it won't let me pass it to my method. Ether there's something wrong with my generic revision, or Milk object I created is not good. How should I pass my object correctly and add it to linked list? This is a method that causes error when I insert an item: public void insertFirst(T dd) // insert at front of list { Link newLink = new Link(dd); // make new link if( isEmpty() ) // if empty list, last = newLink; // newLink <-- last else first.previous = newLink; // newLink <-- old first newLink.next = first; // newLink --> old first first = newLink; // first --> newLink } This is my class I try to insert into linked list: class Milk { String brand; double size; double price; Milk(String a, double b, double c) { brand = a; size = b; price = c; } } This is test method to insert the data: public static void main(String[] args) { // make a new list DoublyLinkedList theList = new DoublyLinkedList(); // this causes: // The method insertFirst(Comparable) in the type DoublyLinkedList is not applicable for the arguments (Milk) theList.insertFirst(new Milk("brand", 1, 2)); // insert at front theList.displayForward(); // display list forward theList.displayBackward(); // display list backward } // end main() } // end class DoublyLinkedApp Declarations: class Link<T extends Comparable<T>> {} class DoublyLinkedList<T extends Comparable<T>> {}

  Read the article

• Explicit Type Conversion and Multiple Simple Type Specifiers

  - by James McNellis

  To value initialize an object of type T, one would do something along the lines of one of the following: T x = T(); T x((T())); My question concerns types specified by a combination of simple type specifiers, e.g., unsigned int: unsigned int x = unsigned int(); unsigned int x((unsigned int())); Visual C++ 2008 and Intel C++ Compiler 11.1 accept both of these without warnings; Comeau 4.3.10.1b2 and g++ 3.4.5 (which is, admittedly, not particularly recent) do not. According to the C++ standard (C++03 5.2.3/2, expr.type.conv): The expression T(), where T is a simple-type-specifier (7.1.5.2) for a non-array complete object type or the (possibly cv-qualified) void type, creates an rvalue of the specified type, which is value-initialized 7.1.5.2 says, "the simple type specifiers are," and follows with a list that includes unsigned and int. Therefore, given that in 5.2.3/2, "simple-type-specifier" is singular, and unsigned and int are two type specifiers, are the examples above that use unsigned int invalid? (and, if so, the followup is, is it incorrect for Microsoft and Intel to support said expressions?) This question is more out of curiosity than anything else; for all of the types specified by a combination of multiple simple type specifiers, value initialization is equivalent to zero initialization. (This question was prompted by comments in response to this answer to a question about initialization).

  Read the article

• WCF- "The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly"

  - by SumGuy

  Hi there. I'm recieving that wonderfuly ambiguous error message when using one of my webmethods on my WCF webservice. As that error message doesn't provide any explanation whatsoever allow me to post my theory. I believe it may have something to do with the return type I'm using I have a Types DLL which is refrenced in both the webservice and the client. In this DLL is the base class ExceptionMessages. There is a child of this class called DrawingExcepions. Here is some code: public class ExceptionMessages { public object[] ReturnValue { get; set; } } public class DrawingExceptions : ExceptionMessages { private List<DrawingException> des = new List<DrawingException>(); } public class DrawingException { public Exception ExceptionMsg { get; set; } public List<object> Errors { get; set; } } The using code: [OperationContract] ExceptionMessages createNewBom(Bom bom, DrawingFiles dfs); public ExceptionMessages createNewBOM(Bom bom, DrawingFiles dfs) { return insertAssembly(bom, dfs); } public DrawingExceptions insertAssembly(Bom bom, DrawingFiles dfs) { DrawingExceptions des = new DrawingExceptions(); foreach (DrawingFile d in dfs.drawingFiles) { DrawingException temp = insertNewDrawing(bom, d); if (temp != null) des.addDrawingException(temp); if (d.Child != null) des.addDrawingException(insertAssembly(bom, d.Child)); } return des; } Returns to: ExceptionMessages ems = client.createNewBom(bom, currentDFS); if (ems is DrawingExceptions) { } Basically the return type from the webmethod is ExceptionMessages however I would usually be sending the child class back instead. My only idea is that it's the child that's causing the error but as far as I've read, this should have no effect. Has anyone got any ideas what could be going wrong here? If any more info is required, just ask :) Thanks.

  Read the article

• iPhone OS: Is there a way to set up KVO between two ManagedObject Entities?

  - by nickthedude

  I have 2 entities I want to link with KVO, one a single statTracker class that keeps track of different stats and the other an achievement class that contains information about achievements. Ideally what I want to be able to do is set up KVO by having an instance of the achievement class observe a value on the statTracker class and also set up a threshold value at which the achievement instance should be "triggered"(triggering in this case would mean showing a UIAlertView and changing a property on the achievement class.) I'd like to also set these relationships up on instantiation of the achievement class if possible so kind of like this: Achievement *achievement1 = (Achievement *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Achievement" inManagedObjectContext:[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext]]; [achievement1 setAchievementName:@"2 time launcher"]; [achievement1 setAchievementDescription:@"So you've decided to come back for more eh? Here are some achievement points to get you going"]; [achievement1 setAchievementPoints:[NSNumber numberWithInt:300]; [achievement1 setObjectToObserve:@"statTrackerInstace" propertyToObserve:@"timesLaunched" valueOfPropertToSatisfyAchievement:2] Anyone out there know how I would set this up? Is there some way I could do this by way of relationships that I'm not seeing? Thanks, Nick

  Read the article

• Alternative or succesor to GDBM

  - by Anon Guy

  We a have a GDBM key-value database as the backend to a load-balanced web-facing application that is in implemented in C++. The data served by the application has grown very large, so our admins have moved the GDBM files from "local" storage (on the webservers, or very close by) to a large, shared, remote, NFS-mounted filesystem. This has affected performance. Our performance tests (in a test environment) show page load times jumping from hundreds of milliseconds (for local disk) to several seconds (over NFS, local network), and sometimes getting as high as 30 seconds. I believe a large part of the problem is that the application makes lots of random reads from the GDBM files, and that these are slow over NFS, and this will be even worse in production (where the front-end and back-end have even more network hardware between them) and as our database gets even bigger. While this is not a critical application, I would like to improve performance, and have some resources available, including the application developer time and Unix admins. My main constraint is time only have the resources for a few weeks. As I see it, my options are: Improve NFS performance by tuning parameters. My instinct is we wont get much out of this, but I have been wrong before, and I don't really know very much about NFS tuning. Move to a different key-value database, such as memcachedb or Tokyo Cabinet. Replace NFS with some other protocol (iSCSI has been mentioned, but i am not familiar with it). How should I approach this problem?

  Read the article

• C++ - passing references to boost::shared_ptr

  - by abigagli

  If I have a function that needs to work with a shared_ptr, wouldn't it be more efficient to pass it a reference to it (so to avoid copying the shared_ptr object)? What are the possible bad side effects? I envision two possible cases: 1) inside the function a copy is made of the argument, like in ClassA::take_copy_of_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) { ... m_sp_member=sp; //This will copy the object, incrementing refcount ... } 2) inside the function the argument is only used, like in Class::only_work_with_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) //Again, no copy here { ... sp->do_something(); ... } I can't see in both cases a good reason to pass the boost::shared_ptr by value instead of by reference. Passing by value would only "temporarily" increment the reference count due to the copying, and then decrement it when exiting the function scope. Am I overlooking something? Andrea. EDIT: Just to clarify, after reading several answers : I perfectly agree on the premature-optimization concerns, and I alwasy try to first-profile-then-work-on-the-hotspots. My question was more from a purely technical code-point-of-view, if you know what I mean.

  Read the article

• how to return response from post in a variable? jQuery

  - by robertdd

  i use this function to return the response of post: $.sendpost = function(){ return jQuery.post('inc/operations.php', {'operation':'test'}, "json"); }, i want to make something like this: in: $.another = function(){ var sendpost = $.sendpost(); alert(sendpost); } but i get: [object XMLHttpRequest] if i print the object with: jQuery.each(sendpost, function(i, val) { $(".displaydetails").append(i + " => " + val + "<br/>"); }); i get: details abort => function () { x && h.call(x); g("abort"); } dispatchEvent => function dispatchEvent() { [native code] } removeEventListener => function removeEventListener() { [native code] } open => function open() { [native code] } setRequestHeader => function setRequestHeader() { [native code] } onreadystatechange => [xpconnect wrapped nsIDOMEventListener] send => function send() { [native code] } readyState => 4 status => 200 getResponseHeader => function getResponseHeader() { [native code] } responseText => mdaaa from php how to return only the response in the variable?

  Read the article

• jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

  - by stogdilla

  Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Enforcing default time when only date in timestamptz provided

  - by Incognito

  Assume I have the table: postgres=# create table foo (datetimes timestamptz); CREATE TABLE postgres=# \d+ foo Table "public.foo" Column | Type | Modifiers | Storage | Description -----------+--------------------------+-----------+---------+------------- datetimes | timestamp with time zone | | plain | Has OIDs: no So lets insert some values into it... postgres=# insert into foo values ('2012-12-12'), --This is the value I want to catch for. (null), ('2012-12-12 12:12:12'), ('2012-12-12 12:12'); INSERT 0 4 And here's what we have: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 00:00:00+00 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) Ideally, I'd like to set up a default time-stamp value when a TIME is not provided with the input, rather than the de-facto time of 2012-12-12 being 00:00:00, I would like to set a default of 15:45:10. Meaning, my results should look like: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 15:45:10+00 --This one gets the default time. 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) I'm not really sure how to do this in postgres 8.4, I can't find anything in the datetime section of the manual or the sections regarding column default values.

  Read the article

• Convert enumeration to string

  - by emptyheaded

  I am trying to build a function that converts an item from an enum to its corresponding string. The enums I use are fairly long, so I didn't want to use a switch-case. I found a method using boost::unordered_map very convenient, but I don't know how to make a default return (when there is no item matching the enum). const boost::unordered_map<enum_type, const std::string> enumToString = boost::assign::map_list_of (data_1, "data_1") (data_2, "data_2"); I tried to create an additional function: std::string convert(enum_type entry) { if (enumToString.find(entry)) // not sure what test to place here, return enumToString.at(entry); //because the find method returns an iter else return "invalid_value"; } I even tried something exceedingly wrong: std::string convert(enum_type entry) { try{ return enumToString.at(entry); } catch(...){ return "invalid_value"; } } Result: evil "Debug" runtime error. Can somebody give me a suggestion on how to either 1) find an easier method to convert enum to a string with the same name as the enum item 2) find a way to use already built boost methods to get a default value from a hash map (best option) 3) find what to place in the test to use a function that returns either the pair of the key-value, or a different string if the key is not found in the map. Thank you very much.

  Read the article

• find consecutive nonzero values

  - by thymeandspace

  I am trying to write a simple MATLAB program that will find the first chain (more than 70) of consecutive nonzero values and return the starting value of that consecutive chain. I am working with movement data from a joystick and there are a few thousand rows of data with a mix of zeros and nonzero values before the actual trial begins (coming from subjects slightly moving the joystick before the trial actually started). I need to get rid of these rows before I can start analyzing the movement from the trials. I am sure this is a relatively simple thing to do so I was hoping someone could offer insight. Thank you in advance -Lilly EDIT: Here's what I tried: s = zeros(size(x1)); for i=2:length(x1) if(x1(i-1) ~= 0) s(i) = 1 + s(i-1); end end display(S); for a vector x1 which has a max chain of 72 but I dont know how to find the max chain and return its first value, so I know where to trim. I also really don't think this is the best strategy, since the max chain in my data will be tens of thousands of values. Thanks for helping me edit, Steve. :)

  Read the article

• LitJSON's JsonMapper.ToJson error: Max allowed object depth reached while trying to export from type

  - by dev.e.loper

  I have an object that I would like to convert to json inside one of the object's methods. I'm using LitJson library. Like so: protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { ... writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Value, JsonMapper.ToJson(this)); .... } However JsonMapper.ToJson(this) produces a server error "Max allowed object depth reached while trying to export from type System.Drawing.Color". My guess is that because its trying to convert an object inside itself its going into some kind of infinite loop. Just curious what is actually happening.

  Read the article

• How to get input value or javascript variable in Asp.Net MVC Ajax.ActionLink

  - by achu

  I want to pass an input control value (say textbox1.value or a javascript variable) to a controller action method (as a parameter) without a form post (using Ajax.ActionLink). please see the code below is it possible to assign like new {name = textbox1.value} in Ajax.ActionLink. View <input type="text" id="textbox1" /> <% =Ajax.ActionLink("mylink", "linkfunction", new {name = textbox1.value}, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "result"})%> <span id="result"></span> and controler action is .. public string linkfunction(string name) { return DateTime.Now.ToString(); }

  Read the article

• Bad value for type timestamp on production server

  - by Juan Javaloyes

  I'm working with: seam 2.2.2 + hibernate + richfaces + jboss 5.1 + postgres I have an module which needs to load some data from the database. Easy. The problem is, on development it works fine, 100%, but when I deploy on my production server and try to get the data, an error rise: could not read column value from result set: fechahor9_504_; Bad value for type timestamp : [C@122e5cf SQL Error: 0, SQLState: 22007 Bad value for type timestamp : [C@122e5cf javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.DataException: could not execute query [more errors] Caused by: org.postgresql.util.PSQLException: Bad value for type timestamp : [C@122e5cf at org.postgresql.jdbc2.TimestampUtils.loadCalendar(TimestampUtils.java:232) [more errors] Caused by: java.lang.NumberFormatException: Trailing junk on timestamp: '' at org.postgresql.jdbc2.TimestampUtils.loadCalendar(TimestampUtils.java:226) I can't understand why it works on my machine (development) and why not on production. Any clues? Anyone gone through the same problem? Is exactly the same compilation

  Read the article

• Error converting JSON to .Net object in asp.net

  - by Vinni

  Hello Guys, I am unable to convert JSON string to .net object in asp.net. I am sending JSON string from client to server using hidden field (by keeping the JSON object.Tostring() in hidden field and reading the hidden field value in code behind file) Json string/ Object: [[{"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"11","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"11","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"11","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"2","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"2","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"67","HostingTypeID":"3"}, {"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"67","HostingTypeID":"3"}], [{"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"99","HostingTypeID":"6"}], [{"OfferId":"1","OrderValue":"10","HostingTypeID":"8"}]] .Net Object public class JsonFeaturedOffer { public string OfferId { get; set; } public string OrderValue { get; set; } public string HostingTypeID { get; set; } } Converstion code in code behind file byte[] byteArray = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(HdnJsonData.Value); MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(byteArray); DataContractJsonSerializer serializer = new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(JsonFeaturedOffer)); object result= serializer.ReadObject(stream); JsonFeaturedOffer jsonObj = result as JsonFeaturedOffer; While converting i am getting following error: Expecting element 'root' from namespace ''.. Encountered 'None' with name '', namespace ''.

  Read the article

• The null value cannot be assigned to a member with type System.Int64 which is a non-nullable value t

  - by BritishDeveloper

  I'm getting the following error in my MVC2 app using Linq to SQL (I am new to both). I am connected to an actual SQL server not weird mdf: System.InvalidOperationException The null value cannot be assigned to a member with type System.Int64 which is a non-nullable value type My SQL table has a column called MessageID. It is BigInt type and has a primary key, NOT NULL and an IDENTITY 1 1, no Default In my dbml designer it has the following declaration for this field: [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_MessageId", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public long MessageId { get { return this._MessageId; } set { if ((this._MessageId != value)) { this.OnMessageIdChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._MessageId = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("MessageId"); this.OnMessageIdChanged(); } } } It keeps telling me that null cannot be assigned - I'm not passing through null! It's a long - it can't even be null! Am I doing something stupid? I can't find a solution anywhere! I made this work by changing the type of this property to Nullable<long> but surely this can't be right? Update: I am using InsertOnSubmit. Simplified code: public ActionResult Create(Message message) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { var db = new MessagingDataContext(); db.Messages.InsertOnSubmit(message); db.SubmitChanges(); //line 93 (where it breaks) } } breaks on SubmitChanges() with the error at the top of this question. Update2: Stack trace: at Read_Object(ObjectMaterializer`1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Enumerable.FirstOrDefault[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeDirector.StandardChangeDirector.DynamicInsert(TrackedObject item) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeDirector.StandardChangeDirector.Insert(TrackedObject item) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at Qanda.Controllers.MessagingController.Ask(Message message) in C:\Qanda\Qanda\Controllers\MessagingController.cs:line 93 Update3: No one knows and I don't have enough clout to offer a bounty! So continued on my ASP.NET blog. Please help!

  Read the article

• Replace or recode several different values by a single value in an Excel file

  - by Ali

  Hi all, I have an Excel worksheet which contains data in several columns. For a specific column, I will need Excel to replace all values between, say 10 to 15, by the value 1 and values between 16 and 20 by the value 2 and so forth. I know how to do it for a single value; ie: I can replace value 10 by 1, 11 by 1 and so on. But this will be a tedious exercise. Are there some lines of codes that can execute this task? Thanks for your help. regards, Ali

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >